To be able to compete in a particular class, a bodybuilder can weigh in at no more than
175 pounds and no less than 145 pounds. If the clothes the wrestlers wear add 1
pound, what is the actual weight range, in pounds, for these bodybuilders (in interval
notation)?

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

For 2 figures to be similar, the ratio of their corresponding must be the same, as well as their proportion. The simplification of their ratio gives us the scale factor of their corresponding sides. Also, their corresponding angles are congruent.

Looking at polygon LMNO and WXYZ, let's set the ratio of their corresponding side against each other to see if they would be equal to each other.

Thus, we have:

LM/XY = ON/WZ = MN/WZ = LO/ZY

35/10 = 35/10 = 63/18 = 63/18

It would give us a scale factor of 3.5

They are similar.

The answer is:

YES

LMNO ~ WXYZ

Scale factor = 3.5

Answer:

A=bh=21·13=273

Step-by-step explanation:

using this formula A=bh

place base in b, and the height or hypotenuse in A

Answer: A~267.96

Step-by-step explanation: Draw a height down from the top of the arrow to the base. USE the formula for the Area of a parallelogram A=bh (base x heght) find height using trig 13sin79 . Then multiply 21 x 12.76

Answer:

none

Step-by-step explanation:

so we have one of the legs

we have hypotenuse

because:

MP=PN for legs

and they have hypotenuse in common:

OP=OP

Answer: 5.2

Step-by-step explanation:

This is known as the heart beat method. Search it up for a better explinations.

Basically you putting 3/x = x/9 and simplifying to get sqrt27.

Search this up and watch the video for a better explination

heartbeat method geometry

Answer: I think it’s $1.80

Step-by-step explanation:

Sorry if I’m wrong

Answer:

Firstly, divide the tax rate by 100: 6/100 = 0.06 (tax rate as a decimal). Note: to easily divide by 100, just move the decimal point two spaces to the left.

Now, find the tax value by multiplying tax rate by the before tax price:

tax = 39.99 × 0.06

tax = 2.4 (tax value rouded to 2 decimals)

Add tax to the before tax price to get the final price:

The final price including tax = 39.99 + 2.4 = 42.39

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A = 300 cm^2

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of the parallelogram is

A = bh

A = 20 *15

A = 300 cm^2

Answer:

129

Step-by-step explanation:

DCF = DCE + ECF

      = 75+ 54

      = 129

Answer:

m∠DCF = 129°

Step-by-step explanation:

∠DCF is ∠DCE + ∠ECF

You are adding the 2 smaller angles together to get the larger angle.

Answer:

P(X≤57) = 84%

P(X≥57) = 16%

P(47≤X≤57) = 68%

P(X≤47) = 16%

P(X≥47) = 84%

Step-by-step explanation:

We know P(X≤52) = 50%, but this includes the mean as a maximum.

We know P(52≤X≤57) = 34%, but this includes the mean as a minimum.

But if we combine them, we get P(X≤57) = 84%.

We could also say P(X≥57) = 16%.

Since normal distributions are symmetrical, we can also show that P(47≤X≤52) = 34%.  So P(47≤X≤57) = 68%, P(X≤47) = 16%, and P(X≥47) = 84%.

Answer:

a) DE ≅ GF

Step-by-step explanation:

In the picture attached, the diagram is shown.

An isosceles trapezoid is a trapezoid in which the base angles are equal and therefore the left and right side lengths are also equal. In this case, the left and right side lengths are DE and GF, respectively; then they are congruent.

Answer:

32% of the students did not have a pet.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the total students (100%):

Answer:

$325

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be the price of the washer.

Let y be the price of the dryer.

x + y = 708

x = y + 58

Put x as y+58 in the first equation and solve for y.

y + 58 + y = 708

2y + 58 = 708

2y = 650

y = 650/2

y = 325

Put y as 325 in the second equation and solve for x.

x = 325 + 58

x = 383

The cost of the washer is $383.

The cost of the dryer is $325.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Cost of dryer = $ d

Cost of washer = d + 58

Total cost = $ 708

d + (d + 58) = 708

2d + 58 = 708

         2d = 708 - 58

         2d = 650

           d = 650/2

      d = 325

Cost of washer = 325 + 58 = $ 383

Cost of dryer = $ 325

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

Each side from triangle AHM to triangle DPL is divided by 2

32/2 = 16

40/2 = 20

Therefore, 48 / 2 = 24

Answer:

x = 24 (Answer B)

Step-by-step explanation:

Notice that the side lengths of the first (larger) triangle are twice (2x) the corresponding sides of the second (smaller) triangle.

Thus the length of x is half of the corresponding side in the larger triangle, that is:  x = half of 48, or x = 24 (Answer B)

Answer:

not worth it

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]P(4,3) = 4![/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

P(4,3)

Required

Solve

Using permutation formula;

[tex]P(n,r) = \frac{n!}{(n-r)!}[/tex]

This implies that

[tex]P(4,3) = \frac{4!}{(4-3)!}[/tex]

[tex]P(4,3) = \frac{4!}{(1)!}[/tex]

[tex]P(4,3) = \frac{4!}{1!}[/tex]

[tex]P(4,3) = \frac{4!}{1}[/tex]

[tex]P(4,3) = 4![/tex]

Answer:

The answer is 4!

Step-by-step explanation:

I just got this question right

Answer:

50 and 30.94

Step-by-step explanation:

The coat cost 46.5 pounds after a 7 percent reduction

so we can write:

using the proprtionality relation:

x= (100*46.5)/93 = 50

so the initial price of the coat is 50 pounds

The jumper costs 32.8 pounds after an increase of 6 percent

so:

using proportionality:

x= (100*32.8)/106 = 30.94

the initial price is 30.94 pounds

Answer:

a. £50

b. £30.94

Step-by-step explanation:

100-7=93

x×93/100=46.50

x×93=46.50×100=4650

x=4650/93=50 £

b.

100+6=106

y×106/100=32.80

y×100=32.80×100=3280

y=3280/106≈30.94£

Answer:

EF = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

FD is an angle bisector and divides the opposite side of the angle into segments that are proportional to the other 2 sides, that is

[tex]\frac{DE}{DG}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{EF}{FG}[/tex] , substitute values

[tex]\frac{24}{54}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{x}{x+10}[/tex] ( cross- multiply )

54x = 24(x + 10) ← distribute

54x = 24x + 240 ( subtract 24x from both sides )

30x = 240 ( divide both sides by 30 )

x = 8

Thus EF = x = 8

Answer:

0.9332

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the normal distribution, it is found that the area under the standard normal curve to the left of z = 1.5 is of 0.9332.

-----------------------------------------

In a normal distribution with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

Looking at the standard normal table:

Thus, the area under the standard normal curve to the left of z = 1.5 is of 0.9332.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/6316394

Answer:

5/6 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

If they can pave 15 miles in 18 hours, they will pave and 18 of the miles in an 18 of the time, as 1/18 is an eighteenth. This means they will pave 15/18 miles, which simplifies to 5/6 miles.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given sequence is -5, -1, -5, -25,..

In any arithmetic series  nth term is given by  a + (n-1)d

where a is the first term

and d is the common difference.

 d = nth term - (n-1)th term

For the given  series

a = -5

lets take nth term as 2nd term and 1st term as (n-1)th term

d = -1-(-5)= -1+5 = 84

n th term = a + (n-1)d

using the formula for nth term

4th term = 5 + (4-1)8 = 29

Answer:

x = - [tex]\frac{3}{11}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]\frac{x}{3}[/tex] - [tex]\frac{3-2x}{6}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{5}{2}[/tex] x

Multiply through by 6 to clear the fractions

2x - (3 - 2x) = 15x ← distribute and simplify left side

2x - 3 + 2x = 15x

4x - 3 = 15x ( subtract 4x from both sides )

- 3 = 11x ( divide both sides by 11 )

- [tex]\frac{3}{11}[/tex] = x

Answer: x=-3/11

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

y = x² - 6x + 2

The equation of a parabola in vertex form is

y = a(x - h)² + k

where (h, k) are the coordinates of the vertex and a is a multiplier

To complete the square

add/subtract ( half the coefficient of the x- term )² to x² - 6x

y = x² + 2(- 3)x + 9 - 9 + 2

  = (x - 3)² - 7 ← in vertex form

with vertex = (3, - 7 ) and a = 1

Since a > 0 then vertex is a minimum

Answer:

The vertex is a minimum.

Answer:

  see below

Step-by-step explanation:

When the letters are replaced and mixed between draws, the draws are independent. In that case, the probability of a sequence is the product of the probabilities of the individual letters in the sequence.

The individual probabilities are ...

  D  -  1/4

  E  -  2/4

  R  -  1/4

__

So, the probability for a sequence like DD is ...

  p(D)·p(D) = (1/4)(1/4) = 1/16

Of course, to convert to a percentage, multiply by 100%:

  1/16 × 100% = 6.25%

The attachment shows the rest of them.

Answer:

See Explanation Below

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]-3(-3 + 2) - 6[/tex]

Required

Drag the steps

Note that not all steps in the given diagram will be used;

Step 1: Perform Multiplication; 9 + -6 - 6

Step 2: Simplify: -3

Further Explanation:

Step 1 is gotten by opening the bracket;

[tex]-3(-3 + 2) - 6[/tex]

[tex]9 +-6 - 6[/tex]

Step 2 is gotten by solving step 1 further

[tex]9 +-6 - 6[/tex]

[tex]9 - 6 - 6[/tex]

[tex]9 - 12[/tex]

[tex]-3[/tex]

3x-9≤12

3x≤21

x≤7

-5x+10≤20

-5x≤10

x≥-2

Answer:

X = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

First, You need to rewrite the expression to look like this

9 - 3x = 12

An inequality basically means equals and the next step is to subtract 9 from both sides so it would look like this

3x = 12

Then divide both sides by 3 to get

x = 4

Answer:

D. 9

Step-by-step explanation:

We are told in the question that: The number of tennis balls represented by P(n), in n layers of the square pyramid is given as

P(n) = P(n - 1) + n²

Let's take the first layer

n = 1

P(1) = P(1 - 1) + 1²

P(1) = 1 tennis ball.

It is important to note that the first layers we have one tennis ball.

Let's take the second layer

n = 2

P(2) = P(2 - 1) + 2²

P(2) = P(1) + 2²

Note that: P(1) above = 1

P(2) = 1 + 2²

P(2) = 5 tennis balls

It is important to note that the second layer we have five tennis balls

Let's take the third layer

n = 3

P(3) = P(3 - 1) + 3²

P(3) = P(3 - 1) + 3²

P(3) = P(2) + 3²

Note that: P(2) above = 5

P(3) = 5 + 3²

P(3) = 14 tennis balls

It is important to note that the second layer we have fourteen tennis balls

Let's take the fourth layer

n = 4

P(4) = P(4 - 1) + 4²

P(3) = P(4 - 1) + 4²

P(3) = P(3) + 4²

Note that: P(3) above = 14

P(3) = 14 + 4²

P(3) = 30 tennis balls

It is important to note that the fourth layer we have thirty tennis balls

Hence, the number of tennis balls from the first four layers will be: 1, 5, 14, 30,

So, the number of tennis balls that Coach Kunal could not have is 9.

Answer:

C. 46.5

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for circumfrence is:

C= 2*pi*r

You know that the radius is 7.4 so all you need to do is plug it into the formula and you should get approximately 46.49 or 46.5.

Answer:

4*5*5*2=200 numbers

Step-by-step explanation:

this is because 2,4,6,8 can be the first digit.

2,4,6,8,0 can be the second same for the third.

2 digits can be divisible by 5 which are 5, 0. If it has a 0 at the end it is divisible by 10 which means it is divisible by 5.

Answer:

100 numbers

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are four digits, the answer will be the product of four numbers. The first digit has to be either 2,4,6, or 8 because it is a four digit number with all even digits. Same for the next two numbers, but zero is also a possibility. The question asks for a number divisible by 5, so the last digit must be a 0 in order to qualify as an even number. So the answer would be 4*5*5*1 (number of possible digits) which is 100.

Answer:

2 x 5

Step-by-step explanation:

When we add matrices, the dimensions of the matrices being added must be the same

A and B are 2 x 5 matrices so they are both 2 x 5 matrices

The output or the sum is also a 2 x 5 matrix

Answer:

The correct option is A:

A) Time of flight = 7 hours 5 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

If

For eastern time zone, t = 12:00 pm

Then, pacific time zone , t =  9:00 am

Which means the pacific time lags 3 hours to eastern time

Time of departure = 9:15 am (eastern time)

TIme of arrival = 1:20 pm (pacific time)

Either convert both of them into eastarn time zone or pacific time zone to find the time of the flight. The answer for both will be the same.

Converting both in pacific time zone.

Time of arrival = 1:20 pm (pacific time)

Time of departure = (9:15 am (eastern time) - 3 hours) (pacific time)

Time of departure =  6:15am (pacific time)

Time of flight = Time of arrival - Time of departure

Time of flight = 1:20pm - 6:15am

Time of flight = 7 hours 5 minutes

Answer:

aₙ= 47 -3n

Step-by-step explanation:

44, 41, 38, 35, 32

This is AP with 1st term of 44 and common difference of -3

nth term of this AP: