The theory that explains how deviance is caused by the tension between widely valued goals and people's ability to attain them is known as strain theory.
Deviance is defined as the behavior that violates the socially accepted norms, values, and expectations of a society. This theory explains that people resort to deviant behavior when they are unable to achieve their goals through the socially approved means. There is a gap between the culturally prescribed goals of success and the opportunities available to the people to achieve them.This gap creates tension and makes people opt for alternative means to achieve their objectives. This could be through illegitimate means or criminal activity. This tension is a result of the societal demands of success and the lack of legitimate means to achieve them. Strain theory asserts that the society has conflicting values and goals, which create tension for individuals leading to deviance. The tension is further increased when social institutions fail to deliver the expected results. The theory, therefore, proposes that deviance is a response to the social structure of society and the opportunities it offers.
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The two primary types of cells that make up Nervous Tissue are: AAA and D O Sensory and Motor Central and Peripheral Axons and Dendrites Neurons and Glial Afferent and Efferent
The correct answer is Neurons and Glial cells.
AAA and D O Sensory and Motor Central and Peripheral Axons and Dendrites Neurons and Glial Afferent and Efferent. Neurons are the primary functional cells of the nervous system and are responsible for transmitting and processing information through electrical and chemical signals.
Glial cells are on the other hand, provide support and protection to neurons. They play important roles in maintaining the structural integrity of the nervous tissue, regulating the chemical environment around neurons, and assisting in neuronal communication.
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367/quizzes/secured#lockdown Question 20 Below is the result of a patient's CBC, which parameters show an abnormal value? Result Patient 1 PATIENT 1 TEST WBC RBC Hb HCT PLT MCV MCH MCHC MCV hematocrit
The parameters of the CBC (Complete Blood Count) that may show abnormal values in the given patient's test result include WBC (White Blood Cell count), Hb (Hemoglobin), HCT (Hematocrit), PLT (Platelet count), MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume), MCH (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin), and MCHC (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration).
The CBC provides important information about various components of the blood. Abnormal values in certain parameters can indicate potential health issues. In the given patient's test result, multiple parameters are listed, including WBC, RBC, Hb, HCT, PLT, MCV, MCH, and MCHC.
To identify abnormal values, the specific reference ranges for each parameter are needed. Without these ranges, it is difficult to determine whether a particular value is abnormal. Normal reference ranges for each parameter can vary slightly depending on factors such as age, sex, and individual health conditions.
However, in a general context, if any of the parameters mentioned in the patient's test result fall outside the established reference range, they would be considered abnormal. This could indicate potential abnormalities in white blood cells, red blood cells, hemoglobin, hematocrit, platelets, and various measures of red blood cell size (MCV), hemoglobin content (MCH), and hemoglobin concentration (MCHC).
It is important to consult a healthcare professional or refer to the specific reference ranges provided by the laboratory conducting the test to accurately interpret the abnormalities and determine any underlying health conditions.
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1-What are the main human impacts on the environments and propose microbiological solutions to reduce such impacts on the environment in details. (25 points) 2-How can microorganisms get adapted to th
Answer:
Explanation:
Humans impact the physical environment in many ways: overpopulation, pollution, burning fossil fuels, and deforestation. Changes like these have triggered climate change, soil erosion, poor air quality, and undrinkable water. These negative impacts can affect human behavior and can prompt mass migrations or battles over clean water.
Pedigrees and Mendelian inheritance
In Labrador retrievers, coat color is controlled by two genes, one that determines whether pigment is deposited in the hair and one that controls the color of the pigment. The first gene has two alleles, one for black pigment and one for brown (chocolate) pigment. The black allele is dominant. The alleles at the second gene determine if the pigment is deposited in the fur of the animal. If the dog has two recessive alleles at this locus, no pigment will be deposited in the fur and the dog will be a yellow lab. If the dog has at least one dominant allele at this locus and at least one black pigment allele, they will be a black lab. If the dog has two brown alleles and at least one dominant allele at the second locus, they will be a chocolate lab.
Take a deep breath. You’ve got this. The information you have in the problem is:
The structure of the pedigree through the naming of individuals (the pedigree is already drawn for you)
How the inheritance of coat color works in Labrador retrievers
The phenotype of the individuals in the pedigree
The steps you need to take to solve it:
Assign phenotypes to every dog Figure out the genotype for the color deposition locus – use D/d to indicate whether the color is deposited/not deposited
Figure out the genotype for the pigment locus – use B/b to indicate Black allele/brown allele
Using the pedigree below, fill in the genotypes and phenotypes in the table following the pedigree for the family of Labrador retrievers. Mom and Dad are indicated for you. If a genotype is indeterminate, use a dash (-). Once you have done that, use that information to answer the questions below.
Family: Leia, the mom, is a black lab. Han, the dad, is a brown lab. Leia’s father is a black lab, and her mother is a black lab, both heterozygous for the color deposition locus and the pigmentation locus. Han’s father is a yellow lab from a homozygous black father and brown mother. Han’s mother is a brown lab from two brown labs that are homozygous for the color deposition gene. Leia and Han have three puppies: one female brown lab named Jaina, one male black lab called Jacen, and one male yellow lab named Ben.
Phenotypes of all the dogs were identified and genotypes of the color deposition locus and pigmentation locus of each dog were assigned. With the help of this information, the genotypes and phenotypes of Leia and Han’s puppies were found.
Phenotypes of all the dogs were identified and genotypes of the color deposition locus and pigmentation locus of each dog were assigned. In the color deposition locus, D/d was used to indicate whether the color is deposited/not deposited. In the pigmentation locus, B/b was used to indicate Black allele/brown allele. With the help of this information, the genotypes and phenotypes of Leia and Han’s puppies were found. The genotypes and phenotypes of the puppies are as follows:Jaina, the female brown lab: bbD/-Jacen, the male black lab: BbD/-Ben, the male yellow lab: bbdd.
Therefore, the conclusions that can be drawn from the given information are that Leia and Han are heterozygous for the color deposition and pigmentation locus. Their puppies have different genotypes and phenotypes for the color deposition and pigmentation locus. The brown puppy has the genotype bbD/-, black puppy has BbD/-, and the yellow puppy has the genotype bbdd.
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Below are six statements regarding events in the brain that produce EEG waves. Three of the statements are TRUE and three of them are FALSE. Select all three TRUE statements and avoid all three FALSE statements to earn 3 marks. EEG waves are mainly associated with ions crossing the membrane during action potentials EEG waves are mainly associated with ion flow caused by post-synaptic potentials EEG waves are caused by ion movements inside the dendrites and cell body Inhibitory brain activity causes negative EEG waves All other things being equal, EEG amplitude is greater when brain activity is synchronous than when it is asynchronous EEG waves are caused by movement of ions outside neurons
The following are the three true statements regarding events in the brain that produce EEG waves: EEG waves are mainly associated with ion flow caused by post-synaptic potentials.
EEG waves are caused by ion movements inside the dendrites and cell body. All other things being equal, EEG amplitude is greater when brain activity is synchronous than when it is asynchronous. Explanation: Electroencephalogram (EEG) is an electrophysiological monitoring method that detects electrical activity in the brain using electrodes placed on the scalp.
The human brain is continuously active, and its activity produces electrical currents. When a person is awake, their brain exhibits different electrical patterns than when they are asleep. EEG is mainly associated with ion flow caused by post-synaptic potentials and ion movements inside the dendrites and cell body. Inhibitory brain activity does not cause negative EEG waves. However, inhibitory activity can prevent the occurrence of certain EEG patterns.
When brain activity is synchronous, EEG amplitude is greater, and its frequency is slower than when it is asynchronous. The statements EEG waves are mainly associated with ions crossing the membrane during action potentials, and EEG waves are caused by movement of ions outside neurons are false.
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A restriction site for a given enzyme has GAATTC base
recognition sequence. How frequently will this restriction site
expected to occur in random DNA that has 60% G+C
The restriction enzyme GAATTC base recognition sequence is EcoRI. It is most commonly used in cloning experiments. GAATTC recognition sequence for EcoRI is 6 base pairs long.
The frequency of occurrence of a restriction site in random DNA that has 60% G+C is calculated using the following formula: (0.6² + 0.4²)³, where 0.6 is the probability of G or C appearing at a given nucleotide position and 0.4 is the probability of A or T appearing at that position. The formula is derived using the binomial distribution equation.Using the above formula, the frequency of the occurrence of GAATTC in random DNA that has 60% G+C is:0.6² x 0.4⁴ x 3 = 0.013824or about 1 in every 72 base pairs.
This means that the EcoRI restriction site is expected to occur once in every 72 base pairs in random DNA that has 60% G+C.
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1. what is the main difference between the wild-type organism used by Beadle & Tatum and the mutant strain? ( hint they used this difference to find the mutant types in the first place)
2. Beadle & Tatum argued that auxotrophs (spores that could not grow on minimal media) had been mutated so that a gene was altered In such a way by the x-rays that it could no longer do what? Would this have been easier or more difficult to observe if the organism was haploid or diploid?
1. The main difference between the wild-type organism and the mutant strain used by Beadle and Tatum was the ability to synthesize certain essential nutrients.
The wild-type organism, also known as the prototroph, had the ability to synthesize all the necessary nutrients required for growth on minimal media. In contrast, the mutant strain, known as the auxotroph, had lost the ability to synthesize one or more specific nutrients and therefore required those nutrients to be supplied in the growth medium.
This difference in nutrient synthesis was used by Beadle and Tatum to identify and isolate the mutant strains. By growing the organisms on minimal media lacking specific nutrients, they could observe which strains failed to grow, indicating their auxotrophic nature and the specific nutrient they were unable to synthesize.
2. Beadle and Tatum proposed that the mutated gene in the auxotrophic strains had lost the ability to produce the specific enzyme required for synthesizing a particular nutrient. This altered gene resulted in a metabolic deficiency, preventing the auxotrophic strains from growing on minimal media lacking that specific nutrient.
Observing this metabolic alteration would have been easier if the organism was haploid rather than diploid. In a haploid organism, a single mutation in the gene would be sufficient to cause the loss of function, and the resulting phenotype would be more apparent. On the other hand, in a diploid organism, the presence of a second functional copy of the gene could potentially mask the effects of the mutation, making it more difficult to observe the phenotype associated with the loss of function. Therefore, haploid organisms provide a clearer and more direct link between the observed phenotype and the specific genetic mutation.
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Examination of a child revealed some whitish spots looking like coagulated milk on the mucous membrane of his cheeks and tongue. Analysis of smears revealed Gram-positive oval yeast-like cells. Which of the following causative agents are they?
A. Candida
D. Corynebacteria diphtheria
B. Fusobacteria
E. Staphylococci
C. Actinomycetes
An 18-year old patient has enlarged lymphnodes. They are painless, thickened on palpation. In the area of oral mucous membrane there is a smallsized ulcer with theckened edges and "laquer" bottom of greyish colour. Which of the following diseases is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Syphilis
D. Gonorrhea
B. Candidiasis
E. Tuberculosis
C. Scarlet fever
The causative agents of the disease are Candida.The symptoms described in the question indicate oral candidiasis, which is also known as thrush. The presence of whitish spots on the mucous membranes of the cheeks and tongue is a common sign of thrush. Gram-positive oval yeast-like cells were detected during smear analysis, which indicates that the causative agent is a type of yeast-like fungus.
Candida is the most probable causative agent, as it is the most common cause of oral thrush.Answer: A. CandidaExplanation:Oral candidiasis, or thrush, is a fungal infection of the mouth that is caused by the fungus Candida. It typically appears as white or cream-colored spots on the tongue, gums, and other areas of the mouth. The condition is most common in infants and older adults, as well as people with weakened immune systems. It can also occur in people who take antibiotics or use certain types of inhalers for asthma or other respiratory conditions.In the second case, the most probable diagnosis is Syphilis.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It is characterized by a series of stages, each with its own set of symptoms. The primary stage is characterized by the appearance of a painless ulcer at the site of infection. The ulcer may be accompanied by swollen lymph nodes. Without treatment, the disease can progress to the secondary and tertiary stages, which can cause serious health problems.
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Developed GM animals
Which of the following are examples of developed GM animals? Check All that Apply
A) Transgenic salmon that have been engineered to grow larger and mature faster.Transgenic salmon that have been engineered to grow larger and mature faster.
B) The production of cattle with leaner meats for healthier consumption.The production of cattle with leaner meats for healthier consumption.
C) The production of pig lungs that are being transplanted into humans in need of organ transplant. The production of pig lungs that are being transplanted into humans in need of organ transplant.
D) Goats have been genetically engineered to produce products in their milk to construct products that are useful to humans. Goats have been genetically engineered to produce products in their milk to construct products that are useful to humans.
E) Wild rabbits that are genetically modified to protect them from viral diseases and conserve the species. Wild rabbits that are genetically modified to protect them from viral diseases and conserve the species.
F) The production of genetically modified birds to reduce the spread of avian diseases like the flu. The production of genetically modified birds to reduce the spread of avian diseases like the flu.
The examples of developed GM animals are:
A) Transgenic salmon that have been engineered to grow larger and mature faster.
C) The production of pig lungs that are being transplanted into humans in need of organ transplant.
D) Goats that have been genetically engineered to produce products in their milk useful to humans.
E) Wild rabbits that are genetically modified to protect them from viral diseases and conserve the species.
F) The production of genetically modified birds to reduce the spread of avian diseases like the flu.
A) Transgenic salmon have been genetically modified to enhance their growth and development, allowing them to reach larger sizes and maturity faster than wild-type salmon.
C) Pig lungs have been genetically engineered for potential transplantation into humans as a means of addressing the shortage of suitable organs for transplantation.
D) Goats have been genetically modified to produce specific products, such as proteins or enzymes, in their milk, which can be extracted and used for various purposes in industries such as medicine or manufacturing.
E) Wild rabbits have been genetically modified to resist viral diseases, which helps protect the species from population decline and extinction.
F) Genetically modified birds, such as chickens, have been developed to possess enhanced resistance to avian diseases like the flu, which can reduce the spread of such diseases among bird populations and potentially to humans.
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Explain the proposed adaptive advantage of zygomorphy for
improving specific pollen placement.
Zygomorphy, or bilateral symmetry in flowers, enhances specific pollen placement by promoting specialized interactions with pollinators, ensuring efficient transfer of pollen to compatible floral structures and increasing the precision of pollination
Zygomorphy is the presence of bilateral symmetry that is found in flowers of most angiosperms. It is believed to have evolved to improve specific pollen placement for pollination. The proposed adaptive advantage of zygomorphy is that it ensures that the pollinator will be able to transfer pollen to the next flower of the same species during pollination. This is because the specific placement of the anthers and stigmas makes it easier for pollinators to access them and collect or deposit pollen.
The pollen is specifically placed on the animal's body, usually its head or mouth, when it collects nectar or pollen from the flower. As a result, when the animal visits another flower of the same species, it transfers the pollen to the stigma, which allows for successful fertilization. Zygomorphic flowers are more likely to attract specific pollinators because they offer a larger reward in terms of pollen and nectar, which the pollinators need for their survival. This makes the flowers more efficient in their reproduction, which is why zygomorphy is considered an adaptive advantage.
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is split and oxygen is released as a byproduct. Water NADPH Glucose Carbon dioxide Question 9 (1 point) Saved When a plant is experiencing water stress, hormone level increases. Auxin ABA alkaloids sa
When a plant is experiencing water stress, hormone levels increase. These hormones include ABA (abscise acid), which initiates a sequence of events that reduces the water lost through transpiration. The opening and closing of stomata is influenced by this hormone.
When ABA levels rise in response to drought, it binds to specific receptors in the guard cells of the stomata. This causes the stomata to close, which reduces transpiration and the rate of water loss. It can also induce a range of other drought-tolerance mechanisms within the plant. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy, which is stored in organic molecules such as glucose. During photosynthesis, water, carbon dioxide, and sunlight are used to create glucose and oxygen. The process occurs in two stages: the light reactions and the Calvin cycle. During the light reactions, light energy is absorbed and used to produce ATP and NADPH. Oxygen is also produced as a byproduct.
During the Calvin cycle, CO2 is converted into glucose using the energy stored in ATP and NADPH. Water is also used during the process, and oxygen is released as a byproduct. When a plant is experiencing water stress, hormone levels increase. These hormones include ABA (abscise acid), which initiates a sequence of events that reduces the water lost through transpiration. The opening and closing of stomata is influenced by this hormone. When ABA levels rise in response to drought, it binds to specific receptors in the guard cells of the stomata. This causes the stomata to close, which reduces transpiration and the rate of water loss. It can also induce a range of other drought-tolerance mechanisms within the plant.
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explain the variation in the # of ATP produced 30 vs 32
vs 36 vs 38
The variation in ATP production (30, 32, 36, and 38) is a result of the different pathways and conditions involved in cellular respiration. It highlights the importance of the citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, and unique adaptations in certain organisms for maximizing energy production.
The variation in the number of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) produced during cellular respiration is due to the different pathways and conditions under which ATP is generated. Here's a breakdown of the ATP production in each scenario:
30 ATP: This refers to the net ATP production through glycolysis alone, which occurs in the cytoplasm. During glycolysis, glucose is converted into pyruvate, generating a small amount of ATP. The net gain is two ATP molecules per glucose molecule.
32 ATP: This represents the net ATP production through glycolysis and the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle or TCA cycle). After glycolysis, pyruvate enters the mitochondria and undergoes further oxidation in the citric acid cycle.
36 ATP: This accounts for the net ATP production through glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. In addition to the ATP generated in the previous steps, the electrons carried by NADH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) and FADH2 (flavin adenine dinucleotide) from the citric acid cycle enter the ETC and create a proton gradient. This gradient drives ATP synthesis through ATP synthase.
38 ATP: This represents the net ATP production in certain prokaryotes and some eukaryotes, like bacteria. It includes ATP produced through glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation, similar to the 36 ATP scenario. However, some prokaryotes possess an additional proton pump that allows for the generation of an extra two ATP molecules during oxidative phosphorylation.
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The biological species concept relates, by definition, to A) differences between asexual populations only B) differences between protein-coding gene sequences C) differences between non-protein-coding gene sequences D) the ability of biological organisms to reproduce withone another A
B
C
D
The biological species concept, by definition, relates to the ability of biological organisms to reproduce with one another. Therefore, the correct answer is D) the ability of biological organisms to reproduce with one another.
According to the biological species concept, proposed by Ernst Mayr, a species is defined as a group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring in nature. This concept focuses on reproductive compatibility as the key criterion for defining species boundaries. Individuals within a species are capable of mating and exchanging genetic material to produce viable and fertile offspring, while individuals from different species are reproductively isolated and cannot successfully reproduce.
Options A, B, and C are not accurate descriptions of the biological species concept. Option A states that the concept relates to differences between asexual populations only, but the biological species concept primarily applies to sexually reproducing organisms. Option B refers to differences between protein-coding gene sequences, while Option C refers to differences between non-protein-coding gene sequences. Although genetic differences can contribute to speciation, the biological species concept is not solely based on genetic variation or specific gene sequences.
In summary, the biological species concept focuses on the reproductive compatibility of organisms and their ability to produce fertile offspring, making option D the correct answer.
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What is transduction? How does it differ from transformation? How
will these affect microbe
The process of genetic recombination is critical in generating new strains with different characteristics.
Transduction refers to the process of DNA transfer from one bacterial cell to another via bacteriophages or bacterial viruses.
While transformation refers to the process by which bacteria acquire foreign DNA from the environment that has been released from dead bacteria.
Difference between Transduction and TransformationTransductionTransformationIt involves the transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another through the use of bacteriophages.
It involves the uptake of foreign DNA from the surrounding environmentIt is an intercellular mechanism of DNA transferIt is an intracellular mechanism of DNA transfer.
It is a slow process of DNA transferIt is a rapid process of DNA transferIt involves the presence of bacteriophagesIt does not involve bacteriophages.
The impact of transduction and transformation on microbesTransduction and transformation can result in genetic diversity and genetic variability in microbes.
Through these processes, bacteria can acquire new genetic traits and acquire the ability to withstand extreme environments and improve their survival under unfavorable conditions.
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1. Write all the factors that determine the amount of
protein synthesis.
2. Write all the factors that affect the function of
protein.
Proteins are essential macromolecules that play diverse roles in the structure, function, and regulation of cells and organisms. Protein synthesis is the cellular process through which proteins are produced, involving the transcription of DNA into mRNA and the translation of mRNA into a polypeptide chain, which then folds into a functional protein.
1. Factors that determine the amount of protein synthesis:
Availability of amino acidsEnergy supplyTranscription factorsRibosomes and tRNAsCo- and post-translational modificationsEnvironmental factors (such as temperature, pH, etc.)The rate of protein breakdown and degradationRegulatory proteins and microRNAs2. Factors that affect the function of protein:
Environmental factors such as temperature, pH, and salt concentrationPost-translational modificationsOther proteins, such as chaperonesMembrane compositionLipid binding.Learn more about protein synthesis: https://brainly.com/question/884041
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Mr. Y, a 42-year-old man who was previously healthy, presents to the emergency room with left-sided flank pain. In the last 12 hours, he has experienced four 20-minute episodes of severe left flank pain radiating to the perineum. He says he has no symptoms in his lower urinary tract, gastrointestinal system, or respiratory system, and he has no hematuria. He was diagnosed with a ureteric calculus and hydronephrosis, and he was given pain medication before being released to pass the stone on his own. He was referred to urology after returning to the emergency room the next day in severe pain.
Rule out a diagnosis for this man, describe the entire procedure and any possible findings. Also, advise the best treatment for this case.
Based on the information provided, Mr. Y's symptoms, including left-sided flank pain radiating to the perineum, along with the presence of a ureteric calculus and hydronephrosis, are indicative of a condition called ureteral colic, most likely caused by a kidney stone (ureteric calculus).
The diagnostic procedure for ruling out other potential diagnoses and confirming the presence of a kidney stone would involve imaging studies such as a CT scan or ultrasound. The treatment for ureteral colic caused by a kidney stone may involve pain management, hydration, and allowing the stone to pass naturally, but since Mr. Y returned to the emergency room in severe pain, referral to urology would be advised for further evaluation and potential intervention, such as lithotripsy or ureteroscopy, to address the stone and relieve the symptoms.
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1. Throughout the semester, we have learned about phylogenetic groups within phyla that were once believed to be monophyletic but which we now know are either paraphyletic or polyphyletic. Give two examples of such groups - one paraphyletic and one that ended up being polyphyletic and separated into new phyla. For each original grouping - why were these organisms originally grouped together I
One example of a group that was once believed to be paraphyletic is the reptiles. An example of a group that was once believed to be polyphyletic is the phylum Protozoa.
Traditionally, reptiles were considered a monophyletic group encompassing turtles, lizards, snakes, crocodiles, and birds. However, with advancements in molecular phylogenetics, it became evident that birds are actually descended from within the reptile group. Birds share a more recent common ancestor with crocodiles and reptiles than with any other group. This discovery led to the recognition that reptiles, as traditionally defined, are paraphyletic because they do not include all the descendants of their most recent common ancestor.
An example of a group that was once believed to be polyphyletic is the phylum Protozoa. Protozoa encompassed a diverse array of single-celled eukaryotic organisms, including amoebae, ciliates, flagellates, and sporozoans. However, molecular studies revealed that this group was not monophyletic, and its members were distributed across various branches of the eukaryotic tree. Consequently, the phylum Protozoa was abandoned, and its constituent organisms were separated into multiple new phyla based on their evolutionary relationships and unique characteristics. The original grouping of these organisms was based on shared morphological characteristics and ecological similarities. Advances in molecular techniques, particularly DNA sequencing, allowed researchers to examine the genetic relationships and evolutionary history of organisms in more detail, leading to a revised understanding of their classification.
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Natural selection proceeds fastest when:
Group of answer choices
it’s directed against the homozygotes
it’s directed against the recessive allele
it’s directed against the heterozygote
it’s directed against the dominant allele
A small population of butterflies is introduced to two islands. All of them have wings that are 11 to 13 centimeters long. On the other island, all of them have wings that are 12 centimeters long. This change was the result of:
Group of answer choices
stabilizing selection.
founder effect.
disruptive selection.
directional selection.
After a few years, a storm blows some of the 12-cm. butterflies over to the other island. A visiting biologist notices that the female 5-cm. butterflies don’t respond to the 12-cm. males when mating. We would call this an example of:
Group of answer choices
temporal isolation.
hybrid inviability.
behavioral isolation.
ecological isolation.
Natural selection proceeds fastest when it’s directed against the dominant allele. This happens when an individual, with a dominant allele that confers a disadvantageous phenotype, dies before reproducing.
This leads to a reduction in the frequency of that allele in the population. Conversely, when an individual, with a recessive allele that confers an advantageous phenotype, dies before reproducing, there is no reduction in the frequency of that allele in the population.
The change that occurred in the population of butterflies was the result of directional selection. This is because the frequency of a particular trait changes over time in response to the selective pressures acting on it. In this case, the selective pressure was the change in the environment, which favored individuals with wings that were 12 centimeters long.
The female 5-cm. butterflies not responding to the 12-cm. males when mating is an example of behavioral isolation. Behavioral isolation is a mechanism of reproductive isolation where two populations of the same species develop differences in courtship rituals or other behaviors that prevent them from mating.
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Which of the following statements about plasmid transformation is incorrect? A. Transformation gives low yields. B. Cells could be screened for transformants phenotypically. c. Electroporation is a ph
In conclusion, statement A is incorrect, as transformation gives high yields.
Plasmid transformation is a process by which foreign DNA is introduced into the cells. This process involves the use of plasmids as vectors to transfer the genes of interest to the cells.
The plasmid vectors are engineered in such a way that they carry the genes of interest and the genes that confer antibiotic resistance to the transformed cells. The following statement about plasmid transformation is incorrect:
A. Transformation gives low yields. This is not true.
Plasmid transformation is a highly efficient process, and it yields a large number of transformed cells. The efficiency of plasmid transformation depends on various factors, such as the size of the plasmid, the type of host cells, the mode of transformation, and the conditions of the transformation process.
Cells could be screened for transformants phenotypically.
This is true. Cells that are transformed with plasmids carrying genes that confer antibiotic resistance could be screened by growing them in the presence of antibiotics. Only the transformed cells would grow on the selective medium, while the non-transformed cells would die. Electroporation is a physical method used to introduce plasmids into cells. This is true.
Electroporation is a technique that involves the use of an electric field to introduce plasmids into the cells. The electric field disrupts the cell membrane, allowing the plasmids to enter the cells.
The efficiency of electroporation depends on various factors, such as the strength and duration of the electric field, the temperature of the cells, and the composition of the electroporation buffer.
In conclusion, statement A is incorrect, as transformation gives high yields.
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For Mycobacterium tuberculosis answer the following questions:
What is this bacteria’s morphology/type? How is it transmitted to
people? List and explain 2 virulence factors. Briefly indicate its
fa
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, also known as the tuberculosis (TB) bacterium, is an aerobic, acid-fast bacillus that belongs to the Myco bacteria ceae family.
This bacterium is responsible for tuberculosis, a communicable disease that mainly affects the lungs but can also affect other body parts, such as the brain, spine, and kidneys.
The most common way Mycobacterium tuberculosis spreads is through airborne transmission. When an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks, the bacteria are expelled into the air, where they can be inhaled by others. The bacteria can also spread when people come into contact with contaminated surfaces or objects, such as doorknobs and bed linens. Two virulence factors of Mycobacterium tuberculosis are:
1. Cord Factor: Cord factor, also known as trehalose dimycolate, is a major virulence factor produced by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Cord factor is composed of two long-chain fatty acids linked to a sugar molecule, and it plays a crucial role in the formation of the mycobacterial cell wall. Cord factor is believed to inhibit the function of macrophages, which are immune cells that engulf and destroy invading pathogens.
2. Mycolic Acids: Mycolic acids are long, branched-chain fatty acids that are unique to mycobacteria. These molecules play a vital role in the virulence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis by enabling the bacterium to resist the host's immune response. Mycolic acids can prevent the destruction of the bacterial cell wall by host enzymes, as well as block the entry of toxic molecules into the cell.
The fatality rate of tuberculosis caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis depends on many factors, such as the age and immune status of the person infected, the severity of the disease, and the presence of drug resistance. However, early detection and treatment can greatly improve a person's chances of recovery.
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The olive fly, Dacus oleae, is one of the most important pests of the olive tree. The use of insecticides is one of the control strategies for this pest, however, a gene has been discovered that gives Dacus oleae resistance to the insecticide dimethoate (the most widely used). The resistance of the flies to dimethoate is due to the dominant allele A. After spraying with this insecticide, only 20% of the flies of the recessive phenotype survive. In a certain population of flies at equilibrium, 64% show a recessive phenotype.
Answer in A what is the frequency of each of the genotypes in that population?
If we spray with dimethoate, answer in B, what will be the biological efficacy of each genotype?
Answer in C, what will be the average biological fitness of the population?
Answer in D, what will be the frequency of allele a after one generation of selection? Answer in E what will be the frequency of resistant flies after one generation of selection?
The population consists of genotypes AA (frequency = 0.04), Aa (frequency = 0.32), and aa (frequency = 0.64). The biological efficacy of the AA and Aa genotypes is 100%, while the aa genotype has an efficacy of 20%.
The average biological fitness of the population is 0.648. After one generation of selection, the frequency of allele a remains 0.8, and the frequency of resistant flies is 36%.
In a population of Dacus oleae flies, the frequency of the recessive phenotype is 64%. The dominant allele A confers resistance to the insecticide dimethoate, with only 20% of the recessive flies surviving after spraying.
To determine the frequency of each genotype in the population, we can use the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation. Let p represent the frequency of the dominant allele A and q represent the frequency of the recessive allele a. According to the given information, the recessive phenotype comprises 64% of the population, which translates to a frequency of q² = 0.64. Taking the square root of 0.64, we find q = 0.8. Since q represents the frequency of the recessive allele a, and p + q = 1, we can calculate that p = 0.2. Thus, the frequency of the adaptation heterozygous genotype Aa is 2pq = 2(0.2)(0.8) = 0.32, and the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype aa is q² = (0.8)² = 0.64.
When dimethoate is sprayed, only 20% of the recessive flies (aa genotype) survive. The dominant flies (AA and Aa genotypes) have resistance to the insecticide. Therefore, the biological efficacy of the AA and Aa genotypes is 100%, as all individuals of these genotypes survive the spraying. However, the recessive aa genotype has a biological efficacy of only 20% since only 20% of them survive.
The average biological fitness of the population can be calculated by summing the products of the genotype frequencies and their corresponding biological efficacy. The fitness of the AA genotype is 1 (100% survival), the fitness of the Aa genotype is also 1 (100% survival), and the fitness of the aa genotype is 0.2 (20% survival). The average biological fitness is given by [tex](p^{2} * 1) + (2pq * 1) + (q^{2} * 0.2) = 0.2 + 0.32 + 0.128 = 0.648[/tex].
After one generation of selection, the frequency of allele a can be determined by considering the surviving flies. The surviving aa genotype makes up 20% of the population, so the frequency of allele a will remain the same (q = 0.8). Since [tex]p + q = 1[/tex], the frequency of allele A will be 1 - q = 1 - 0.8 = 0.2.
The frequency of resistant flies after one generation of selection can be obtained by considering the surviving dominant genotypes (AA and Aa). The frequency of the AA genotype is p² = (0.2)² = 0.04, and the frequency of the Aa genotype is 2pq = 2(0.2)(0.8) = 0.32. Adding these frequencies together, we find that the frequency of resistant flies is 0.04 + 0.32 = 0.36, or 36%.
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Giantism is a consequence of O Production of T4 above the normal O Production of GH after puberty above the normal O Production of GH above the normal after birth and before puberty O Production of Gn
Gigantism is a consequence of excessive production of growth hormone (GH) before the closure of growth plates.
Growth hormone is responsible for stimulating the growth and development of bones and tissues. In cases of gigantism, there is an overproduction of GH by the pituitary gland, usually due to a benign tumor called pituitary adenoma. This excess GH is released into the bloodstream and stimulates the growth plates in the long bones, leading to excessive linear growth.
Gigantism typically occurs before the closure of the growth plates, which happens during puberty. If excessive GH production occurs after the growth plates have closed, it leads to a different condition called acromegaly, characterized by enlargement of the bones and soft tissues, rather than an increase in height.
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You have a friend that has Type I Diabetes. This is caused by a mutation in the gene that regularly produces insulin.
a) What is the experimental technique used to deactivate mutated genes and replace them with the proper form of the gene?
b) What can he used to cut DNA?
c) Explain how insulin is made on a large scale. Give a step by step description of how this works.
a) The experimental technique used to deactivate mutated genes and replace them with the proper form of the gene is called gene therapy. Gene therapy aims to introduce functional copies of the mutated gene into the patient's cells to restore normal gene function and alleviate the associated disease or disorder.
b) Enzymes called restriction endonucleases, or restriction enzymes, are commonly used to cut DNA. These enzymes recognize specific DNA sequences and cleave the DNA at or near these sequences. The resulting cuts create fragments of DNA that can be manipulated in various ways for experimental purposes.
c) Large-scale production of insulin involves the use of recombinant DNA technology. Here is a step-by-step description of how it works:
Isolation of the insulin gene: The gene that codes for insulin is isolated from a human or animal source that produces insulin.
Construction of a recombinant DNA plasmid: The insulin gene is inserted into a small, circular DNA molecule called a plasmid. The plasmid acts as a vector and carries the insulin gene into the host cell for replication.
Transformation of host cells: The recombinant plasmid is introduced into host cells, often bacteria such as Escherichia coli (E. coli), using a process called transformation. The host cells take up the plasmid and can replicate it along with their own DNA.
Selection and propagation of transformed cells: Only the host cells that have taken up the recombinant plasmid survive in the presence of specific antibiotics or other selection markers. These selected cells are propagated in large culture vessels under controlled conditions.
Expression of the insulin gene: Within the transformed host cells, the insulin gene is transcribed and translated, leading to the production of insulin protein.
Purification of insulin: The host cells are harvested, and the insulin protein is purified from the cellular components using various techniques, such as chromatography.
Formulation and packaging: The purified insulin is formulated into the desired pharmaceutical preparations, such as vials or cartridges, and undergoes quality control testing to ensure safety and efficacy.
Distribution and administration: The packaged insulin products are distributed for use in treating individuals with diabetes. Insulin can be administered through injections or through insulin pumps, allowing individuals with diabetes to regulate their blood glucose levels.
It's worth noting that this is a simplified overview of the insulin production process, and there may be variations and additional steps depending on the specific production methods used by different manufacturers.
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68 Anatomy and Physiology I MJB01 )2 (Summer 2022) The spinal cord consists of four regions and segments. Select one: a. 1 b. 5 C. 7 d. 31 e. 12 Clear my choice
The spinal cord is composed of 31 segments, each of which gives rise to a pair of spinal nerves.
These segments are further divided into four regions: cervical (C1-C8), thoracic (T1-T12), lumbar (L1-L5), and sacral (S1-S5). Each segment of the spinal cord corresponds to a specific region of the body and is responsible for transmitting sensory and motor information between the body and the brain. The spinal cord, which connects the medulla oblongata in the brainstem to the lumbar portion of the vertebral column (backbone), is a long, thin, tubular tube consisting of nerve tissue. The cerebrospinal fluid-filled core canal of the spinal cord is enclosed by the backbone. The central nervous system (CNS) is made up of the brain and spinal cord.
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A mouse geneticist considers five homozygous recessive mutant strains of mice (1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6). All show the same phenotype: pink eyes. Crosses were made using all possible pairs of the six mutants. The offspring phenotypes are shown below. The symbol indicates normal eye color and indicates pink eyes. Mutant 1 Mutant 2 Mutant 3 Mutant 4 Mutant 6 Mutant 5 + + Mutant 1 + + Mutant 2 + + Mutant 3 + Mutant 4 + Mutant 5 Mutant 6 Based on these results, how many different genes were mutated in making these six lines?
In the given data, the six homozygous recessive mutant strains of mice all display the same phenotype (pink eyes). However, when crossed with each other, the offspring exhibit normal eye color. This indicates that the mutations at different gene loci are complementing each other, resulting in a wild-type phenotype. Therefore, only one gene is mutated in making these six lines.
Based on the provided information, we can analyze the offspring phenotypes resulting from the crosses between the six mutant strains. To determine the number of different genes mutated in making these lines, we need to identify the independent genetic loci responsible for the observed phenotypes. From the given data, we can observe that each mutant strain (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6) when crossed with another mutant strain, produces offspring with normal eye color. This indicates that the mutations at different loci are complementing each other, resulting in a wild-type phenotype.
By examining the data, we can see that when Mutant 1 is crossed with Mutant 2, the offspring have normal eye color. Similarly, when Mutant 1 is crossed with Mutant 3, Mutant 4, Mutant 5, or Mutant 6, the offspring also have normal eye color. This suggests that the mutations in Mutant 1 are complemented by the other mutants.
Likewise, Mutant 2 crossed with Mutant 3, Mutant 4, Mutant 5, or Mutant 6 results in offspring with normal eye color. This indicates that the mutations in Mutant 2 are also complemented by the other mutants.
Based on this pattern, we can conclude that the six mutant strains have mutations at the same gene locus. Therefore, only one gene is mutated in making these six lines.
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Which integument layer has the greatest capacity to retain fluid
?
The integumentary system is composed of the skin, hair, nails, and glands. Its main function is to protect the body from damage and external elements. The skin is the largest organ in the body, and it is composed of three layers: the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layer.
The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and is composed of dead cells that are constantly being shed. The dermis is the middle layer of the skin and is composed of connective tissue, blood vessels, and nerves. The subcutaneous layer is the innermost layer of the skin and is composed of fat, connective tissue, and blood vessels.The subcutaneous layer has the greatest capacity to retain fluid. This layer is made up of adipose tissue, which is composed of fat cells. These fat cells can absorb and store large amounts of fluid. This helps to protect the body from dehydration and helps to regulate body temperature.In addition to its role in fluid retention, the subcutaneous layer also provides insulation and protection for the body.
Overall, the integumentary system plays an essential role in protecting the body and maintaining homeostasis.
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Women are often deficient in which nutrient?
a. Vitamin K
b. iron
c. Sodium
d. Fluoride
e. Vitamin C
Women are often deficient in b. iron.
Women are often deficient in iron. Iron is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in the production of red blood cells and the transportation of oxygen throughout the body. Due to factors such as menstruation, pregnancy, and lactation, women have higher iron requirements compared to men.
Menstruation can lead to regular blood loss, which can contribute to iron depletion over time. Pregnancy places additional demands on iron stores as the developing fetus requires iron for its own growth and development. Lactation also increases the need for iron to support the production of breast milk.
If women do not consume enough iron-rich foods or have difficulties with iron absorption, they may become deficient in iron. Iron deficiency can result in symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, pale skin, shortness of breath, and impaired immune function.
To prevent iron deficiency, it is important for women to include iron-rich foods in their diet, such as lean meats, poultry, fish, legumes, leafy green vegetables, and fortified cereals. In some cases, iron supplementation may be necessary under the guidance of a healthcare professional. Regular monitoring of iron levels through blood tests can help identify and address any deficiencies. Therefore, the correct option is b.
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Variable number tandem repeat (VNTR) is a ______
a. Gene b. polymorphism c. translocation d. both a and b
Variable number tandem repeat (VNTR) is both a gene and a polymorphism. Therefore, the correct answer is d. both a and b, as VNTRs are both a gene and a polymorphism.
VNTR refers to a type of DNA sequence variation characterized by the presence of short DNA segments that are repeated in tandem (i.e., consecutive repetitions of the same sequence). These repetitive sequences can vary in the number of repeats between individuals, giving rise to the term "variable number tandem repeat."
In terms of being a gene, VNTRs can be present within or near genes and can influence gene expression or function. They can be associated with specific traits, diseases, or genetic disorders.
Moreover, VNTRs are also considered a type of polymorphism. Polymorphisms refer to variations in DNA sequences that are present in a population. VNTRs represent one form of genetic polymorphism due to their variable nature. The number of repeats in a VNTR region can differ between individuals, making it a useful tool for genetic analysis, including forensic DNA profiling and paternity testing.
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Which of the following statements is true about the mass extinction that occurred at the end of the Cretaceous Period following an asteroid impact on the Yucatan Peninsula?
a) this was the largest mass extinction in Earth's history
b) disruption of ecological processes following the impact was not as significant as the immediate loss of species due to fires, earthquakes, and limited photosynthesis
c) this extinction provided ecological opportunities for the diversification of mammals
d) all of the above
e) 60-80% of species extinctions occurred within 50,000 years of the impact
The true statement about the mass extinction that occurred at the end of the Cretaceous Period following an asteroid impact on the Yucatan Peninsula is that "60-80% of species extinctions occurred within 50,000 years of the impact." Option (e) is the correct answer.
An asteroid impact on the Yucatan Peninsula caused a mass extinction that ended the Cretaceous Period. It has been determined that about 60-80% of species extinctions occurred within 50,000 years of the impact.
The most significant consequence of the asteroid impact was that it generated earthquakes and fires that directly caused the extinction of many species. The impact caused a massive impact winter, which resulted in the cessation of photosynthesis.
This, along with ecological disruptions that occurred as a result of the impact, made it difficult for species to survive for an extended period of time. Thus, option E, which is "60-80% of species extinctions occurred within 50,000 years of the impact," is the correct statement.
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Which of the following is NOT an adaptation generally seen in land plants for obtaining and/or retaining water a. Having specialized structures for locating and extracting water from the soil. b. Having stomata Having complex three dimensional body plans. d. Having cuticles. Producing copious mucilage.
Option (c) Having complex three dimensional body plans is NOT an adaptation generally seen in land plants for obtaining and/or retaining water.
What are adaptations in plants?Adaptation is a characteristic of an organism that improves its chances of survival and reproduction in its current environment. Plant adaptations are physical and behavioral characteristics that help them to survive and reproduce in specific environmental conditions. Plant adaptations for obtaining and retaining water. Plants are exposed to a wide range of environmental conditions, which means they must adapt in order to survive.
Here are a few plant adaptations for obtaining and retaining water:
Having specialized structures for locating and extracting water from the soil.Having stomata (small pores on the surface of leaves) to regulate water loss through transpiration.Having cuticles (waxy coatings on leaves) to reduce water loss by evaporation.Producing copious mucilage to absorb water from the surrounding environment.Therefore, the correct option is C.
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