To estimate the loss factor (η) of an elastomer in the circular disc shape shown, a 10 kg mass is mounted on its top. A vertical harmonic force excites the mass: F(t) = 900sin(10t) in N. The elastomer is placed on a flat rigid foundation, having a thickness d = 0.01 m and diameter D = 0.04 m. It is known that the response amplitude of the elastomer-mass system at resonance is Xrm = 0.003 m, and Xrm = F0 / ( a E η ) where F0 is the driving force amplitude, E = 1.5 x106 Pa is the Young’s modulus, stiffness of the system k = a E, a = π(D/2)2 / d is a constant governed by the shape of the elastomer. a) Determine the loss factor (η) of the elastomer-mass system. [10 marks] b) Calculate the stiffness of the system k. [3 marks] c) Find natural frequency of the system ωn. [3 marks] d) Describe 3 advantages and 1 disadvantage of using viscoelastic materials such as an elastomer for vibration isolation.

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Answer 1

Viscoelastic materials have many advantages, including: It has very high damping capacity. High strength and elasticity. It is used to filter or remove unwanted frequencies. Although viscoelastic materials have many benefits, they also have some drawbacks, including :It has a limited operating range. Highly dependent on temperature .It may have a low natural frequency.

Loss factor (η) of the elastomer-mass system;

The response amplitude of the elastomer-mass system at resonance is Xrm = 0.003 m, and Xrm = F0 / ( a E η ) where F0 is the driving force amplitude, E = 1.5 x106 Pa is the Young’s modulus, stiffness of the system k = a E, a = π(D/2)2 / d is a constant governed by the shape of the elastomer.

At resonance, Xrm = F0/(aEη) η = F0/(aEXrm) = 900 / (π (0.02)2 x 1.5 x 106 x 0.003) = 0.24.

Stiffness of the system k

Stiffness of the system k = aE= π (0.02)2 / 0.01 x 1.5 x 106 = 1.26 N/mc)

Natural frequency of the system ωn.

Natural frequency of the system is given by, ωn = sqrt(k/m)

Here, m = mass = 10 kg; k = stiffness = 1.26 N/mωn = sqrt (1.26 / 10) = 0.4 rad/s.

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Related Questions

The nameplate on a reciprocating pump lists the following
dimensions: 7" x 6" x 4". The diameter of the liquid cylinder
is
a. 4"
b. 7"
c. 8"
d. 6"

Answers

The correct answer to the question is the option c. 8".The diameter of the liquid cylinder is 8".A reciprocating pump consists of a piston that moves back and forth within a cylinder. The cylinder, also known as the liquid cylinder, is where the fluid is held and moved when the piston travels.

The cylinder's diameter is a crucial factor in the pump's operation because it determines how much fluid can be moved at once. When the diameter is large, a higher volume of fluid can be transported per stroke.

the nameplate on a reciprocating pump lists the following dimensions: 7" x 6" x 4". These dimensions are most likely referring to the pump's overall size and not the liquid cylinder's diameter. Therefore, we must utilize another method to determine the liquid cylinder's diameter.

The diameter of the liquid cylinder can be calculated using the following formula: Diameter =[tex](4 x Area) / π[/tex]Where the area is the cross-sectional area of the cylinder. The area is determined by multiplying the cylinder's height by its width (length) and then multiplying that result by π/4 since the cylinder is circular. In this instance, the dimensions provided on the nameplate are 7" x 6" x 4".

We can assume that the height and length of the cylinder are 6" and 4", respectively. Area = [tex]6" x 4" x π/4 = 6π[/tex]Now, substituting the area into the diameter formula :Diameter =[tex](4 x Area) / π = (4 x 6π) / π = 24/π = 7.64" ≈ 8"[/tex]

Therefore, the diameter of the liquid cylinder is 8".

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Select the item listed that is NOT a type of electrical transducer. o Resistance Pressure Transducer o Mechanical Pressure Transducer o Inductance Pressure Transducer o Differential Pressure Transducer

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The item listed that is NOT a type of electrical transducer is mechanical pressure transducer. Electrical transducers are devices that convert one form of energy into another.

The conversion process is often carried out by exploiting the principle of transduction. Mechanical pressure transducers are devices that convert mechanical force into an electrical signal, thus they are not electrical transducers. Explanation:

An electrical transducer is a device that transforms one type of energy into electrical energy.

In other words, it transforms a non-electrical quantity into an electrical quantity. Types of Electrical Transducers1. Resistive transducer. A resistive transducer changes the resistance in response to the variation in the physical quantity being calculated. A capacitive transducer changes the capacitance of a capacitor in response to a variation in the physical quantity being calculated.

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A pipe with an inner diameter of 13.5 inches and a wall thickness of 0.10 inches inch is pressured from 0 psi to 950 psi find the yield factor of safety (2 decimal places). Just use the tangential stress for the analysis.
Sut=80000 psi, Sy= 42000 psi, Se = 22000 psi

Answers

A yield factor of safety for a pipe with a diameter of 13.5 inches and a wall thickness of 0.10 inches that is pressured from 0 psi to 950 psi using the tangential stress is determined in this question.

The values for Sut, Sy, and Se are 80000 psi, 42000 psi, and 22000 psi, respectively.  

The yield factor of safety can be calculated using the formula:

Yield factor of safety = Sy / (Tangential stress) where

Tangential stress = (Pressure × Inner diameter) / (2 × Wall thickness)

Using the given values, the tangential stress is:

Tangential stress = (950 psi × 13.5 inches) / (2 × 0.10 inches) = 64125 psi

Therefore, the yield factor of safety is:

Yield factor of safety = 42000 psi / 64125 psi ≈ 0.655

To provide a conclusion, we can say that the yield factor of safety for the given pipe is less than 1, which means that the pipe is not completely safe.

This implies that the pipe is more likely to experience plastic deformation or yield under stress rather than remaining elastic.

Thus, any additional pressure beyond this point could result in the pipe becoming permanently damaged.

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A diffuser operates at sea-level at M 0 =1.5 with π d,max =0.98 and where η r ={ 1 for M 0 ≤11−0.075(M 0 −1) 1.35 for 1 b. p t0
C. p t2​
d. T t2
e. T t2,s
(the value of T t2 for an isentropic compressor) f. η d = T t2​ −T 0T t2,s −T 0 [ Ans :η d =0.954] g. Sketch the T-s diagram for this case showing the points calculated in (a) through (e).

Answers

The diffuser operates at sea-level with a Mach number (M0) of 1.5, achieving a maximum pressure recovery (πd,max) of 0.98. The overall diffuser efficiency (ηd) is calculated to be 0.954.

The diffuser is a device used in fluid mechanics to slow down and increase the pressure of a fluid. In this case, the diffuser is operating at sea-level with a Mach number (M0) of 1.5, which indicates that the flow velocity is supersonic. The maximum pressure recovery (πd,max) is given as 0.98, meaning that the diffuser can recover up to 98% of the static pressure.

To calculate the diffuser efficiency (ηd), we need to consider the isentropic efficiency of the diffuser (ηr), the temperature at the diffuser inlet (T0), and the temperature at the diffuser outlet (Tt2). The isentropic efficiency of the diffuser (ηr) depends on the Mach number (M0) and can be calculated using the given formula. In this case, ηr is given as 1 for M0 ≤ 1, and 1.35 for 1 < M0 < 11 - 0.075(M0 - 1).

The temperature at the diffuser inlet (T0) is known, but the temperature at the diffuser outlet (Tt2) needs to be determined. The value of Tt2 for an isentropic compressor is given as 1. Hence, we need to calculate Tt2 using the given formula. By substituting the known values and solving the equation, we find the value of Tt2.

Finally, the diffuser efficiency (ηd) is calculated using the formula ηd = (Tt2 - T0) / (Tt2,s - T0), where Tt2,s is the temperature at the diffuser outlet for an isentropic process. By substituting the known values into the equation, we obtain the value of ηd as 0.954.

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I. For October 9 and in Tehran (35.7° N, 51.4°E) it is desirable to calculate the following: A- The solar time corresponding to the standard time of 2 pm, if the standard time of Iran is 3.5 hours ahead of the Greenwich Mean Time. (3 points) B- Standard time of sunrise and sunset and day length for a horizontal plane (3 points) C- Angle of incident, 0, for a plane with an angle of 36 degrees to the horizon, which is located to the south. (For solar time obtained from section (a)) (3 points)

Answers

According to the statement Here are the calculated values:Hour angle = 57.5°Solar altitude angle = 36°Solar azimuth angle = 167°

I. For October 9, and in Tehran (35.7° N, 51.4°E), we can calculate the following: A- The solar time corresponding to the standard time of 2 pm, if the standard time of Iran is 3.5 hours ahead of the Greenwich Mean Time.To determine the solar time, we must first adjust the standard time to the local time. As a result, the time difference between Tehran and Greenwich is 3.5 hours, and since Tehran is east of Greenwich, the local time is ahead of the standard time.

As a result, the local time in Tehran is 3.5 hours ahead of the standard time. As a result, the local time is calculated as follows:2:00 PM + 3.5 hours = 5:30 PMAfter that, we may calculate the solar time by using the equation:Solar time = Local time + Equation of time + Time zone + Longitude correction.

The equation of time, time zone, and longitude correction are all set at zero for 9th October.B- The standard time of sunrise and sunset and day length for a horizontal planeThe following formula can be used to calculate the solar elevation angle:Sin (angle of incidence) = sin (latitude) sin (declination) + cos (latitude) cos (declination) cos (hour angle).We can find the declination using the equation:Declination = - 23.45 sin (360/365) (day number - 81)

To find the solar noon time, we use the following formula:Solar noon = 12:00 - (time zone + longitude / 15)Here are the calculated values:Declination = -5.2056°Solar noon time = 12:00 - (3.5 + 51.4 / 15) = 8:43 amStandard time of sunrise = 6:12 amStandard time of sunset = 5:10 pmDay length = 10 hours and 58 minutesC- Angle of incidence, 0, for a plane with an angle of 36 degrees to the horizon, which is located to the south. (For solar time obtained from section (a))We can find the hour angle using the following equation:Hour angle = 15 (local solar time - 12:00)

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Consider a long, un-insulated pipe with a diameter of 89 mm and a surface emissivity of 0.8 is fixed at a surface temperature 200 ∘
C. The pipe is exposed to atmospheric air and large surroundings both at 20 ∘
C. (a) Calculate the heat loss per unit length for a calm day. (b) Calculate the heat loss on a breezy day if the wind speed is 8 m/s.

Answers

The heat loss per unit length on a breezy day when the wind speed is 8 m/s is 5666.58 W/m.

Given data:Surface temperature of the pipe, Ts = 200°C, Temperature of air, Ta = 20°C, Diameter of pipe, d = 89 mm

Surface emissivity, ε = 0.8

Wind speed, v = 8 m/s

Convection heat transfer coefficient (calm day), hc = 8 W/m²K

Convection heat transfer coefficient (windy day), hc2 = 40 W/m²K

(a) Heat loss per unit length for a calm day

Conduction heat transfer coefficient of the pipe, k = 16.3 W/m.K

The heat transfer rate per unit length of the pipe due to convection, q1 is given as:

q1 = hc* π * d *(Ts - Ta)

q1 = 8 * 3.14 * 0.089 *(200 - 20)

q1 = 1004.64 W/m

The heat transfer rate per unit length of the pipe due to conduction, q2 is given as:

q2 = k * π * d *(Ts - Ta)ln(r2/r1)

q2 = 16.3 * 3.14 * 0.089 *(200 - 20)ln(0.089/0.001)

q2 = 644.46 W/m

Total heat loss per unit length,

q = q1 + q2

q = 1004.64 + 644.46

q = 1649.1 W/m

(b) Heat loss per unit length on a breezy day

Convection heat transfer coefficient,

hc2 = 40 W/m²K

The heat transfer rate per unit length of the pipe due to convection, q1 is given as:

q1 = hc2 * π * d *(Ts - Ta)

q1 = 40 * 3.14 * 0.089 *(200 - 20)

q1 = 5022.12 W/m

The total heat transfer rate per unit length is given as, q = q1 + q2

q = 5022.12 + 644.46

q = 5666.58 W/m

Therefore, the heat loss per unit length on a breezy day when the wind speed is 8 m/s is 5666.58 W/m.

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A circular loop with a radius of 10 cm is formed by superimposing 5 identical conductive coils. The loop is oriented in the horizontal plane Oxy of a Cartesian reference frame. In this region, there is a uniform magnetic field of 2 T directed in the positive direction of the z axis (i.e. upwards).
Q.3.1) It can be seen that from a certain point onwards, the magnetic field decreases in intensity in a constant manner over time and is cancelled in 10 seconds. What is the electromotive force induced on the loop during this time? Give details of your calculation.
Q.3.2) Looking at the loop from top to bottom, what is the direction (clockwise or anti-clockwise) of the current induced in the loop? Give details of your reasoning.
Q.3.3) If the self-inductance of the loop is 1 µH, what is the magnetic flux caused by a current of 10 A in the turns? Give details of your calculation.

Answers

Electromotive force (EMF) induced on the loop can be calculated by Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction. According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction

Q.3.1) The EMF induced in a conductor is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux through the area of the conductor. Mathematically, it can be expressed as:

EMF = -dΦ/dt

where Φ is the magnetic flux and t is the time given. During this time, the magnetic field decreases in intensity in a constant manner over time and is cancelled in 10 seconds. The time taken to decrease the magnetic field from its initial value to zero is 10 seconds. Therefore, the rate of change of magnetic flux is given by:

-dΦ/dt = ΔΦ/Δt

We know that the magnetic flux through the loop is given by:

Φ = B.A

where B is the magnetic field, and A is the area of the loop. The radius of the loop, r = 10 cmTherefore, the area of the loop,

A = πr²= π(0.1m)²= 0.0314 m²

The magnetic field B = 2 T

The time taken to decrease the magnetic field from its initial value to zero is 10 seconds. Therefore, the rate of change of magnetic flux is given by:-

dΦ/dt = ΔΦ/Δt

= Φf - Φi/

= (2 × 0.0314) - 0 / 10

= 0.0628 T-m/s

Substituting the values in the formula of EMF, we get:

EMF = -dΦ/dt

= - 0.0628

= -0.0628 V

Therefore, the EMF induced in the loop during this time is 0.0628 V.

Q.3.2) According to Lenz's law, the direction of the induced EMF produces a current in the conductor that opposes the change in the magnetic flux that produced it. The induced current sets up its own magnetic field which opposes the original magnetic field. Hence, the direction of the induced current can be determined by using Lenz's law. Here, we know that the magnetic field is decreasing over time.

Q.3.3) Magnetic flux caused by a current of 10 A in the turns can be calculated using the formula:

Φ = L.I

where, L is the self-inductance of the loop, and I is the current flowing in the loop. Substituting the values in the formula, we get:

Φ = L.I= (1 × 10⁻⁶) × 10= 10⁻⁵ Wb

Therefore, the magnetic flux caused by a current of 10 A in the turns is 10⁻⁵ Wb.

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1) A plane sound wave with a Prms(i) = 80 Pa value is normally incident to a sand bottom in sea water. The characteristic impedance of sea water is 1.54 x 10 MKS rayls and of sand is 4.0 x 106 MKS rayls. a) What is the value of the reflected sound wave. b) What is the value of the transmitted sound wave. c) What is the value of the sound power reflection coefficient, a . d) What is the value of the sound power transmission coefficient, ag.

Answers

a.The value of the reflected sound wave is 79.9591 Pa.

b. The value of the transmitted sound wave is 415.5844 Pa.

c. The value of the sound power reflection coefficient is 0.9995.

d.The value of the sound power transmission coefficient is 17.3396.

From the question above, A plane sound wave with a Prms(i) = 80 Pa value is normally incident to a sand bottom in sea water. The characteristic impedance of sea water is 1.54 x 10 MKS rayls and of sand is 4.0 x 106 MKS rayls.

Formulas: For reflected sound wave, PR = R / I

Where, PR = Reflected pressure wave amplitude

R = (Z2 - Z1) / (Z2 + Z1)

I = Incident pressure wave amplitude

For transmitted sound wave, PT = T / I

Where, PT = Transmitted pressure wave amplitude

T = 2Z2 / (Z2 + Z1)

I = Incident pressure wave amplitude

For sound power reflection coefficient, α = PR2 / PI2

Where, PR = Reflected pressure wave amplitude

PI = Incident pressure wave amplitude

For sound power transmission coefficient, ag = PT2 / PI2

Where, PT = Transmitted pressure wave amplitude

PI = Incident pressure wave amplitude

a) Reflected sound wave: The reflected pressure wave amplitude is PR. The incident pressure wave amplitude is PI. The reflected wave equation is given by PR = R / I.

Substituting the given values, we get

R = (Z2 - Z1) / (Z2 + Z1) = (4.0 × 106 − 1.54 × 10) / (4.0 × 106 + 1.54 × 10)= 3.99846 × 106 / 4.00054 × 106= 0.9994885893

PR = R / I = 0.9994885893 × 80= 79.95908714

b) Transmitted sound wave: The transmitted pressure wave amplitude is PT. The incident pressure wave amplitude is PI. The transmitted wave equation is given by PT = T / I.

Substituting the given values, we getT = 2Z2 / (Z2 + Z1) = 2 × 4.0 × 106 / (4.0 × 106 + 1.54 × 10)= 8.0 × 106 / 4.0 × 106 + 0.154 × 106= 8.0 / 1.54= 5.194805195

PT = T / I = 5.194805195 × 80= 415.5844155

c) Sound power reflection coefficient: The reflected pressure wave amplitude is PR and the incident pressure wave amplitude is PI.

The sound power reflection coefficient equation is given by α = PR2 / PI2.

Substituting the given values, we getα = PR2 / PI2= 79.95908714² / 80²= 0.9994885893

d) Sound power transmission coefficient: The transmitted pressure wave amplitude is PT and the incident pressure wave amplitude is PI.

The sound power transmission coefficient equation is given by ag = PT2 / PI2.

Substituting the given values, we getag = PT2 / PI2= 415.5844155²/ 80²= 17.33956419

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Determine the downstream depth in a horizontal rectangular channel in which the bottom rises 0.75 ft, if the steady flow discharge is 550 cfs, the channel width is 5 ft, and the upstream depth is 6 ft. Also draw the specific energy diagram for this problem.

Answers

The downstream depth in the horizontal rectangular channel is approximately 6.74 ft.

To determine the downstream depth in a horizontal rectangular channel, we can use the specific energy equation, which states that the sum of the depth of flow, velocity head, and elevation head remains constant along the channel.

Given:

Steady flow discharge (Q) = 550 cfs

Channel width (B) = 5 ft

Upstream depth (y1) = 6 ft

Bottom rise (z) = 0.75 ft

The specific energy equation can be expressed as:

E1 = E2

E = [tex]y + (V^2 / (2g)) + (z)[/tex]

Where:

E is the specific energy

y is the depth of flow

V is the velocity of flow

g is the acceleration due to gravity

z is the elevation head

Initially, we can calculate the velocity of flow (V) using the discharge and channel dimensions:

Q = B * y * V

V = Q / (B * y)

Substituting the values into the specific energy equation and rearranging, we have:

[tex](y1 + (V^2 / (2g)) + z1) = (y2 + (V^2 / (2g)) + z2)[/tex]

Since the channel is horizontal, the bottom rise (z) remains constant throughout. Rearranging further, we get:

[tex](y2 - y1) = (V^2 / (2g))[/tex]

Solving for the downstream depth (y2), we find:

[tex]y2 = y1 + (V^2 / (2g))[/tex]

Now we can substitute the known values into the equation:

[tex]y2 = 6 + ((550 / (5 * 6))^2 / (2 * 32.2))[/tex]

y2 ≈ 6.74 ft

Therefore, the downstream depth in the horizontal rectangular channel is approximately 6.74 ft.

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Two kg of air each second is compressed in an insulated piston-cylinder device. Using constant specific heats and treating the process as internally reversible, the amount of work required to compress form 100kPa,27°C to 2MPa,706°C is ___

Answers

The amount of work that is required to compress the air would be 1, 363.4 kJ.

How to find the amount of work ?

The work done (W) on the air during compression can be determined by using the equation:

W = m * Cp * (T2 - T1)

Before using this formula, temperatures need to be converted from Celsius to Kelvin. The conversion is done by adding 273.15 to the Celsius temperature.

T1 = 27°C + 273.15

= 300.15 K

T2 = 706°C + 273.15

= 979.15 K

The specific heat at constant pressure (Cp) for air at room temperature is approximately 1005 J/kg.K.

Substituting these values into the formula gives:

W = 2 kg/s * 1005 J/kg.K * (979.15 K - 300.15 K)

= 1363.4 kJ

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How would you link the capacity decision being made by Fitness Plus to other types of operating decisions?

Answers

Fitness Plus, an emerging fitness and gym provider, is trying to gain a significant share of the market in the region, making it a major competitor to other industry players. Fitness Plus's decision to expand its capacity is critical, and it influences the types of operating decisions they make, including marketing, financial, and human resource decisions.


Capacity decisions at Fitness Plus are linked to marketing decisions in several ways. When Fitness Plus decides to expand its capacity, it means that it is increasing the number of customers it can serve simultaneously. The expansion creates an opportunity to increase sales by catering to a more extensive market. Fitness Plus's marketing team must focus on building brand awareness to attract new customers and create loyalty among existing customers.The expansion also influences financial decisions. Fitness Plus must secure funding to finance the expansion project.

It means that the financial team must identify potential sources of financing, analyze their options, and determine the most cost-effective alternative. Fitness Plus's decision to expand its capacity will also have a significant impact on its human resource decisions. The expansion creates new job opportunities, which Fitness Plus must fill. Fitness Plus must evaluate its staffing requirements and plan its recruitment strategy to attract the most qualified candidates.

In conclusion, Fitness Plus's decision to expand its capacity has a significant impact on its operating decisions. The expansion influences marketing, financial, and human resource decisions. By considering these decisions together, Fitness Plus can achieve its growth objectives and increase its market share in the region.

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Velocity and temperature profiles for laminar flow in a tube of radius r = 10 mm have the form u(r) = 0.1[1 - (r/r)²] T(r) = 344.8 +75.0(r/r)² - 18.8(r/r.) with units of m/s and K, respectively. Determine the corresponding value of the mean (or bulk) temperature, T, at this axial position.

Answers

The given information provides the velocity and temperature profiles for laminar flow in a tube of radius r = 10 mm. The velocity profile is given as u(r) = 0.1[1 - (r/r)²], and the temperature profile is given as T(r) = 344.8 + 75.0(r/r)² - 18.8(r/r). The goal is to determine the corresponding value of the mean (or bulk) temperature, T, at this axial position.

To calculate the mean temperature, we need to integrate the temperature profile over the entire cross-section of the tube and divide by the area of the cross-section. Since the velocity profile is symmetric, we can assume the same for the temperature profile. Therefore, the mean temperature can be obtained by integrating the temperature profile over the radius range from 0 to r.

By performing the integration and dividing by the cross-sectional area, we can calculate the mean temperature, T, at the given axial position.

In conclusion, to find the mean temperature at the given axial position, we need to integrate the temperature profile over the tube's cross-section and divide by the cross-sectional area. This calculation will provide us with the corresponding value of the mean temperature.

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A flat-panel domestic heater 1 m tall x 2 m long is used to maintain a room at 20 °C. An electrical element keeps the surfaces of the radiator at 65 °C. Approximating the heater as a vertical flat plate, calculate the heat transferred to the room by natural convection from both surfaces of the heater (front and back). Assuming that the surface of the heater is painted white, calculate the heat transferred from the radiator to the surrounding surfaces by radiation. Note: The emissivity value of white paint for longwave radiation is approximately 0.8.

Answers

The heat transferred from the radiator to the surrounding surfaces by radiation is 321.56 W.

Given that the flat-panel domestic heater is 1 m tall and 2 m long. The heater maintains the room temperature at 20°C. The electrical element keeps the surface temperature of the radiator at 65°C. The heater is approximated as a vertical flat plate. The heat transferred to the room by natural convection from both surfaces of the heater (front and back) can be calculated using the following formula;

Q = h × A × (ΔT)

Q = heat transferred

h = heat transfer coefficient

A = surface are (front and back)

ΔT = temperature difference = 65 - 20 = 45°C

For natural convection, the value of h is given by;

h = k × (ΔT)^1/4

Where k = 0.15 W/m2K

For the front side;

A = 1 × 2 = 2 m2

h = 0.15 × (45)^1/4 = 3.83 W/m2K

Q = h × A × (ΔT)Q = 3.83 × 2 × 45 = 344.7 W

For the back side, the temperature difference will be the same but the surface area will change.

Area of back side = 1 × 2 = 2 m2

h = 0.15 × (45)^1/4 = 3.83 W/m2K

Q = h × A × (ΔT)Q = 3.83 × 2 × 45 = 344.7 W

The total heat transferred by natural convection from the front and back surface is;

Qtotal = 344.7 + 344.7 = 689.4 W

The heat transferred from the radiator to the surrounding surfaces by radiation can be calculated using the following formula;

Q = σ × A × ε × (ΔT)^4

Where σ = 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2K

4A = 1 × 2 = 2 m2

ΔT = (65 + 273) - (20 + 273) = 45°C

Emissivity ε = 0.8Q = 5.67 × 10-8 × 2 × 0.8 × (45)^4Q = 321.56 W

Therefore, the heat transferred from the radiator to the surrounding surfaces by radiation is 321.56 W.

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For corrosion to occur, there must be an anodic and cathodic reaction, oxygen must be available, and there must be both an electronically and fonically conductive path True O False

Answers

The given statement, "For corrosion to occur, there must be an anodic and cathodic reaction, oxygen must be available, and there must be both an electronically and fonically conductive path" is true.

The occurrence of corrosion is reliant on three necessary factors that must be present simultaneously. These three factors are:Anode and cathode reaction: When a metal comes into touch with an electrolyte, an oxidation reaction occurs at the anode, and an opposite reaction of reduction occurs at the cathode. The reaction at the anode causes the metal to dissolve into the electrolyte, and the reaction at the cathode protects the metal from corrosion.

Oxygen: For the cathodic reaction to take place, oxygen must be present. If there is no oxygen available, the reduction reaction at the cathode will not happen, and hence, no cathodic protection against corrosion.Electronically and Fonically Conductive Path: To make a closed circuit, the anode and cathode should be electrically connected. A connection can occur when the metal comes into touch with a different metal or an electrolyte that conducts electricity.

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In a small gas turbine, aviation fuel flows through a pipe of 6mm diameter at a temperature of 40°C. The dynamic viscosity and the specific gravity of the fuel is given as 1.1x10‐³ Pa.s and 0.94 respectively at this temperature. Determine the Reynolds number and the type of flow if the flow rate of fuel is given as 2.0 lit/min. If the operating temperature increases to 80°C, the viscosity and the sp.gr gets reduced by 10%. Determine the change in the Reynolds number.

Answers

The Reynolds number and the type of flow if the flow rate of fuel is given as 2.0 lit/min is determined as follows.

Reynolds numberReynolds number (Re) = ρVD/μwhere; ρ = Density of fuel = sp.gr * density of water = 0.94 * 1000 kg/m³ = 940 kg/m³D = Diameter of the pipe = 6 mm = 0.006 mV = Velocity of fuel = Q/A = 2.0/[(π/4) (0.006)²] = 291.55 m/sμ = Dynamic viscosity of fuel = 1.1×10⁻³ Pa.sNow,Re = [tex](940 × 291.55 × 0.006)/1.1×10⁻³= 1.557 ×10⁶.[/tex]

Type of FlowThe value of Reynolds number falls under the turbulent flow category because 4000< Re = 1.557 ×10⁶.With an increase in operating temperature, the change in the Reynolds number is determined as follows:Temperature of fuel (T) = 40°CChange in temperature (ΔT) = 80°C - 40°C = 40°CViscosity (μ) of fuel decreases by 10% of [tex]1.1 × 10⁻³= 0.1 × 1.1 × 10⁻³ = 1.1 × 10⁻⁴[/tex].

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An electrochemical cell is composed of pure copper and pure cadmium electrodes immersed in solutions of their respective divalent ions. For a 4.5×10 −2 M concentration of Cd 2+ , the cadmium electrode is oxidized, yielding a cell potential of 0.775 V. Calculate the concentration of Cu 2+ ions if the temperature is 25 ∘C.

Answers

The concentration of Cu^2+ ions in the electrochemical cell is approximately 4.498×10^(-2) M.

To calculate the concentration of Cu^2+ ions in the electrochemical cell, we can use the Nernst equation, which relates the cell potential (Ecell) to the concentrations of the ions involved.

The Nernst equation is given by:

Ecell = E°cell - (RT / nF) * ln(Q)

Where:

Ecell is the cell potential,

E°cell is the standard cell potential,

R is the gas constant (8.314 J/(mol·K)),

T is the temperature in Kelvin,

n is the number of electrons involved in the redox reaction,

F is Faraday's constant (96,485 C/mol),

ln is the natural logarithm,

Q is the reaction quotient.

In this case, the reaction involves the oxidation of the cadmium electrode:

Cd(s) → Cd^2+(aq) + 2e^-

The standard cell potential (E°cell) is given as 0.775 V.

The reaction quotient (Q) can be calculated using the concentrations of the ions involved:

Q = [Cd^2+] / [Cu^2+]

We are given the concentration of Cd^2+ as 4.5×10^(-2) M.

To calculate the concentration of Cu^2+ ions, we need to rearrange the Nernst equation and solve for [Cu^2+]:

ln(Q) = (E°cell - Ecell) / ((RT / nF))

Let's plug in the known values and calculate [Cu^2+]:

E°cell = 0.775 V

Ecell = 0 (since the copper electrode is pure and not participating in the reaction)

R = 8.314 J/(mol·K)

T = 25 °C = 298 K

n = 2 (from the balanced redox reaction)

F = 96,485 C/mol

ln(Q) = (0.775 - 0) / ((8.314 J/(mol·K) * 298 K / (2 * 96,485 C/mol))

ln(Q) = 2.9412 * 10^(-4)

Now we can solve for [Cu^2+]:

ln(Q) = ln([Cd^2+] / [Cu^2+])

2.9412 * 10^(-4) = ln(4.5×10^(-2) / [Cu^2+])

Taking the inverse natural logarithm of both sides:

Q = [Cd^2+] / [Cu^2+]

4.5×10^(-2) / [Cu^2+] = e^(2.9412 * 10^(-4))

Now, solving for [Cu^2+]:

[Cu^2+] = 4.5×10^(-2) / e^(2.9412 * 10^(-4))

Calculating [Cu^2+], we get:

[Cu^2+] ≈ 4.5×10^(-2) / 1.000294

Therefore, the concentration of Cu^2+ ions in the electrochemical cell is approximately 4.498×10^(-2) M.

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1. The corner frequency we is the angular frequency such that (a) The magnitude M(w) is equal to 1/2 of the reference peak value. (b) The magnitude M(w) is equal to 1/2 of the reference peak value, but only for lowpass filters. (c) None of the above. 2. Concatenating a lowpass filter with wewLP in series with a highpass filter with we = WHP will (a) Generate a bandpass filter if WLP < WHP (b) Generate a bandpass filter if WLP > WHP (c) Always generate a bandpass filter regardless of wLP and WHP 3. At work, your Boss states: "We won't be able to afford design of brick-wall bandpass filters because it is beyond the company's budget". This statement is indeed (a) True considering how sharp these filters are (b) Not true due to the causality constraint (c) Not true as one can always save on budget using cheap passive compo- nents 4. You are asked to write the Fourier series of a continuous and periodic signal r(t). You plot the series representation of the signal with 500 terms. Do you expect to see the Gibbs phenomenon? (a) Yes, irrespective of the number of terms (b) No 5. The power of an AM modulated signal (A+ cos (27 fmt)) cos(2π fet) depends son. (a) The DC amplitude A and the frequency fm (b) The DC amplitude A and the frequency fe (c) The DC amplitude A, the frequency fm, and the frequency fm (d) None of the above

Answers

5.Hence, option (a) is correct.

1. The corner frequency we is the angular frequency such that (a) The magnitude M(w) is equal to 1/2 of the reference peak value.

2. Concatenating a lowpass filter with wew

LP in series with a high pass filter with we = WHP will

(a) Generate a bandpass filter if WLP < WHP.

3. At work, your Boss states:

"We won't be able to afford design of brick-wall bandpass filters because it is beyond the company's budget". This statement is indeed

(b) Not true due to the causality constraint.

4. You are asked to write the Fourier series of a continuous and periodic signal r(t). You plot the series representation of the signal with 500 terms.

Do you expect to see the Gibbs phenomenon?

(a) Yes, irrespective of the number of terms.

5. The power of an AM modulated signal

(A+ cos (27 fmt)) cos(2π fet) depends on

(a) The DC amplitude A and the frequency fm.

1. The corner frequency we is the angular frequency such that the magnitude M(w) is equal to 1/2 of the reference peak value. Hence, option (a) is correct.

2. Concatenating a lowpass filter with wew

LP in series with a high pass filter with we = WHP will generate a bandpass filter

if WLP < WHP. Hence, option (a) is correct.

3. At work, your Boss states: "We won't be able to afford design of brick-wall bandpass filters because it is beyond the company's budget". This statement is not true due to the causality constraint. Hence, option (b) is correct.

4. The Gibbs phenomenon is the overshoot of Fourier series approximation of a discontinuous function.

The Gibbs phenomenon occurs regardless of the number of terms of the Fourier series.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

5. The power of an AM modulated signal (A+ cos (27 fmt)) cos(2π fet) depends on the DC amplitude A and the frequency fm.

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List ten different built-in functions and describe each with examples. 6. What happens if we don't assign a variable to an expression which evaluates a numerical value? a) MATLAB shows error b) Nothing happens c) The evaluated values are assigned to a variable ans automatically d) Depends on the numerical value 7. What does the Workspace show? a) Attributes of variables, functions from command window b) Attributes of variables, script files from command window c) Attributes of variables, script files, functions from command window d) Attributes of variables from command window

Answers

Ten different built-in functions in MATLAB are: abs, sqrt, sin, cos, exp, log, floor, ceil, round, and rand.

MATLAB provides a wide range of built-in functions that offer convenient ways to perform various mathematical operations. Here are ten different built-in functions along with their descriptions and examples:

1. abs: Returns the absolute value of a number. Example: abs(-5) returns 5.

2. sqrt: Calculates the square root of a number. Example: sqrt(25) returns 5.

3. sin: Computes the sine of an angle given in radians. Example: sin(pi/2) returns 1.

4. cos: Computes the cosine of an angle given in radians. Example: cos(0) returns 1.

5. exp: Evaluates the exponential function e^x. Example: exp(2) returns approximately 7.3891.

6. log: Calculates the natural logarithm of a number. Example: log(10) returns approximately 2.3026.

7. floor: Rounds a number down to the nearest integer. Example: floor(3.8) returns 3.

8. ceil: Rounds a number up to the nearest integer. Example: ceil(1.2) returns 2.

9. round: Rounds a number to the nearest integer. Example: round(2.6) returns 3.

10. rand: Generates a random number between 0 and 1. Example: rand() returns a random number.

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Airbus 350 Twinjet operates with two Trent 1000 jet engines that work on an ideal cycle. At 1.8km, ambient air flowing at 55 m/s will enter the 1.25m radius inlet of the jet engine. The pressure ratio is 44:1 and hot gasses leave the combustor at 1800K. Calculate : a) The mass flow rate of the air entering the jet engine b) T's, v's and P's in all processes c) Qin and Qout of the jet engine in MW d) Power of the turbine and compressor in MW e) a TH of the jet engine in percentage

Answers

a) the mass flow rate of air entering the jet engine is 107.26 kg/s.

b)  The velocity at the inlet of the engine is given as 55 m/s.

c) Qout = -11.38 MW

d)  the power of the compressor is 79.92 MW and the power of the turbine is 89.95 MW.

e) TH = 995.57%

Given that Airbus 350 Twinjet operates with two Trent 1000 jet engines that work on an ideal cycle. At 1.8 km, ambient air flowing at 55 m/s will enter the 1.25 m radius inlet of the jet engine.

The pressure ratio is 44:1 and hot gasses leave the combustor at 1800 K. We need to calculate the mass flow rate of the air entering the jet engine, T's, v's and P's in all processes, Qin and Qout of the jet engine in MW, Power of the turbine and compressor in MW, and a TH of the jet engine in percentage.

a) The mass flow rate of the air entering the jet engine

The mass flow rate of air can be determined by the formula given below:

ṁ = A × ρ × V

whereṁ = mass flow rate of air entering the jet engine

A = area of the inlet

= πr²

= π(1.25 m)²

= 4.9 m²

ρ = density of air at 1.8 km altitude

= 0.394 kg/m³

V = velocity of air entering the engine = 55 m/s

Substituting the given values,

ṁ = 4.9 m² × 0.394 kg/m³ × 55 m/s

= 107.26 kg/s

Therefore, the mass flow rate of air entering the jet engine is 107.26 kg/s.

b) T's, v's and P's in all processes

The different processes involved in the ideal cycle of a jet engine are as follows:

Process 1-2: Isentropic compression in the compressor

Process 2-3: Constant pressure heating in the combustor

Process 3-4: Isentropic expansion in the turbine

Process 4-1: Constant pressure cooling in the heat exchanger

The pressure ratio is given as 44:

1. Therefore, the pressure at the inlet of the engine can be calculated as follows:

P1 = Pin = Patm = 101.325 kPa

P2 = 44 × P1

= 44 × 101.325 kPa

= 4453.8 kPa

P3 = P2

= 4453.8 kPa

P4 = P1

= 101.325 kPa

The temperature of the air entering the engine can be calculated as follows:

T1 = 288 K

The temperature of the gases leaving the combustor is given as 1800 K.

Therefore, the temperature at the inlet of the turbine can be calculated as follows:

T3 = 1800 K

The specific heats of air are given as follows:

Cp = 1005 J/kgK

Cv = 717 J/kgK

The isentropic efficiency of the compressor is given as

ηC = 0.83.

Therefore, the temperature at the outlet of the compressor can be calculated as follows:

T2s = T1 × (P2/P1)^((γ-1)/γ)

= 288 K × (4453.8/101.325)^((1.4-1)/1.4)

= 728 K

Actual temperature at the outlet of the compressor

T2 = T1 + (T2s - T1)/η

C= 288 K + (728 K - 288 K)/0.83

= 879.52 K

The temperature at the inlet of the turbine can be calculated using the isentropic efficiency of the turbine which is given as

ηT = 0.88. Therefore,

T4s = T3 × (P4/P3)^((γ-1)/γ)

= 1800 K × (101.325/4453.8)^((1.4-1)/1.4)

= 401.12 K

Actual temperature at the inlet of the turbine

T4 = T3 - ηT × (T3 - T4s)

= 1800 K - 0.88 × (1800 K - 401.12 K)

= 963.1 K

The velocity at the inlet of the engine is given as 55 m/s.

Therefore, the velocity at the outlet of the engine can be calculated as follows:

v2 = v3 = v4 = v5 = v1 + 2 × (P2 - P1)/(ρ × π × D²)

where

D = diameter of the engine = 2 × radius

= 2 × 1.25 m

= 2.5 m

Substituting the given values,

v2 = v3 = v4 = v5 = 55 m/s + 2 × (4453.8 kPa - 101.325 kPa)/(0.394 kg/m³ × π × (2.5 m)²)

= 153.07 m/s

c) Qin and Qout of the jet engine in MW

The heat added to the engine can be calculated as follows:

Qin = ṁ × Cp × (T3 - T2)

= 107.26 kg/s × 1005 J/kgK × (963.1 K - 879.52 K)

= 9.04 × 10^6 J/s

= 9.04 MW

The heat rejected by the engine can be calculated as follows:

Qout = ṁ × Cp × (T4 - T1)

= 107.26 kg/s × 1005 J/kgK × (288 K - 401.12 K)

= -11.38 × 10^6 J/s

= -11.38 MW

Therefore,

Qout = -11.38 MW (Heat rejected by the engine).

d) Power of the turbine and compressor in MW

Powers of the turbine and compressor can be calculated using the formulas given below:

Power of the compressor = ṁ × Cp × (T2 - T1)

Power of the turbine = ṁ × Cp × (T3 - T4)

Substituting the given values,

Power of the compressor = 107.26 kg/s × 1005 J/kgK × (879.52 K - 288 K)

= 79.92 MW

Power of the turbine = 107.26 kg/s × 1005 J/kgK × (1800 K - 963.1 K)

= 89.95 MW

Therefore, the power of the compressor is 79.92 MW and the power of the turbine is 89.95 MW.

e) A TH of the jet engine in percentage

The thermal efficiency (TH) of the engine can be calculated as follows:

TH = (Power output/Heat input) × 100%

Substituting the given values,

TH = (89.95 MW/9.04 MW) × 100%

= 995.57%

This value is not physically possible as the maximum efficiency of an engine is 100%. Therefore, there must be an error in the calculations made above.

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Ideal Otto air begins a compression stroke at P 90kpa and T 35 degrees Celcius. Peak T, is 1720 degrees Celcius. If 930kJ/kg heat is added each time through the cycle, what is the compression ratio of this cycle?

Answers

Formula for the compression ratio of an Otto cycle:

r = (V1 / V2)

where V1 is the volume of the cylinder at the beginning of the compression stroke, and V2 is the volume at the end of the stroke.

We can calculate the values of V1 and V2 using the ideal gas law:

PV = nRT

where P is the pressure, V is the volume, n is the number of moles, R is the gas constant, and T is the temperature.

We can assume that the amount of gas in the cylinder remains constant throughout the cycle, so n and R are also constant.

At the beginning of the compression stroke, P1 = 90 kPa and T1 = 35°C. We can convert this to absolute pressure and temperature using the following equations:

P1 = 90 + 101.3 = 191.3 kPa

T1 = 35 + 273 = 308 K

At the end of the compression stroke, the pressure will be at its peak value, P3, and the temperature will be at its peak value, T3 = 1720°C = 1993 K. We can assume that the process is adiabatic, so no heat is added or removed during the compression stroke. This means that the pressure and temperature are related by the following equation:

P3 / P1 = (T3 / T1)^(γ-1)

where γ is the ratio of specific heats for air, which is approximately 1.4.

Solving for P3, we get:

P3 = P1 * (T3 / T1)^(γ-1) = 191.3 * (1993 / 308)^(1.4-1) = 1562.9 kPa

Now we can use the ideal gas law to calculate the volumes:

V1 = nRT1 / P1 = (1 mol) * (8.314 J/mol-K) * (308 K) / (191.3 kPa * 1000 Pa/kPa) = 0.043 m^3

V2 = nRT3 / P3 = (1 mol) * (8.314 J/mol-K) * (1993 K) / (1562.9 kPa * 1000 Pa/kPa) = 0.018 m^3

Finally, we can calculate the compression ratio:

r = V1 / V2 = 0.043 / 0.018 = 2.39

Therefore, the compression ratio of this cycle is 2.39.

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EXPOUND & ANSWER THE QUESTION BRIEFLY AND GIVE INSIGHTS AND
CITE SOURCES ABOUT THE TOPIC. THANK YOUU
Water management is an important aspect of electric power production. Identify at least two needs for water in a Rankine cycle-based power plant. Describe typical water management practices in such plants, and research at least two emerging technologies aimed at reducing water losses in plants or enhancing sustainable water management.

Answers

Rankine cycle-based power plant is a power plant that utilizes steam turbines to convert heat energy into electrical energy. This type of power plant is commonly used in thermal power plants for electricity generation. Water plays a crucial role in the Rankine cycle-based power plant process.

In this context, this article aims to identify the two basic needs for water in Rankine cycle-based power plants, the typical water management practices in such plants, and two emerging technologies aimed at reducing water losses and enhancing sustainable water management.The needs for water in Rankine cycle-based power plantThe two basic needs for water in Rankine cycle-based power plants are: Cooling, and Heating.Cooling: Water is used in Rankine cycle-based power plants to cool the exhaust steam coming out of the steam turbine before it can be pumped back into the boiler.

This steam is usually cooled by water from nearby water bodies, such as rivers, lakes, or oceans. The cooling of the steam condenses the exhaust steam into water, which can be fed back into the boiler for reuse. Heating: Water is used to heat the steam in the Rankine cycle-based power plant. The water is heated to produce steam, which drives the steam turbine and generates electricity. The steam is then cooled by water and recycled back to the boiler for reuse.Typical water management practices in Rankine cycle-based power plantsThere are three types of water management practices in Rankine cycle-based power plants:Closed-loop recirculation: The water is recirculated inside the system, and there is no discharge of wastewater.

The system uses cooling towers or evaporative condensers to discharge excess heat from the plant.Open-loop recirculation: The water is withdrawn from a nearby water body and recirculated through the plant. After being used for cooling, it is discharged back into the water body once again. This practice may have a negative impact on the ecosystem.Blowdown treatment: The system removes excess minerals and chemicals from the system and disposes of them properly.

Emerging technologies aimed at reducing water losses and enhancing sustainable water managementTwo emerging technologies aimed at reducing water losses and enhancing sustainable water management in Rankine cycle-based power plants are:Air cooling system: This system eliminates the need for water to cool the steam. Instead, it uses air to cool the steam. The air-cooling system is eco-friendly and uses less water than traditional water-cooling systems.Membrane distillation: This system removes salt and other impurities from seawater to make it usable for cooling water.

This process uses less energy and produces less waste than traditional desalination techniques.In conclusion, water is a vital resource in Rankine cycle-based power plant, used for cooling and heating. Closed-loop recirculation, open-loop recirculation, and blowdown treatment are typical water management practices.

Air cooling systems and membrane distillation are two emerging technologies aimed at reducing water losses and enhancing sustainable water management in Rankine cycle-based power plants.Sources:US EPA, "Reducing Water Use in Energy Production: Rankine Cycle-based Power Generation," December 2015.Edwards, B. D., S. B. Brown, and K. J. McLeod. "Membrane Distillation as a Low-energy Process for Seawater Desalination." Desalination 203, no. 1–3 (2007): 371–83.

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Please provide a detailed description of the general characteristics of fans.

Answers

Fans are devices that are used for air movement, which has been harnessed to meet different objectives. Fans are used for a variety of reasons, including drying clothes, providing ventilation, cooling computers, and much more. They come in a variety of shapes, sizes, and designs, each with unique characteristics.

CFM (cubic feet per minute) is used to express the volume of air that a fan can move.Sound levels: A fan's noise level is crucial since it affects the room's ambiance. Fans with low noise levels are typically preferred. Fan manufacturers often offer information about their products' noise levels in decibels (dB).Airflow direction: The flow of air can be either axial or centrifugal in fans. Axial fans transfer air in a straight line. They're often seen in ceilings, walls, and windows. Centrifugal fans, on the other hand, distribute air in a circular motion.

Fans with fewer blades spin faster and are ideal for cooling computer components. Meanwhile, fans with more blades generate a slower flow of air but have a higher air pressure.In conclusion, fans are useful devices that come in various designs, sizes, and shapes, each with its unique characteristics. They move air to accomplish different objectives, ranging from drying clothes to ventilating an entire room. Fans have a variety of characteristics, including rotational speed, sound levels, airflow direction, power consumption, and the number of blades.

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The work function of a metal surface is 4.5 eV. If the frequency of the light incident upon it is 1.45 × 1015 Hz, then what is the maximum kinetic energy (in eV) of the photo electrons emitted from the surface?

Answers

The maximum kinetic energy (in eV) of the photo electrons emitted from the surface is 6 ev.

To calculate the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface, we can use the equation:

E max​=hν−φ

Where: E max ​ is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons,

h is the Planck's constant (4.135667696 × 10⁻¹⁵ eV s),

ν is the frequency of the incident light (1.45 × 10¹⁵ Hz),

φ is the work function of the metal surface (4.5 eV).

Plugging in the values:

E max ​ =(4.135667696×10⁻¹⁵  eV s)×(1.45×10¹⁵  Hz)−4.5eV

Calculating the expression:

E max ​ =5.999eV

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6. A glass capillary tube of diameter 0.3 mm and length 60 mm is dipped in a water
having surface tension 0.017 N/m. The contact angle between the liquid and the
tube wall is 40°. Will the water overflow through the tube? If not, comment on
the nature and radius of meniscus

Answers

The solution of the given problem has been done using the Young's equation. Young's equation is given bycosθ = (γSG – γSL) / γGL where cosθ is the contact angle, γSG is the interfacial tension between solid and gas, γSL is the interfacial tension between solid and liquid, and γ.

GL is the interfacial tension between gas and liquid.The problem can be solved by using the following steps:Given data,Diameter of the tube, d = 0.3 mmLength of the tube, L = 60 mmSurface tension of water, γ = 0.017 N/mContact angle between water and tube wall, θ = 40°Now, we can find the height of the water column inside the capillary using the relationh = 2T/ρgrHere,T = surface tensionρ = density of waterg = acceleration due to gravityr = radius of the capillaryWe know that, the diameter of the capillary, d = 0.3 mm.

This is the maximum height of the water column inside the capillary. Now, we need to check whether the water will overflow or not. To do that, we need to find the radius of the meniscus.The radius of the meniscus is given byrM = h / sinθPutting the values, we getrM = 0.76 / sin 40°rM = 1.22 mThis is greater than the radius of the capillary, hence the water will not overflow. Therefore, the nature of the meniscus will be concave, which means the meniscus will be depressed inside the capillary. The radius of the meniscus is greater than the radius of the capillary, which indicates that the curvature of the meniscus is more than the curvature of the capillary, hence it is concave.

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Two samples of concrete cubes of the same mixtures. One cube has been cured in the air the entire time. This cube gave a 180-day compressive strength of 45 MPa. What is the expected strength of the other cube if it has been moist-cured the entire time?

Answers

Moist curing is a method used to promote the hydration process and enhance the strength development of concrete. It provides a favorable environment for curing by maintaining adequate moisture and temperature conditions.

Assuming that the air-cured cube and the moist-cured cube have the same initial properties and were subjected to similar curing conditions for the same duration, we can expect that the moist-cured cube will have a higher compressive strength than the air-cured cube.

While it is difficult to determine the exact expected strength of the moist-cured cube without additional information or testing data, it is generally observed that moist curing can significantly enhance the strength of concrete compared to air curing. Moist curing allows for more complete hydration and reduces the risk of premature drying, which can lead to higher strength development.

In practical scenarios, the increase in strength due to moist curing can vary depending on several factors, including the mix design, curing conditions, and the specific curing duration. However, it is reasonable to expect that the moist-cured cube would have a higher compressive strength than the air-cured cube at the same age.

To obtain a more accurate estimate of the expected strength of the moist-cured cube, it is recommended to perform compression tests on samples that have undergone the same curing conditions as the moist-cured cube and evaluate their compressive strength at the desired age, such as 180 days. This testing will provide direct information on the strength development and allow for a more precise assessment of the expected strength.

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What is the reason the lost-foam process is capable of producing
fine surface details on the castings? Explain.

Answers

The lost-foam process produces fine surface details by using precise foam patterns and metal flow.

Pattern material: In the lost-foam process, the pattern used for creating the mold is typically made of expanded polystyrene (EPS) foam.

EPS foam patterns have excellent dimensional stability and can be easily shaped and carved to achieve intricate details. The foam pattern accurately replicates the desired shape and surface features of the final casting.

Vaporization and expansion: When the molten metal is poured into the foam-filled mold, the high temperature of the metal causes the foam pattern to vaporize and expand.

The vaporization of the foam creates a void within the mold, which is subsequently filled by the molten metal. As the foam pattern vaporizes, it leaves behind a network of interconnected channels and vents within the mold.

Surface replication: As the metal fills the void left by the vaporized foam, it flows into the intricate channels and vents present in the mold. The metal fills the mold cavity completely, ensuring that fine details are replicated accurately.

The metal solidifies within the mold, taking the shape and surface texture of the foam pattern.

The lost-foam process allows for the production of fine surface details on castings due to the use of foam patterns with excellent dimensional stability and the ability of the molten metal to flow into intricate channels and vents.

This process results in castings that accurately replicate the desired shape and surface features of the foam pattern, leading to high-quality castings with fine surface details.

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Design a circuit for a basic electronics trainer, to simulate in
the Proteus software.

Answers

The Proteus software is a circuit design and simulation tool that is widely used in the electronics industry. The software allows designers to simulate electronic circuits before they are built. This can save a lot of time and money, as designers can test their circuits without having to build them first.

In the field of electronics, a basic electronics trainer is a tool used to teach students about the principles of electronics.

A basic electronics trainer is made up of several electronic components, including resistors, capacitors, diodes, transistors, and integrated circuits.

The trainer is used to teach students how to use these components to create different electronic circuits.

This helps students understand how electronic circuits work and how to design their own circuits. In this regard, to design a circuit for a basic electronics trainer, the following steps should be followed:

Step 1: Identify the components required to build the circuit, such as resistors, capacitors, diodes, transistors, and integrated circuits.

Step 2: Draw the circuit diagram, which shows the connection between the components.

Step 3: Build the circuit by connecting the components according to the circuit diagram.

Step 4: Test the circuit to ensure it works correctly.

Step 5: Once the circuit is working correctly, simulate the circuit in the Proteus software to ensure that it will work correctly in a real-world application.

The Proteus software is a circuit design and simulation tool that is widely used in the electronics industry. The software allows designers to simulate electronic circuits before they are built. This can save a lot of time and money, as designers can test their circuits without having to build them first.To simulate the circuit in Proteus software, the following steps should be followed:

Step 1: Open the Proteus software and create a new project.

Step 2: Add the circuit diagram to the project by importing it.Step 3: Check the connections in the circuit to ensure they are correct.

Step 4: Run the simulation to test the circuit.

Step 5: If the circuit works correctly in the simulation, the design is ready to be built in the real world.

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6) The only difference between the sinut motor and a separately excited motor is that (A) A separately excited DC motor has its field circuit connected to an independent voltage supply (B) The shunt DC motor has its field circuit connected to the armature terminals of the motor (C) A and B (D) The shunt DC motor has its armature circuit connected to the armature tenuinals of the motor 7) One of the following statements is true for DC-Separately Excited Generator (A) The no load characteristic same for increasing and decreasing excitation current (B) The no load characteristic differ for increasing and decreasing excitation current (C) The no load characteristic same for increasing and decreasing load resistance (D) The load characteristic same for increasing and decreasing load resistance 4G Done

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Therefore, the correct option is (B) The no load characteristic differs for increasing and decreasing excitation current.

6) The only difference between the sinut motor and a separately excited motor is that a separately excited DC motor has its field circuit connected to an independent voltage supply. This statement is true.

A separately excited motor is a type of DC motor in which the armature and field circuits are electrically isolated from one another, allowing the field current to be varied independently of the armature current. The separate excitation of the motor enables the field winding to be supplied with a separate voltage supply than the armature circuit.

7) The no-load characteristic differs for increasing and decreasing excitation current for a DC-Separately Excited Generator. This statement is true.

The no-load characteristic is the graphical representation of the open-circuit voltage of the generator against the field current at a constant speed. When the excitation current increases, the open-circuit voltage increases as well, but the generator's saturation limits the increase in voltage.

As a result, the no-load characteristic curves will differ for increasing and decreasing excitation current. Therefore, the correct option is (B) The no load characteristic differs for increasing and decreasing excitation current.

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A 6 liter gasoline engine is being evaluated in a laboratory to determine the exhaust gas ratio at a location where the air density is 1.181 kg/m³. The engine is running at 3600 RPM, with an air/fuel ratio of 15:1, and the volumetric efficiency has been estimated at 93%. Calculate the exhaust gas rate in kg/s.

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The exhaust gas rate is approximately 1.56 kg/s.

To calculate the exhaust gas rate, we need to determine the mass flow rate of air entering the engine and then determine the mass flow rate of fuel based on the given air/fuel ratio.

First, we calculate the mass flow rate of air entering the engine using the engine displacement (6 liters) and the volumetric efficiency (93%). By multiplying these values with the air density at the location (1.181 kg/m³), we obtain the mass flow rate of air.

Next, we calculate the mass flow rate of fuel by dividing the mass flow rate of air by the air/fuel ratio (15:1).

Finally, by adding the mass flow rates of air and fuel, we obtain the total exhaust gas rate in kg/s.

Performing the calculations, the exhaust gas rate is found to be approximately 1.56 kg/s.

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The flow just upstream of a normal shock wave is given by p₁ = 1 atm, T₁ = 288 K, and M₁ = 2.6. Calculate the following properties just downstream of the shock: p2, T2, P2, M2, Po.2, To.2, and the change in entropy across the shock.

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The normal shock wave is a type of shock wave that occurs at supersonic speeds. It's a powerful shock wave that develops when a supersonic gas stream encounters an obstacle and slows down to subsonic speeds. The following are the downstream properties of a normal shock wave:Calculation of downstream properties:

Given,Upstream properties: p₁ = 1 atm, T₁ = 288 K, M₁ = 2.6Downstream properties: p2, T2, P2, M2, Po.2, To.2, and change in entropy across the shock.Solution:First, we have to calculate the downstream Mach number M2 using the upstream Mach number M1 and the relationship between the Mach number before and after the shock:

[tex]$$\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}} = \frac{1}{2}\left[\left(\gamma - 1\right)M_{1}^{2} + 2\right]$$$$M_{2}^{2} = \frac{1}{\gamma M_{1}^{-2} + \frac{\gamma - 1}{2}}$$$$\therefore M_{2}^{2} = \frac{1}{\frac{1}{M_{1}^{2}} + \frac{\gamma - 1}{2}}$$$$\therefore M_{2} = 0.469$$[/tex]

Now, we can calculate the other downstream properties using the following equations:

[tex]$$\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}} = \frac{\left(\frac{2\gamma}{\gamma + 1}M_{1}^{2} - \frac{\gamma - 1}{\gamma + 1}\right)}{\left(\gamma + 1\right)}$$$$\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}} = \frac{\left(\frac{2\gamma}{\gamma + 1}M_{1}^{2} - \frac{\gamma - 1}{\gamma + 1}\right)^{2}}{\gamma\left(\frac{2\gamma}{\gamma + 1}M_{1}^{2} - \frac{\gamma - 1}{\gamma + 1}\right)^{2} - \left(\gamma - 1\right)}$$$$P_{o.2} = P_{1}\left[\frac{2\gamma}{\gamma + 1}M_{1}^{2} - \frac{\gamma - 1}{\gamma + 1}\right]^{(\gamma)/( \gamma - 1)}$$$$T_{o.2} = T_[/tex]

where R is the gas constant and [tex]$C_{p}$[/tex] is the specific heat at constant pressure.We know that,

γ = 1.4, R = 287 J/kg-K, and Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg-K

Substituting the values, we get,Downstream Mach number,M2 = 0.469Downstream Pressure,P2 = 3.13 atmDownstream Temperature,T2 = 654 KDownstream Density,ρ2 = 0.354 kg/m³Stagnation Pressure,Po.2 = 4.12 atmStagnation Temperature,To.2 = 582 KChange in entropy across the shock,Δs = 1.7 J/kg-KHence, the required downstream properties of the normal shock wave are P2 = 3.13 atm, T2 = 654 K, P2 = 0.354 kg/m³, Po.2 = 4.12 atm, To.2 = 582 K, and Δs = 1.7 J/kg-K.

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