Three firms have identical revenue and profit functions. Firm 1 is a private sector firm operated by an​ owner-manager who wishes to maximize profit. Firm 2 is managed by an​ revenue-maximizing manager whose pay is proportional to the​ firm's revenue. Firm 3 is a​ government-owned firm that has been instructed to maximize the amount of​ employment, L, subject to the constraint that revenue must not be negative.
Each of the three firms has a revenue function:
R(q)= 180q-2q^2
And a cost function of
C(q) = 20+40q
Determine how much output each firm chooses
Firm 1 will produce such that : Q= ____ Units ?( Enter response as a whole number for all 3)
Firm 2 will produce such that: Q = _____ Units ?
Firm 3 will produce such that: Q = ____ Units ?

Answers

Answer 1

Firm 1 will produce 45 units, Firm 2 will produce 45 units and Firm 3 will produce 45 units.

Firm 1: The output level that will maximize the profit is the one that produces the highest difference between revenue and cost. This can be calculated by taking the derivative of the revenue and cost functions and equating them to zero. Doing this, we get:

Revenue: R'(q) = 180 - 4q = 0 => q = 45

Cost: C'(q) = 40 = 0 => q = 0

Therefore, Firm 1 will produce 45 units.



Firm 2: The output level that will maximize the revenue is the one that produces the highest value of revenue. This can be calculated by taking the derivative of the revenue function and equating it to zero. Doing this, we get:

R'(q) = 180 - 4q = 0 => q = 45

Therefore, Firm 2 will produce 45 units.



Firm 3: The output level that will maximize the employment, L, subject to the constraint that revenue must not be negative is the one that produces the highest value of employment. This can be calculated by taking the derivative of the revenue and cost functions and equating them to zero. Doing this, we get:

Revenue: R'(q) = 180 - 4q = 0 => q = 45

Cost: C'(q) = 40 = 0 => q = 0

Therefore, Firm 3 will produce 45 units.

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Related Questions

Suppose the market for Olympic Frisbees per year is given by:
Q = 2000 - 20*p, that the marginal costs are given by MC = 0.1*Q, and that there are fixed costs of $10,000. Note that Q = 2000 - 20*p solved for p is p = 100 - Q/20.
what is Olympic Frisbee's optimal price?
what is the dollar value of the dead weight loss as compared with the perfectly competitive solution?

Answers

The optimal price for Olympic Frisbees is $100, as this is where marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

The dollar value of the deadweight loss as compared with the perfectly competitive solution is equal to the area of the triangle formed by the fixed costs, the marginal cost, and the new demand curve. This is calculated by taking the area of the triangle (base*height/2), which is (20*$10,000)/2, or $100,000.

The perfectly competitive solution of the market for Olympic Frisbees is where marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost.

This means that the price is set at $100, as this is where MC = 2000 - 20*p, or 0.1*Q = 0.1*2000 - 2 = 100 - Q/20. This price maximizes the producer's profits and provides a higher quantity of output than in the monopoly case.

The dollar value of the deadweight loss as compared with the perfectly competitive solution is equal to the area of the triangle formed by the fixed costs, the marginal cost, and the new demand curve. This is calculated by taking the area of the triangle (base*height/2), which is (20*$10,000)/2, or $100,000.

This triangle represents the lost producer surplus that is not captured due to the monopoly situation, as the price is higher and the quantity is lower than in a perfectly competitive market.

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can you please help me for q13 thnaks Suppose the inverse demand curves for person A and person B for a PUBLIC GOOD are given by:
PA = 50 - 0.1qA
PB = 60 - 0.24qB
and that MC = €42.
Question 13 (1 point)
If A were in the market alone, what quantity of the public good would they consume?
Question 13 options:
80
75
110
60

Answers

If person A were in the market alone, they would consume 80 units of the public good. Option A, 80, is the correct answer.

Given that PA = 50 - 0.1qA and PB = 60 - 0.24qB,

we can assume that the inverse demand curve for a public good is Q = A + B where: A is the intercept of person A with the vertical axis B is the intercept of person B with the vertical axis qA is the quantity demanded by person AqB is the quantity demanded by person B.

To find the quantity demanded by person A, we can set PA equal to the marginal cost and solve for qA.

That is: PA = MC50 - 0.1qA = 42

Solve for qA:50 - 42 = 0.1

qA8/0.1 = qA80 = qA

Therefore, if person A were in the market alone, they would consume 80 units of the public good. Option A, 80, is the correct answer.

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Task
1. Explain how and why the directors of JWAC might carry our market research before opening a new activity centre.
Background
Jungle World Activity Centre (JWAC) is a private limited company with eight soft play indoor activity centres across the West Midlands for children from 2 – 11 years of age. Each activity centre has a jungle theme with soft play activities including rope swings, waterfall slides, interactive jungle themed games as well as a café where light snacks and drinks can be purchased.
The business was founded in 2015 by married couple John and Sarah Richards. After a short period as a partnership the business became a private limited company in 2017 when they needed additional finance to open their second activity centre. There are now five directors of the company all of whom have an equal shareholding. In 2017 the directors set a growth objective to open one new activity centre per year for the next ten years.
JWAC’s profits and expansion plans were both seriously affected by the outbreak of COVID19 and the numerous restrictions placed on indoor activities, such as those provided by JWAC.
However, since the ending of all COVID19 restrictions in the UK, JWAC has seen a return to visitor numbers similar to those prior to the COVID19 pandemic and the directors are now keen to resume their ambitious expansion plans by opening a new activity centre in the City of Sheffield.
The directors have a tried and tested plan when considering the opening of any new activity centre. This plan includes carrying out market research, identifying suitable premises to rent, and securing the required finance for equipping the activity centre and financing the necessary promotional campaign prior to its opening.
The Finance Director has produced a report for the Board of Directors on the likely costs and revenue of a new activity centre which is based on financial and other information from the last activity centre opened by JWAC in 2018. An extract of the report is shown in Table 1.
JWAC considers a return on capital employed of 15% to be a good measure of the success of each of its activity centres.
Table 1 Forecast Costs and Revenues of the Proposed New Jungle World Activity Centre in the City of Sheffield

Answers

The directors of JWAC should carry out market research before opening a new activity centre in order to understand their target market, the demand for the service, and the potential return on investment.

Market research helps directors to identify suitable premises to rent, determine the costs and revenue of the activity centre, and plan the necessary promotional campaigns.

Through market research, JWAC directors can also assess their chances of achieving the desired return on capital employed of 15% for the new activity centre.

Market research is therefore a vital part of the planning process for opening a new activity centre.

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Based on these three works of art, which of the following statements is true?
Please if you really know it help me.
Thanks

Answers

Answer: I would say A

Explanation:

In each picture you can see that they share similarities. Even though they are different cultures the gods represent similar things. Although they are different being a wind god is not solely unique to each individual culture. They share factors such as the wind being drawn in and it being represented as a human or physical form.

A Page on how Okwonko’s Life was influenced by his wider social Content according to Chinua Achebe’s Things Fall Apart

Answers

Okonkwo, the main character in Chinua Achebe's novel Things Fall Apart, is heavily influenced by the wider social context in which he lives. The novel is set in pre-colonial Nigeria, and Okonkwo is a member of the Igbo tribe, one of the many tribes that make up the diverse Nigerian society.

Okonkwo's life is shaped by the social and cultural practices of his tribe, as well as the historical context in which they exist. His actions and decisions are driven by a desire to conform to the norms of his society and to maintain his status as a respected member of his community.

One of the most significant influences on Okonkwo's life is the emphasis on masculinity and warrior culture in Igbo society. The novel portrays Igbo society as a patriarchal one, where strength, courage, and bravery are highly valued. Okonkwo strives to embody these values and is often seen as a model of manliness in his community. His desire to prove his masculinity is the driving force behind many of his actions, including his participation in wars and his mistreatment of his wives and children.

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1.7 Suggest three ways in which grade 12 learners could deal with the consequences of the negatve feelings that may come as a result of the transition from school to post school destination . In your answer , also indicate how each suggestion could assist them to be well adapted.(life orientation)

Answers

Concentrate on personal growth and development: Students in grade 12 may choose to place their attention on this rather than concentrating on their negative emotions.

Recommend two new techniques for grade 12 students to deal with any negative feelings that may surface as they transition from school to post-school destinations.

Two suggestions for grade 12 students on how to deal with any negative feelings that may surface as a result of the transition from school to post-school destinations are provided below:

Consult a mentor or counselor for support. Students in grade 12 can gain a lot by seeking support from someone who has experienced a similar circumstance or who can provide guidance and advice. A mentor or counselor can provide guidance on how to handle the change and help students with their emotional processing. They can also offer advice on how to survive outside of the classroom and assist students as they adjust.

Focus on personal growth and development: Pupils in grade 12 may opt to place their attention on this rather than concentrating on their negative feelings. They have the capacity to establish and pursue their own objectives. This may provide pupils a sense of direction and increase their sense of control over their lives. Students can acquire resilience and flexibility through a personal development emphasis, both of which are helpful in a post-school environment.

Students in grade 12 can benefit from each of these recommendations to help them overcome their emotions and prepare for life after school. The development of important skills and a feeling of purpose can be aided by focusing on one's own personal growth, but help from a mentor or counselor can also offer emotional support and direction.

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Ethics and morality are interchangable termGroup of answer choicesa. that describe what a society believes to be right and wrong.b. that do not apply to business situations.c. that are the rules of conduct.d. concerned only with honesty, autonomy , and confidentiality.

Answers

Ethics and morality are interchangeable terms that describe what a society believes to be right and wrong. Thus, the correct option is (a)

Explanation:

Ethics and morality are the terms that describe what a society believes to be right and wrong. The terms are often used interchangeably, but they do not imply precisely the same thing. Ethics relates to the professional behavior and conduct of people in their professional lives.

The study of ethics examines the concepts of right and wrong behavior in various contexts, including business, medical care, law, and politics, among others.

Morality, on the other hand, is often related to personal beliefs and decisions about what is right and wrong. It is frequently rooted in religion or philosophy and is often connected to people's personal convictions about how to live their lives in accordance with moral principles.

Morality is a broader concept that encompasses a wide range of personal beliefs and behaviors that go beyond professional conduct.

In conclusion, we can say that the Ethics and morality are the terms that describe what a society believes to be right and wrong.

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When considering puja of Hindu deities, who is worshipped by pouring milk over the lingam?
Group of answer choices

Shiva

Vishnu

Brahma

Indra

Answers

Option 1 is correct.  Lord Shiva Puja is considered by pouring milk over the lingam.

Shiva, otherwise called Mahadeva. 'The Incomparable God', or Hara, is one of the primary divinities of Hinduism. He is the Preeminent Being in Shaivism, one of the significant practices inside Hinduism.

Shiva is known as "The Destroyer" inside the Trimurti, the Hindu trinity which additionally incorporates Brahma and Vishnu. In the Shaivite custom, Shiva is the Preeminent Master who makes, secures and changes the universe. In the goddess-arranged Shakta custom, the Preeminent Goddess (Devi) is viewed as the energy and imaginative power (Shakti) and the equivalent reciprocal accomplice of Shiva. Shiva is one of the five identical gods in Panchayatana puja of the Smarta custom of Hinduism.

Shiva has numerous angles, big-hearted as well as fearsome. In big-hearted perspectives, he is portrayed as an all-knowing Yogi who carries on with a parsimonious life on Mount Kailash as well as a householder with his significant other Parvati and his three youngsters, Ganesha, Kartikeya and Ashokasundari. In his wild perspectives, he is much of the time portrayed killing devils. Shiva is otherwise called Adiyogi (the primary Yogi), viewed as the benefactor divine force of yoga, contemplation and human expression.

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Identity formation is complete by the end of adolescence.
true
false

Answers

The statement that Identity formation is complete by the end of adolescence is B. False.

When does Identity formation happen ?

Identity formation is a lifelong process that continues beyond adolescence. While adolescence is a critical period for identity development, individuals continue to develop and refine their sense of identity throughout adulthood as they face new challenges, experiences, and transitions.

Erick Erikson, a prominent developmental psychologist, proposed that identity formation is a process that continues through adulthood, with each stage of life presenting new opportunities for self-exploration and self-definition.

Therefore, identity formation is not complete by the end of adolescence, and individuals continue to develop their identity throughout their lives.

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Jane is a busy woman. She left her former job to start her own consulting company. She assesses that demand for her services would increase if she lowered her hourly price P:
demand for her services is about 200 - P per week.
She has to pay $10 in liability insurance for every hour she works for
herself. She also has a part-time job at her former employer's for $80
an hour, for as much time as she can spare.
She is only physically able to work for 70 hours a week (so she could
never get an MBA). It will probably help to draw a decision tree to think
about her marginal decision.
How many hours does Jane decide to spend working for herself each
week?
If Jane could only physically work 50 hours a week, how many hours
per week would she decide to spend working for herself?

Answers

The number of hours Jane decide to spend working for herself each week is 65 hours. If Jane could only physically work 50 hours a week, the number of hours per week she decide to spend working for herself is 50 hours.

To find out how many hours Jane decides to spend working for herself each week, we can use the following optimization equation:

Profit = Revenue - Cost

Since she has to pay $10 in liability insurance for every hour she works for herself and the demand for her services is about 200 - P per week, the revenue equation is:

P = hourly price charged for her services

Revenue = P * (200 - P)

Therefore, her cost equation is:

C = 10P + 80(70 - P)

The total number of hours she can work is 70, so we can assume 0 ≤ P ≤ 70.Then, her profit equation is:

P = hourly price charged for her services

Profit = (P * (200 - P)) - (10P + 80(70 - P))

Now we need to find the hourly price that maximizes the profit. We can solve for the derivative of the profit function and set it equal to 0:

dP/dP * (200 - 2P) - 10 + 80 = 0-2P + 190 = 0P = 95

Therefore, she should charge $95 per hour to maximize her profit.

We can also find how many hours she should work: P = 95

Profit = (95 * (200 - 95)) - (10 * 95 + 80(70 - 95))

Profit = $5,075

She should work for herself for 65 hours (200 - 95).

If Jane could only physically work 50 hours a week, the calculation will change.

We need to change the constraint from P ≤ 70 to P ≤ 50.

The profit equation is now:

P = hourly price charged for her services

Profit = (P * (200 - P)) - (10P + 80(50 - P))

Solving this equation for dP/dP = 0, we get:

P = 110/3 = 36.67

Therefore, she should charge $36.67 per hour to maximize her profit.

We can also find how many hours she should work: P = 36.67

Profit = (36.67 * (200 - 36.67)) - (10 * 36.67 + 80(50 - 36.67))

Profit = $2,276.11

She should work for herself for 50 hours (200 - 36.67).

Note: The question is incomplete. The complete question probably is: Jane is a busy woman. She left her former job to start her own consulting company. She assesses that demand for her services would increase if she lowered her hourly price P: demand for her services is about 200 - P per week. She has to pay $10 in liability insurance for every hour she works for herself. She also has a part-time job at her former employer's for $80 an hour, for as much time as she can spare. She is only physically able to work for 70 hours a week (so she could never get an MBA). How many hours does Jane decide to spend working for herself each week? If Jane could only physically work 50 hours a week, how many hours per week would she decide to spend working for herself?

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The first event to test the effectiveness of patrol that met minimum standards of scientific research was called the'

Answers

The Kansas City Preventive Patrol Experiment was regarded as the first event for testing the effect of patrol that met the minimum standards of scientific research.

The scientific researches have always been at the cusp of the main intention or the primary objective of the patrol experiments. Thus, there have been certain events that have been able to make a difference with the revelations of the studies thereunder. The Kansas City Preventive Patrol Experiment was the first-ever event to have done so.

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Complete question

What was the first event to test the effectiveness of patrol that met minimum standards of scientific research called?

If real GDP is growing at 7 percent per year, A. real GDP will double in 10 years. B. potential GDP will double in 5 years. C. nominal GDP will double in 10 years. D. real GDP will double in 5 years.

Answers

The correct option for this question is A. real GDP will double in 10 years.

Why it is?

The rule of 70 states that the number of years it takes for a variable to double is approximately equal to 70 divided by its annual growth rate. Applying this rule to real GDP growing at 7 percent per year, we get:

Number of years to double = 70 / 7 = 10

Therefore, it will take approximately 10 years for real GDP to double. Option A is the correct answer.

Note that potential GDP refers to the maximum amount of goods and services that can be produced by an economy's resources, so it is not directly affected by the growth rate of real GDP. Nominal GDP refers to the total value of goods and services produced by an economy at current market prices, so it is affected by both changes in real GDP and changes in prices.

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match each emotion to its most likely cause, based on what researchers have found from the narratives people produce to explain their emotions. drag each item on the left to its matching item on the right. anger shame sadness guilt jim scolded his wife for eating too many snacks because it was making her look fat, which caused her to cry. press space to open buffy gets home and is told by a neighbor that her beloved cat was struck by a car and died earlier that day. press space to open lou has worked hard to earn a promotion at work, but the son of his boss was just given the position lou was hoping to get. press space to open keisha spent too much time hanging out with her friends, despite promising herself she would apply herself in her schoolwork, and has now failed all of her classes.

Answers

Based on the scenarios presented, the most likely emotions and their causes are as follows:

Anger: Lou is most likely feeling anger because he worked hard to earn a promotion at work, but the son of his boss was given the position instead. This situation would likely cause feelings of frustration and resentment.

Shame: Jim's wife is most likely feeling shame because Jim scolded her for eating too many snacks and causing her to look fat. This situation would likely cause feelings of embarrassment and self-consciousness.

Sadness: Buffy is most likely feeling sadness because she was told by a neighbor that her beloved cat was struck by a car and died earlier that day. This situation would likely cause feelings of grief and loss.

Guilt: Keisha is most likely feeling guilt because she spent too much time hanging out with her friends, despite promising herself she would apply herself in her schoolwork, and has now failed all of her classes. This situation would likely cause feelings of remorse and regret.

Overall, each emotion is most likely caused by the specific situations and events presented in the scenarios.

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Describe how at a profit maximizing level of output in the imperfectly competitive markets (Monopoly, Monopolistic Competition and Oligopoly) allows there to be waste of productive resources (hint: are Firm’s within the industries in any of these markets operating at the level of output where their average total cost is minimized?).

Answers

In imperfectly competitive markets such as Monopoly, Monopolistic Competition, and Oligopoly, productive resources are wasted at a profit-maximizing level of output.

The firms operating in these markets are not operating at the output level where their average total cost is minimized. To achieve the maximum profit level, firms operating in an imperfectly competitive market produce output at a price higher than their marginal cost. This leads to inefficiencies and wastage of productive resources. In such markets, firms have some market power, which allows them to charge a price higher than their marginal cost. The degree of market power varies in each of the three markets mentioned above. In the case of a monopoly, the firm is the sole producer of a product or service with no close substitutes, whereas in an oligopoly, a few firms dominate the market, and in monopolistic competition, many firms produce a product with close substitutes. The output level that maximizes profit is the one where the difference between the marginal cost and marginal revenue is the highest. This leads to the production of output where the average total cost is higher than the marginal cost. This means that the firms are not operating at the output level where their average total cost is minimized, leading to a waste of productive resources. The above explanation describes how a profit-maximizing level of output in imperfectly competitive markets allows there to be a waste of productive resources.

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Discuss how the school prepares learners to face the challenges of change they may experience after school

Answers

Abilities your school prepares learners requires to thrive in today's changing workplace , Problem-solving and critical thinking, Collaboration across networks and influence leadership, Adaptability and agility, Entrepreneurship and initiative.

It's difficult to predict the future, and students may struggle to envision themselves in their ideal careers. Education, on the other hand, is a critical factor in determining your success.

When applying for jobs or graduate school positions, universities use grades to determine how likely someone is to succeed; however, this does not have to be that person's sole focus. Students should consider their future but not be concerned about it. And if you're wondering how they'll be motivated, look no further than their parents and schools.

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for a research project in an introductory sociology course, a student decides to compare how women's magazines cover health and beauty topics versus career and professional topics. this student is conducting

Answers

For a research project in an introductory sociology course, a student decides to compare how women's magazines cover health and beauty topics versus career and professional topics. This student is conducting a content analysis.

Content analysis is a research method used to analyze and quantify the content of communication, such as texts, images, or media. In this case, the student is using content analysis to examine the coverage of different topics in women's magazines. By comparing the amount and type of coverage given to health and beauty topics versus career and professional topics, the student can draw conclusions about the messages and values conveyed by these magazines.

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QUESTION ONE
a) Describe Utilitarianism in the context of decision making for public interest (5 marks)
b) Explain the legal framework guiding expenditure for the National Government in Kenya (10 marks)

Answers

The Act also establishes the National Treasury, which is responsible for formulating fiscal policy, managing public debt, managing the budget and preparing the annual budget statement.


A) Utilitarianism is a philosophical concept which states that the best action is the one that maximizes utility or happiness for the greatest number of people. In the context of decision making for public interest, utilitarianism holds that decision makers should prioritize the greatest good for the greatest number when making decisions. This means that decision makers should consider the outcome of the decision on the largest number of people when deciding how to proceed.

B) The legal framework governing the expenditure of the National Government in Kenya is laid out in the Public Finance Management Act 2012. This Act establishes the rules and regulations that govern the expenditure of public funds in Kenya. It also sets out the requirements for budget preparation and execution, and outlines the procedures for control and management of government funds.

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_______________ is a practice that involves federal spending on projects designed to benefit a particular district or set of constituents.

Answers

Answer: pork-barrel politics

FOUR soçial and cultural norms which affect relationships how they are formed​

Answers

The answer is Four social and cultural norms which affect relationships are miscommunication, religion , How you express yourself and food.

They are formed through-

1. Miscommunication- especially if he/she are second language speakers, this can cause a lot of problems.

2. Religion-  Just imagine a Christian dating a Muslim. If they are both religious, a lot of fights could arise from this.

3. How you express yourself-  In your culture, something might be more acceptable.

4. Food- The food you eat vs the food that is eaten in a different culture, that you might not approve of at all.

What are the 4 different kinds of relationships?

There are many very kinds of connections. Family connections, friendships, acquaintanceships, and romantic relationships are the four relationship kinds that are there of this section.

What does the psychological concept of relationships mean?

an ongoing, frequently committed relationship between two or more people, such as a family, friendship, marriage, partnership, or other interpersonal connection where the members have some degree of control over each other's ideas, feelings, and behaviors.

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Price-consumption curve:
Question 19 options:
a. describes the change in the quantity demanded from various indifference curves as the price of the good changes and keeping the consumer income constant.
b. is the demand curve.
c. is the income-consumption curve.
d. is the Engel curve.

Answers

Price-consumption curve: "describes the change in the quantity demanded from various indifference curves as the price of the good changes and keeping the consumer income constant". Hence, option (a) is correct.

What is the Price-Consumption Curve?

The price-consumption curve is used to graphically demonstrate the relationship between the price of a product and the amount demanded of that product. It assumes that the consumer's income remains stable. The graph represents the amount of a commodity a customer is willing to buy at various prices.

The price-consumption curve displays the quantity of goods that a consumer demands in response to a change in price while maintaining his or her income constant. It is a graphical representation of consumer equilibrium under certain economic conditions. Therefore, option (a) is correct.

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1. Consider the Specific Factors model we discuss in class, but focus on the Foreign country. In particular, the Foreign country has the comparative advantage in the agricultural good (the A good). Going from no trade to free trade, PMT/PAT < PM*/PA* for the Foreign country. (8 points total, 2 points each).
(1). Draw the Foreign country’s PPF and show the closed-economy equilibrium. Please label both axes.
(2) In your picture in (1) above, show the Foreign country’s CPF, and its production choice and consumption choice under free trade.
(3) How does the opportunity cost of the M good change as the Foreign country goes from no trade to free trade? What is the intuition?
(4). Does the Foreign country gain from trade? What is the intuition?

Answers

1. The foreign country's PPF (production possibility frontier) can be drawn by plotting the different combinations of A and M goods that the country can produce with its limited resources. The closed-economy equilibrium will be where the PPF and the country's budget line intersect.

The budget line is the line representing the maximum amount of A and M goods that the country can buy with its total income. Labeling both axes, the x-axis represents the quantity of A goods, and the y-axis represents the quantity of M goods.

2. The CPF (consumption possibility frontier) for the Foreign country will be a straight line, showing all combinations of A and M goods that the country can consume.

The production choice and consumption choice under free trade will be the point where the CPF and the budget line intersect, which is outside of the PPF. This will be the point where the opportunity cost of the A good is lowest.

3. As the Foreign country goes from no trade to free trade, the opportunity cost of the M good decreases. This is because the country is able to import the M good at a lower price than it can produce it. The intuition is that the Foreign country is able to take advantage of lower prices from international trade.


4. Yes, the Foreign country does gain from trade. The country is able to consume more than it would be able to under a closed-economy, which is the intuition for why the country gains from trade. It is able to purchase goods at lower prices from other countries.

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How long has South Carolina been a state before it seceded

Answers

South Carolina was one of the original 13 colonies that declared independence from Great Britain in 1776. It was also one of the original states that ratified the US Constitution in 1788, making it a state for over 72 years before it seceded from the Union in 1860.

Refer to the following payoff matrix: Player 2 Low Q $50,$5 $40,$2 High Q $15, $30 $2,$1 Low Q High Q Player 1 If the payoff matrix is a simultaneous-move production game, the Nash equilibrium is for: Multiple Choice both players to produce low output. both players to produce high output. player 1 to produce low output and player 2 to produce high output. player 1 to produce high output and player 2 to produce low output.

Answers

The correct option is player 1 to produce low output and player 2 to produce high output.

Refer to the following payoff matrix: Player 2 Low Q $50,$5 $40,$2 High Q $15, $30 $2,$1Low Q High Q Player 1 If the payoff matrix is a simultaneous-move production game, the Nash equilibrium is for player 1 to produce low output and player 2 to produce high output.

Nash Equilibrium: Simultaneous move production games have Nash Equilibrium, which is a concept in game theory, in which all players make the finest decision possible, given the choice of the others. The Nash equilibrium is the point at which both players' best decisions coincide. It's possible that a game has numerous Nash equilibria.

In this situation, there are four potential Nash equilibria. However, only one of them fits the simultaneous move production game's Nash equilibrium. The Nash equilibrium for this payoff matrix is for player 1 to produce low output and player 2 to produce high output.

Since both players prefer to produce low output, it is not a suitable Nash equilibrium if both players produce low output. As a result, the only suitable Nash equilibrium in this game is for player 1 to produce low output and player 2 to produce high output.

Therefore, the correct option is player 1 to produce low output and player 2 to produce high output.

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Why are the provinces of Ontario and Quebec the most populated?

Question 8 options:

Both provinces have a humid continental climate in the south.


Both provinces have cold winters and mild summers.


The Canadian Shield provides farmland to the area.


The southern edge of the two provinces have a booming fishing industry

Answers

Due to a combination of historical, economic, and geographic factors, the provinces of Ontario and Quebec have the highest populations in Canada.

Why are Ontario and Quebec the two most populous provinces?

These provinces served as the foundation of French and British colonial rule in Canada throughout history, and they continue to be the hub of the country's economic and political power. Both provinces have diversified and strong economies, with sizable urban centres, sizable manufacturing sectors, and an abundance of natural resources like timber, minerals, and hydroelectricity. Geographically, both provinces are found in the southern region of Canada, close to the St. Lawrence River and the Great Lakes, which have historically aided in trade and transportation. In addition, they have a lot of land that can be used for farming, especially in the southern regions of the provinces.

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Suppose maestro restaurant sold 20,000 pizzas at $6.50 per pizza. When this restaurant increased its price by 20%, its sales for the new price increase the monthly sales of Pepsi decreased by 10%. Using the initial value elasticity method, a. Find the price elasticity of demand for this pizza; b. Would you expect total revenue to increase after increasing the pr c. Are pizza and Pepsi substitutes or complements? Why?

Answers

The initial value elasticity of demand for this pizza is -0.5. This means that if the price increase by 1%, the quantity demanded would decrease by 0.5%. The price elasticity of demand is calculated by dividing the percentage change in quantity demanded by the percentage change in price.

Since price elasticity of demand for this pizza is -0.5, it is likely that total revenue would decrease after increasing the price. When the price increases, the quantity demanded decreases and so does the total revenue.

Pizza and Pepsi are substitutes. This means that when the price of one increases, the demand for the other increases as consumers switch to the other product. When the price of pizza increased by 20%, the monthly sales of Pepsi decreased by 10%. This indicates that pizza and Pepsi are substitutes.

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The next three multiple-choice questions make use of the following information. The demand for team A's games consist of 200 potential fans, each of whom may choose to attend one or more of the team's five home games. 100 of the fans will pay up to $40 to attend a single game and nothing to attend any additional games. However, the remaining 100 fans have the following demand schedule: Value of 1 game $40
Value of 2 game 32
Value of 3 game 24
Value of 4 game 16
Value of 5 game 8
21. If the team sets a single game price of $40 its home attendance and total revenue will be (a) zero (b) 100 and $4,000 (c) 200 and $8,000 (d) 300 and $12,000 22. The maximum amount that a multi-game fan will pay for a season ticket allowing her to attend all 5 games is
(a) $40 (b) $80 (c) $120 (d) $160 23. Suppose the team sets the price of individual game tickets at $40, but offers season tickets at the price you computed in 22. Its total attendance and revenue will be (a) 600 and $16,000 (b) 200 and $8,000 (c) 200 and $16,000 (d) 600 and $8,000

Answers

The best answer to Question 21 is (b) 100 and $4,000, the best answer to Question 22 is (c) $120 and the best answer to Question 23 is (b) 200 and $8,000.

The best answer to Question 21 is (b) 100 and $4,000. This is because the first 100 potential fans will only pay up to $40 to attend one game, meaning the total revenue would be 100 x $40, or $4,000.

The best answer to Question 22 is (c) $120. This is because the second 100 fans have the following demand schedule for multiple games: 1 game for $40, 2 games for $32, 3 games for $24, 4 games for $16, and 5 games for $8. Therefore, the maximum amount they would pay for a season ticket allowing them to attend all 5 games is $40 + $32 + $24 + $16 + $8 = $120.

The best answer to Question 23 is (b) 200 and $8,000. This is because if the team sets individual game tickets at $40, but offers season tickets at the price computed in Question 22 ($120), then the total attendance would still be 200 and the total revenue would be 200 x $40, or $8,000.

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Using the five steps in the buyer decision process, evaluate a
recent purchase you made. Limit your work to 5 pages. At most 700
Words
evaluate a recent purchase you made???

Answers

Using the five steps in the buyer decision process, the purchase of a recent item can be evaluated. The five steps are: recognition of the need or want; information search; evaluation of alternatives; purchase decision; and post-purchase behavior.

In regards to the recent purchase, recognition of the need or want began when I identified a particular item that I wished to buy. I recently planned to buy a pair of shoes because the previous one is already broken. This was followed by an information search, where I gathered relevant details about the item and compared it to similar products. Next, I evaluated the various alternatives, considering factors such as price, quality, and brand. And I found a pair of cheap shoes that meets my budget. Based on my findings, I made the purchase decision and bought the item. Lastly, I experienced post-purchase behavior, where I reflected on the purchase, which included the satisfaction and/or dissatisfaction of the product. In conclusion, by using the five steps in the buyer decision process, the purchase of the recent item can be evaluated.

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Suppose the demand function is Q xd = 100 − 8Px + 6Py - M. If Px = $4, Py = $2, and M = $10, what is the cross-price elasticity of good x with respect to the price of good y?
A. 0.17
B. 0.38
C. 0.21
D. 0.04

Answers

The cross-price elasticity of good x with respect to the price of good y is -0.5.

What is cross-price elasticity?

Cross-price elasticity, often known as the substitution impact, shows how the quantity of a product demanded changes when the price of another related good changes.

It's an economic measure of the sensitivity of supply or demand to a change in the cost of another good. It's used to determine if two products are substitutes or complements in the marketplace.

The cross-price elasticity of good x with respect to the price of good y is defined as the following:

Cross-Price Elasticity = % Change in Quantity of Good X demanded / % Change in Price of Good Y

An increase in the price of one good leads to an increase in the demand for a related good when the goods are substitutes.

In comparison, the demand for a complementary good decreases when the price of one of them increases. Thus, we may utilize cross-price elasticity to determine the type of goods being examined when the quantity of one good is influenced by a shift in the price of another good.

Calculating Cross-price elasticity using the formula:

%change Qxd = (Qxd1 - Qxd0) / Qxd0 x 100%

%change Py = (Py1 - Py0) / Py0 x 100

Cross-price elasticity = % Change in Quantity of Good X demanded / % Change in Price of Good Y

Plugging the values given in the question:

Qxd0= 100 – 8Px + 6Py – M= 100 – (8 x 4) + (6 x 2) – 10= 62

Qxd1= 100 – 8Px + 6Py – M= 100 – (8 x 4) + (6 x 2) – 10= 62

%Change in Py = (Py1 - Py0) / Py0 x 100 = (2 - 4) / 4 x 100 = -50%

%Change in Qxd= (Qxd1 - Qxd0) / Qxd0 x 100 = (62 - 62) / 62 x 100 = 0%

Hence, Cross-price elasticity = % Change in Quantity of Good X demanded / % Change in Price of Good Y = 0 / -50% = 0 / -0.5 = 0.5 = -0.5

Therefore, the cross-price elasticity of good x with respect to the price of good y is -0.5. The correct option is D. -0.5.

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When trying to recall the definition of the fundamental attribution error during an exam, you think back to what the professor was wearing when he was talking about the fundamental attribution error in class. Which of the following types of thinking will help you to recall what the professor was wearing in class?
A. Group of answer choices
B. Controlled processing
C. Automatic processing
D. Internal processing
E. Intentional processing

Answers

When trying to recall the definition of the fundamental attribution error during an exam, you think back to what the professor was wearing when he was talking about the fundamental attribution error in class. The type of thinking that will help you to recall what the professor was wearing in class is Controlled processing. The correct option is B.

Controlled processing is a type of thinking that requires effort, attention, and conscious awareness. It is often used in situations where we need to pay attention to specific details or remember specific information.

In this case, you are trying to recall the definition of the fundamental attribution error during an exam, and you are using controlled processing to remember what the professor was wearing when he was talking about the fundamental attribution error in class. By focusing on this specific detail, you are able to recall the information more accurately and effectively.

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which group would perform the best on a memory test? select one: a. participants engaged in shallow processing without the previous warning of a memory test. b. participants engaged in moderate processing with the previous warning of a memory test. c. participants engaged in deep processing without the previous warning of a memory test. d. participants engaged in shallow processing with the previous warning of a memory test.

Answers

The group that would perform the best on a memory test is participants engaged in deep processing without the previous warning of a memory test.

This is because deep processing is an effective method of encoding memories into the long-term memory and recalling information. Additionally, the lack of warning of the memory test eliminates the influence of anticipation or anxiety, which can interfere with performance.

Memory test - A memory test is a scientific method of assessing memory retention, recall, and recognition. A memory test evaluates different aspects of memory, such as sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory. In psychology, memory tests are used to assess an individual's memory capacity and accuracy of recall.

In conclusion, participants who engage in deep processing without the previous warning of a memory test are likely to perform better than other groups on a memory test. This is because deep processing facilitates effective encoding and recall of information into the long-term memory.

Additionally, the absence of the previous warning of the memory test eliminates the influence of anticipation and anxiety on performance.

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