This morning, Dakota took a history test. She got 17 out of 34 problems right. What percentage did Dakota get right?

Answer:

y=√(x1-x2)^2+(y1-y2)^2

y=√(-3-(-11))^2+(15-0)^2

y=√8^2+15^2

y=√64+225

y=√289

y=17

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

17

Step-by-step explanation:

x₁ = -3 and x₂ = -11

y₁ = 15 and y₂ = 0

√(-3 - -11)² + (15 - 0)²

√( 8² ) + ( 15² )

17

Answer:

195.45 in

Step-by-step explanation:

Step one:

given

sphere has a radius of 3.6 centimeters.

Required:

the volume of a sphere

The formula for the volume is

V=4/3πr^3

Step two:

subsituting we have

V=4/3*3.142*3.6^3

v=4/3*3.124*46.65

v= 586.37/3

v=195.457 in

to the nearest hundreth 195.45 in

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

Bluegreen

Bluered

Blueyellow

Greenblue

Greenred

Greenyellow

Redblue

Redgreen

Redyellow

Yellowblue

Yellowgreen

Yellowred

Answer: 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Took on computer

Answer:

h=416$

Step-by-step explanation:

36.50h+27.50h= 64

64x6 1/2=

416 $

Answer:

416

Step-by-step explanation:

36.50+27.50=64

64*6=384

and then add 32 for the half an hour

384+32=416

Answer: x=68° because this triangle is a isoscele triangle which means that it haves 2 sides that are congruent and equivalent which means they have the same value and sides and are Congruent just means In geometry, two figures or objects are congruent if they have the same shape and size, or if one has the same shape and size as the mirror image of the other.

The value of angle [x] is equivalent to 44°.

We have a triangle as shown.

We know, the angles opposite to equal sides are equal.

So, we can write -

x + 68° + 68° = 180°

x = 180° - (136°)

x = 44°

Therefore, the value of angle [x] is equivalent to 44°.

To solve more questions on 2 -D figures, visit the link below-

brainly.com/question/25950519

#SPJ2

Answer:

254.47

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:  No.

Step-by-step explanation: Unless the tenth place is a 0, a product of a 2 numbers with 1 decimal place cannot have a product for a whole number, even if you went on forever.

When two decimal places add up to one whole, the total of the two decimal places is a whole number. The addition of relocating the decimal point after the multiplication when multiplying decimals is the only difference between multiplying whole numbers and multiplying decimals.

To learn more about decimal refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/703656

#SPJ2

Answer:

[tex]CF<BC<BF[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]As\ we\ know\ that,\\The\ longest\ side\ in\ a\ triangle\ is\ the\ side\ opposite\ to\ the\ largest\ angle.\\Here\ in\ \triangle BCF,\\\angle B=52\\\angle C=65\\\angle F=63 [Angle\ Sum\ Property\ Of\ A\ Triangle]\\Hence,\\As\ we\ can\ observe\ that\ \angle C\ is\ the\ largest\ followed\ be\ \angle\ F\ and\ \angle B. \\BF\ is\ the\ longest side\ followed\ by\ BC\ and\ CF.\\Hence, \\BF>BC>CF\\Or,\\CF<BC<BF[/tex]

Answer:

I think that it is B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D= Independent variable

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The selling price  = $36

Step-by-step explanation:

So

Percent Markup on Cost  (M) = 200% of 12

                                                = 200/100 × 12

                                                = 2 × 12

                                                = $24

Thus the selling price  =  Cost (C) + Markup (M)

                                      = $12 + $24

                                      = $36

Therefore, we conclude that:

The selling price  = $36

Answer:

The answer to the nearest CENT is A= 11699.69

The amount of money would be $11.4 in the account after 19 years.

Compound interest is defined as interest paid on the original principal and the interest earned on the interest of the principal.

A = P(1+r/100)ⁿ

Where:

A = the future value of the investment or loan

P = the principal investment or loan amount

r = the interest rate (decimal)

n = the number of compound periods

Given that Piper invested $4.700 in an account paying an interest rate of 4.8% compounded continuously.

p = $4.700

r =4.8%

t = 19 years

A = P(1+r/100)ⁿ

Substitute the values of p,r, and t in the formula,

A = 4.700 (1 + 4.8/100)¹⁹

A = 4.700 (1 + 0.048)¹⁹

A = 4.700 (1.048)¹⁹

A = 11.454133

Rounded to the nearest cent

A = 11.4

Therefore, the amount of money would be $11.4 in the account after 19 years.

To learn more about Compound interest click here:

brainly.com/question/25857212

#SPJ2

Answer:

The area of the rectangle will be:

[tex]A=18x^6+48x^5+6x^4[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

We know that Area of the rectangle

A=wl

  = (3x³+8x²+x) × (6x³)

  [tex]=\left(6x^3\right)\times \:3x^3+\left(6x^3\right)\times \:8x^2+\left(6x^3\right)x[/tex]

  [tex]=3x^3\left(6x^3\right)+8x^2\left(6x^3\right)+x\left(6x^3\right)[/tex]

  [tex]=18x^6+48x^5+6x^4[/tex]

Thus, the area of the rectangle will be:

[tex]A=18x^6+48x^5+6x^4[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

43min=3miles

93min=3*93=279/43

austin will walk 6.488miles for 93 minutes

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Angles that form a straight line ( add up to 180 ) are supplementary

angles 1 and 2 / 3 and 4 / 5 and 6 /angles 7 and 8 are all supplementary

Angles 1 and 7 are congruent angles

so angle 2 = 125

Subtract 125 from 180 = 55

180 - 125 = 55 degrees

Answer:

3/4+1/4=4/4=1

1+ 1/2=1 1/2 cups

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 1,176

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1. 50℅

2. 25℅

3. 60℅

hope it helps.

Answer:

Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Divide 15 by 30 which is  1/2.

Then multiply 1/2 by 100 = 50%.

2.  3/12 = 1/4

1/4 * 100 = 25%

3.  6/10 = 0.6

0.6 * 100 = 60%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Marie had 160

Josh has 150

Trey has 600

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

The first part is Linear and 2. The second part is exponential and 3.

The first graph is linear and they are asking for "2" in the bottom answer box because it grows by 2 every time.

The second graph is exponential growth and they are asking for "3" in the bottom box.

Have a terrific day, Hope this helps!!

Answer:

i think its j

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-13

Step-by-step explanation:

Because

10x - 4y = 5 (if it requires shorten)

Step-by-step explanation:

x + y/5 - 1 = y - x

<=> (5x + y - 1.5)/5 = 5(y - x)/5

<=> 5x + y - 5 = 5y - 5x

<=> 5x + 5x + y - 5y = 5

<=> 10x - 4y = 5

Answer:4(3x +2)

Step-by-step explanation:

The expressions represent the cost, in dollars, for 4 people to go horseback riding for 3 hours each is  4(3x + 2).

A numerical expression is a mathematical statement written in the form of numbers and unknown variables. We can form numerical expressions from statements.

Given, The total cost to go horseback riding is a dollar per hour plus a $2 fee for renting a helmet.

Let, The number of hours is represented by 'x'.

Therefore, The cost of riding with a helmet is,

= x + 2.

The cost of riding for 3 hours is 3x + 2 and the cost for 4 people is doing the same is, 4(3x + 2).

learn more about numerical expressions here :

https://brainly.com/question/29199574

#SPJ5

Answer:

A 18

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = 4x + 10

f(2) = 4(2) + 10

f(2) = 8 + 10

f(2) = 18

18 money will he make for 2 hours of babysitting work

A relation is a function if it has only One y-value for each x-value.

Given,

function f(x) = 4x + 10

The function models the amount of money Francis makes when babysitting for x hours.

We need to find the money he make for 2 hours of babysitting work.

To find this we just need to plug in x value as 2 in function

f(2)=4(2)+10

=8+10

18

Hence, 18 money will he make for 2 hours of babysitting work

To learn more on Functions click:

https://brainly.com/question/21145944

#SPJ6

♡ Answer ♡

G) 1/12

♡ Step-by-step explanation ♡

  In order to figure out this problem, we have to take a few relatively simple steps.

  First, we must count the total number of coins in the cash register. Do not change the value of these coins. Simply take the numbers listed in the problem and add them up. Your process for completing this step should look something like this: 10+11+13+6 equals 40. With this being said, there are 40 coins in the cash register.

  Next, we must remember the values of the two coins the question is asking for: pennies and dimes. Keep in mind that, out of all 40 coins, 10 of them are pennies and 13 of them are dimes.

  Then, we write the fractions used to find the answer to this problem. In the question, the cashier (hypothetically) draws a penny first, and then a dime. This means a penny is drawn before a dime is drawn. (Although it seems like a miniscule detail, this knowledge is actually something extremely important to remember. This small piece of information can actually change the entire answer if not used properly.)

  In this problem, the cashier would choose a single penny out of the 10 in contrast to the total 40 coins. Since there are 10 pennies overall, and 40 coins overall, the probability of choosing a penny first is 10/40.

  After we complete the probability of choosing a penny before all else, we must find the probability of choosing a dime after choosing a penny. Since the dime will be chosen after the penny is chosen, one coin will be gone: the chosen penny. So, the total amount of coins within the cash register changes (or more specifically decreases (by 1)) from 40 to 39. However, the amount of dimes, 13, stays the same. With this information in mind, we can write a fraction of 13/39 for the probability of choosing a dime after choosing a penny.

  Finally, now that we have both probability fractions, we can figure out the answer to the question. In order to do this, we multiply and simplify both fractions. 10/40*13/39 is 130/1560. 130 ÷ 130 is 1. 1560 ÷ 130 is 12. 1 ÷ 12 can also be written as 1/12. Therefore, the answer to this problem is G) 1/12.

(The paragraph and author's note below are technically optional thought processes and information, but read them if you wish. Although I would recommend reading further, considering another way to solve the question is mentioned, it is entirely you (the reader's) choice.)

  You can also check this answer through the other/alternate way of solving this problem: by simplifying both probability fractions before you multiply them. 10/40 can be simplified to 1/4. 13/39 can be simplified to 1/3. After doing this, we multiply both simplified probability fractions in order to find, or in this case check, the answer. 1/4*1/3 is 1/12. 1/12 is the same fraction as the one present in choice G. This is the same answer as the one we previously got. This enforces the idea that G) 1/12 is indeed the answer to this question.

  A/N (Author's Note): Although it took quite a while to jot down, this was truly a blast to write and explain! I hope this helped those that needed/wanted it. Have a wonderful week reader(s)!

Answer:

divide 19400000 and 51000

answer will be 380.39