Answer:
E)direct salesforce
Explanation:
Direct sales force are those network of distributors that business set up to sell their products for great returns, it involves selling out of business product using non- retailing setting. For instance Xerox sales force is divided into four geographic organizations: the United States/Canada, Europe, Global Accounts, and Developing Markets. Within each geographic area, the majority of Xerox products and services are typically sold through its direct salesforce
Sandra goes into her favorite shoe store where they are holding a special sales promotion. The salesperson explains to Sandra that if she purchases one pair of shoes, she would receive a free pair of socks. Which type of sales
promotion is this?
NEED ASAPPP ITS AN EXAM..
Answer:
Premium
Explanation:
A premium type of sales promotion is this. Thus, option B is correct.
Who is a salesperson?
The salesman is in charge of welcoming clients, guiding them toward the merchandise they need, and counting up transactions. You need to be a great communicator if you want to succeed in sales. A successful salesman achieves sales goals while being courteous and helpful to consumers.
The salesman is in charge of welcoming clients, guiding them toward the merchandise they need, and counting up transactions. You need to be a great communicator if you want to succeed in sales. A successful salesman achieves sales goals while being courteous and helpful to consumers.
With the confirmation of purchase, you can receive a reward for nothing or for minimal shipping as well as a handling fee. Therefore, option B is the correct option.
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Short Company purchased land by paying $22,000 cash on the purchase date and agreed to pay $22,000 for each of the next seven years beginning one-year from the purchase date. Short's incremental borrowing rate is 10%. On the balance sheet as of the purchase date, after the initial $22,000 payment was made, the liability reported is closest to: (FV of $1, PV of $1, FVA of $1, and PVA of $1) (Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided.)
Answer:
The liability reported is closest to $107,105.21.
Explanation:
This can be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:
PV = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)
Where;
PV = Present value or the the liability reported =?
P = Annuity payment = $22,000
r = Student's desired return rate = 10%, or 0.10
n = number of years = 7
Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:
PV = $22,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.10))^7) / 0.10)
PV = $22,000 * 4.86841881769293
PV = $107,105.21
Therefore, the liability reported is closest to $107,105.21.
Susan won $2,000 at the blackjack tables on her birthday. Her winnings are an example of:________.
a. an in-kind transfer.
b. transitory income.
c. life-cycle income.
d. permanent income.
Answer:
B. Transitory income.
Explanation:
As the name sounds, it is seen to be a form of income that is said to be anticipated. This form of income does not play key roles in the standard of living of the said person. This income is clearly a short-lived kind as it cannot hold a person or family towards a certified period of time. Also in many cases, economists are seen to believe that people base their consumption on their permanent income, therefore, inequality in consumption is one gauge of inequality of permanent income; making consumption less effectective, as transitory changes in income, they are more equally is current income.
During the 1970s, some economists argued that the cause of the woes of the economy were due to __________. g
Explanation:
Stagflation. Which is stagnant growth combined with inflation. Which was caused in large part by repeated disruptions to global oil supplies, which led to soaring prices and gasoline shortages in the United States.
The Treasury bill rate is 6%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 10%. According to the capital asset pricing model:________
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
Your question is not complete. Here is the completed question:
The Treasury bill rate is 6%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 10%. According to the capital asset pricing model, what is the risk premium?
The risk premium will be the difference between the market portfolio and the treasury bill rate. This will be:
= 10% - 6%
= 4%
Grey, Inc., uses a predetermined rate to apply overhead. At the beginning of the year, Grey budgeted its overhead costs at $220,000, direct labor hours at 55,000, and machine hours at 20,000. Actual overhead costs incurred were $233,250, actual direct labor hours were 62,000, and actual machine hours were 15,000. If the PDOH rate uses machine hours as the cost driver, what is the total amount credited to the overhead account control account
Answer:
$165,000
Explanation:
Calculation for what is the total amount credited to the manufacturing overhead account for the year for Grey
First step is to calculate Predetermined overhead rate using this formula
Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated overhead costs / Estimated machine hours
Let plug in the formula
Predetermined overhead rate = $220,000 / 20,000 machine hours
Predetermined overhead rate= $11
Second step is to calculate Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey
Using this formula
Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey = Predetermined overhead rate × Actual machine hours
Let plug in the formula
Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey= $11 × 15,000 machine hours
Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey = $165,000
Therefore the Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey will be $165,000
Orlando Company, which applies overhead to production on the basis of machine hours, reported the following data for the period just ended: Actual units produced: 12,000 Actual variable overhead incurred: $77,700 Actual machine hours worked: 18,800 Standard variable overhead cost per machine hour: $4.50 If Orlando estimates 1.5 hours to manufacture a completed unit, the company's variable-overhead spending variance is:
Answer:
$37,600 favorable
Explanation:
Variable overhead spending variance can be computed as;
= (Actual hours worked × Actual variable overhead rate) - ( Actual hours worked - Standard variable overhead rate)
= ( 18,800 hours × $77,700/12,000) - (18,800 hours × $4.5)
= [(18,800 × $6.5) - (18,800 × $4.5)]
= $122,200 - $84,600
= $37,600 favorable