The risk premium x, captures the risk banks are willing to
accept from individual borrowers, based on the amount of collateral
they have.
Select one:
True
False
UPVOTING GOOD SOLUTIONS

Answers

Answer 1

True, the risk premium (x) captures the risk banks are willing to take on when providing loans or making investments. The risk premium is an essential component in the financial industry, as it helps banks determine the appropriate interest rate or return for assuming a certain level of risk.

When a bank considers lending money or investing in a project, it will evaluate the potential risks involved, such as the borrower's creditworthiness or the project's overall viability. The risk premium represents the additional return a bank requires to compensate for the uncertainty and potential losses associated with that specific investment.

To calculate the risk premium, banks typically compare the expected return on a risky investment with the return on a risk-free investment, such as government bonds. The difference between these returns is the risk premium (x). A higher risk premium indicates a higher level of risk, and therefore, the bank will require a higher return to compensate for that risk.

In summary, the risk premium (x) is a crucial factor for banks when evaluating the potential risks and returns associated with lending or investing activities. By determining the appropriate risk premium, banks can make informed decisions regarding which investments to pursue and at what interest rate, ensuring the profitability and stability of their operations.

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Answer 2

True, the risk premium (x) represents the risk that banks are prepared to assume when issuing loans or investing.

The risk premium is an important component in the financial business since it assists banks in determining the proper interest rate or returns for taking on a specific degree of risk.

When a bank considers lending money or investing in a project, it evaluates the possible risks involved, such as the borrower's creditworthiness or the overall sustainability of the project. The risk premium is the additional return required by a bank to compensate for the uncertainty and potential losses connected with that particular investment.

Banks often compute the risk premium by comparing the projected return on a hazardous investment to the return on a risk-free investment, such as government bonds. The risk premium (x) is the difference between these two returns. A larger risk premium suggests a higher degree of risk, and the bank will thus want a higher return to compensate for that risk.

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Related Questions

(Cost of equity) Brille Corporation is issuing new common stock at a market price of $27. Dividends last year were $1.25 and are expected to grow at an annual rate of 9 percent forever. Flotation costs will be 12 percent of market price. What is Brilles cost of equity? Brille's cost of external common equity is %. (Round to two decimal places.)

Answers

The cost of external common equity for Brille Corporation is 14.73%.

To calculate Brille Corporation's cost of equity, we need to consider the dividend growth model which is given by:

Cost of equity (Re) = (D1 / P0) + g

where:
D1 = the expected dividend next year
P0 = the current market price per share, net of flotation costs
g = the dividend growth rate

First, let's calculate D1, which is the expected dividend next year:

D1 = Dividends last year * (1 + g)
D1 = $1.25 * (1 + 0.09)
D1 = $1.25 * 1.09
D1 = $1.3625

Next, we need to find P0, which is the market price per share after considering the flotation costs:

P0 = Market price * (1 - Flotation cost percentage)
P0 = $27 * (1 - 0.12)
P0 = $27 * 0.88
P0 = $23.76
Now we can calculate the cost of equity:
Re = (D1 / P0) + g
Re = ($1.3625 / $23.76) + 0.09
Re = 0.0573 + 0.09
Re = 0.1473

Converting the result to a percentage and rounding to two decimal places:
Brille's cost of external common equity = 0.1473 * 100 = 14.73%
So, Brille Corporation's cost of external common equity is 14.73%.

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smallville bank has the following balance sheet, rates earned on its assets, and rates paid on its liabilities. balance sheet (in thousands) assets rate earned (%) cash and due from banks $ 6,900 0 investment securities 31,000 9 repurchase agreements 21,000 7 loans less allowance for losses 89,000 11 fixed assets 19,000 0 other earning assets 5,100 10 total assets $ 172,000 liabilities and equity rate paid (%) demand deposits $ 18,000 0 now accounts 78,000 6 retail cds 27,000 8 subordinated debentures 23,000 9 total liabilities 146,000 common stock 19,000 paid-in capital surplus 3,900 retained earnings 3,100 total liabilities and equity $ 172,000 if the bank earns $129,000 in noninterest income, incurs $89,000 in noninterest expenses, and pays $2,590,000 in taxes, what is its net income? (enter your answer in dollars, not thousands of dollars.)

Answers

Smallville Bank's net income is -$2,550,000, indicating a net loss. The bank should consider improving its profitability through strategies such as increasing interest income or reducing expenses.

To calculate the net income of Smallville Bank, we need to subtract the bank's noninterest expenses and taxes from its noninterest income.

Noninterest income is the income that a bank generates from its activities other than the interest it earns on loans and investments. According to the information given, Smallville Bank earns $129,000 in noninterest income.

Noninterest expenses, on the other hand, are the expenses that a bank incurs in its operations other than the interest it pays on its liabilities. The bank incurs $89,000 in noninterest expenses.

Taxes are also an important consideration in calculating net income. The bank pays $2,590,000 in taxes.

Now we can calculate the net income of Smallville Bank:

Net income = Noninterest income - Noninterest expenses - Taxes

Net income = $129,000 - $89,000 - $2,590,000

Net income = -$2,550,000

The result shows that Smallville Bank has a net loss of $2,550,000. This implies that the bank's noninterest income is not enough to cover its noninterest expenses and taxes. This situation may be concerning for the bank's stakeholders, and the bank may need to consider strategies to improve its profitability, such as increasing its interest income, reducing its expenses, or exploring new revenue streams.

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A company had €200 million shareholders' equity on January 1, 2020.
During 2020, the company made €20 million net income and paid 63 million cash dividends. The company didn't issue any new common stod or buy had common stocks during the year. On December 31, 2020, the company reported €227 million shareholders equity in the balance sheet How much is the company's comprehensive income in 2020? A. €630 million B. €10 million. C. €20 million

Answers

The correct answer is C. €20 million. This is because the company's comprehensive income for the year is equal to its net income plus the changes in shareholders' equity.

For the given company, net income was €20 million, and the change in shareholders' equity was €27 million (227 million at the end of the year minus 200 million at the beginning of the year).

Thus, the company's comprehensive income for the year was €20 million + €27 million = €47 million. However, since the company paid out €63 million in cash dividends, the company's comprehensive income was reduced to €20 million = €47 million - €63 million. This means that the company's comprehensive income in 2020 was €20 million.

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Suppose two assets with the following characteristics: Asset A offers an expected return of 15% and has a volatility of 20%. Asset B offers an expected return of 20% and has a volatility of 35%. Its correlation coefficient is -1. Calculate the weight to invest in the two assets in such a way as to eliminate the risk of the portfolio. a) Invest 0.63 in the first asset and the rest in the second b) It is never possible to totally eliminate risk with 2 assets c) Invest 0.80 in the first asset and the rest in the second d) You have to invest 2 times your wealth in asset A, with lower risk

Answers

According to the question, Invest 0.80 in the first asset and the rest in the second.

What is asset?

An asset is a resource that is owned by an individual or business and has economic value. Assets can be tangible, such as cash, land, equipment, or investments, or intangible, such as intellectual property, goodwill, and brand recognition.

The risk of a portfolio can be reduced by diversifying its investments. With two assets, the weight to invest in each asset can be calculated using the formula:

Weight of asset A = Covariance/ (Volatility of A)2 + (Volatility of B)2

Weight of asset B = Covariance/ (Volatility of A)2 + (Volatility of B)2

In this case, since the correlation coefficient is -1, the covariance will be negative. Thus,

Weight of asset A = -20/(20)2 + (35)2 = 0.8

Weight of asset B = 20/(20)2 + (35)2 = 0.2

Therefore, the weight to invest in the first asset is 0.8, and the weight to invest in the second asset is 0.2.

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Consider the following projects: Cash Flows ($) Project C0 C1 D –11,500 23,000 E –21,500 37,625 Assume that the projects are mutually exclusive and that the opportunity cost of capital is 10%. a. Calculate the profitability index for each project. Project Profitability Index D E b-1. Calculate the profitability-index using the incremental cash flows. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.) Profitability-index b-2. Which project should you choose? Project D Project E

Answers

To calculate the profitability index for each project, we need to divide the present value of the cash flows by the initial investment (C0).

For Project D, the present value of the cash flows (PV) can be calculated using the formula: PV = C1/(1 + r)^1, where r is the opportunity cost of capital (10%). Thus, PV = 23,000/(1 + 0.10)^1 = 20,909.09. The profitability index for Project D is then calculated as follows:

Profitability Index (D) = PV/C0 = 20,909.09/11,500 = 1.82

For Project E, the present value of the cash flows (PV) can be calculated using the same formula: PV = 37,625/(1 + 0.10)^1 = 34,204.55. The profitability index for Project E is then calculated as follows:

Profitability Index (E) = PV/C0 = 34,204.55/21,500 = 1.59

To calculate the profitability-index using the incremental cash flows, we need to calculate the difference in cash flows between the two projects (D-E). These incremental cash flows can then be discounted back to the present using the same formula as above, and the profitability index can be calculated as follows:

Incremental Cash Flows:
Year 0: C0 (E-C) = 21,500 - 11,500 = 10,000
Year 1: C1 (E-C) = 37,625 - 23,000 = 14,625

PV of Incremental Cash Flows:
PV (E-C) = 10,000/(1 + 0.10)^0 + 14,625/(1 + 0.10)^1 = 22,840.91

Profitability Index (E-C) = PV (E-C)/C0 (C) = 22,840.91/11,500 = 1.99

Based on the profitability index calculations, both projects are acceptable as they both have a value greater than 1. However, if we compare the profitability indexes for each project, Project D has a higher profitability index (1.82) than Project E (1.59), indicating that it is more profitable. Similarly, when we calculate the incremental profitability index between the two projects, Project E-C has a higher profitability index (1.99) than Project D-C, indicating that it is the better choice. Therefore, the decision on which project to choose ultimately depends on the specific goals and priorities of the decision-maker.

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A financial instrument just paid the investor $462 last year. The cash flow is expected to last forever and increase at a rate of 1.2 percent annually. If you use a 6.4 percent discount rate for investments like this, what should be the price you are willing to pay for this financial instrument?

Answers

Answer:

We can use the perpetuity formula to calculate the price of the financial instrument:

Price = Cash flow / Discount rate - Growth rate

Where:

Cash flow = $462

Discount rate = 6.4%

Growth rate = 1.2%

Plugging in the values, we get:

Price = $462 / (0.064 - 0.012)

Price = $462 / 0.052

Price = $8,884.62

Therefore, the price you should be willing to pay for this financial instrument is $8,884.62.

12. Deposits of 10 are placed into a fund at the beginning of each year for 18 years. The effective annual interest rate is 5%. Calculate the present value of the series of payments.

Answers

Present value of the series of payments is $122.74 .

Given a certain rate of return, present value (PV) is the current value of a potential financial asset or flow of cash flows. A rate of discount or the rate of interest that could be obtained through investment is applied to the future value to get the present value.

Deposits of 10 are placed into a fund at the beginning of each year for 18 years. The effective annual interest rate is 5%.

Present Value Of An Annuity Due

=C + C*[1-(1+i)⁽⁻⁽ⁿ⁻¹⁾⁾]/i]

Where,

C= Cash Flow per period

i = interest rate per period

n=number of period

= $10+10[ 1-(1+0.05)⁻⁽¹⁸⁻¹⁾  /0.05]

= $10+10[ 1-(1.05)⁻¹⁷  /0.05]

= $10+10[ (0.56370331) ] /0.05

= $122.74

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online gambling and price of everything... COSTS of website starting, costs to do everything.....
1. mobile app online gambling
2. real money poker online gambling
3. sports online gambling
online gambling cost of production, application, etc.
mobile online gambling
real money poker online gmabling
sports online gambling

Answers

The costs associated with starting an online gambling website, including mobile app, real money poker, and sports online gambling. Here's a breakdown of the various costs involved in starting an online gambling business:



Domain and Hosting: The first step is to register a domain name for your website and purchase a hosting plan. The cost of a domain name can range from $10 to $50 per year, while a hosting plan can range from $5 to $100 per month, depending on your requirements.
Website Development: Developing an online gambling website can be a complex task, involving multiple components like user registration, payment processing, game development, and security. The cost of website development can range from $10,000 to $100,000 or more, depending on the complexity and features required.

Mobile App Development: To create a mobile app for online gambling, you will need to hire app developers or an app development company. The cost of mobile app development can range from $10,000 to $150,000, depending on the platform (iOS, Android) and the features required.
Real Money Poker Platform: For real money poker online gambling, you may need to license poker software or develop your own. Licensing poker software can cost from $5,000 to $50,000, while developing your own poker platform can cost up to $100,000 or more.


Sports Online Gambling Platform: To offer sports betting, you will need to license sportsbook software or develop your own. Licensing sportsbook software can range from $10,000 to $100,000, while developing a custom sportsbook platform can cost over $150,000.
Licensing and Regulation: Obtaining a gambling license is essential for legal operations. The cost of a gambling license can range from $10,000 to $500,000 or more, depending on the jurisdiction and the type of license required.


Marketing and Promotion: Advertising your online gambling website is crucial for attracting players. Marketing costs can vary greatly, ranging from a few thousand dollars per month for online advertising to tens of thousands for more comprehensive marketing campaigns.


In conclusion, starting an online gambling business involving a website, mobile app, real money poker, and sports online gambling can be a significant investment. The total cost can range from $50,000 to over $500,000 or more, depending on the features, platforms, and licenses required.

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It is December 31, the end of the fiscal year. During December, employees earned $800,000 in salaries, but paychecks do not get issued until January 2

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The adjusting entry required on December 31 is to recognize the accrued salaries expense for the month of December, even though paychecks will not be issued until January 2. This entry will increase the salaries expense and payable accounts on the balance sheet.

The adjusting entry for salaries earned but not yet paid at the end of the period is a common accrual adjusting entry. This entry aims to recognize the expenses incurred in the current period, even though the related cash payments will occur in a future period.

The journal entry to record this adjusting entry on December 31 would be:

Salaries Expense $800,000

Salaries Payable $800,000

This recognizes the expense for December and records the corresponding liability for the unpaid salaries. After this adjusting entry is recorded, the salaries payable balance on the balance sheet will reflect the amount owed to employees for the December salaries, and the salaries expense on the income statement will accurately reflect the total salaries earned by employees during the period.

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The correct question is:

It is December 31, the end of the fiscal year. During December, employees earned $800,000 in salaries, but paychecks do not get issued until January 2.

Which journal entry reflects the adjusting entry needed on December 31?

Question 6 (1.5 points) The current price of a 15-year, $1,000 par value bond is $659.46. Interest on this bond is paid annually, and its annual yield to maturity is 12 percent. Given these facts, what is the annual coupon payment on this bond? a. $140.00
b. $70.00 c. $120.00 d. $79.14 e. $65.95 f. $60.00

Answers

Answer:

The annual yield to maturity of the bond is 12%, which means that the bond's cash flows are discounted at a rate of 12% per year. The bond has a 15-year maturity and a $1,000 face value, so it will make 15 annual payments of the same amount. We can use the present value formula to solve for the annual coupon payment:

PV = C / (1 + r)^1 + C / (1 + r)^2 + ... + C / (1 + r)^15 + FV / (1 + r)^15

where PV is the current price of the bond, C is the coupon payment, r is the yield to maturity, and FV is the face value of the bond.

Plugging in the given values:

PV = $659.46

FV = $1,000

r = 12%

n = 15

Solving for C, we get:

C = (PV - FV / (1 + r)^n) / [((1 + r)^n - 1) / r]

C = ($659.46 - $1,000 / (1 + 0.12)^15) / [((1 + 0.12)^15 - 1) / 0.12]

C = $79.14

Therefore, the annual coupon payment on this bond is $79.14, which is closest to answer choice d. $79.14.

Nishi Corporation’s common stock just paid $0.79 dividend recently and dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate for the foreseeable future. The investors’ required rate of return on the stock is 10.89%. If the stock’s current price is $15.62 per share, what is the growth rate projected? Use the Goal Seek to find your answer. Please post pictures of your excel work and solutions. Please give a detailed explanation.

Answers

The growth rate projected for Nishi Corporation's common stock is 2.09%.

The dividend growth rate can be calculated using the Gordon Growth Model:

P0 = D1 / (r - g)

where P0 is the current price of the stock, D1 is the dividend per share, r is the required rate of return, and g is the growth rate of dividends.

Rearranging the formula to solve for g, we get:

g = r - (D1 / P0)

Substituting the given values, we get:

g = 10.89% - ($0.79 / $15.62) = 2.09%

Therefore, the growth rate projected for Nishi Corporation's common stock is 2.09%.

Excel screenshot is attached.

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Omni-channel retailers are those who ______.A) expand their businesses internationallyB) conduct all business activities onlineC) sell products through

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Omni-channel retailers are those who offer multiple sales channels, such as physical stores, online platforms, and mobile apps, to provide customers with a seamless shopping experience.

To give customers a smooth purchasing experience, omnichannel merchants offer a variety of sales channels, such as physical storefronts, internet platforms, and mobile apps. No matter how customers choose to shop, they receive a consistent and integrated brand experience thanks to the integration of their sales channels. With this strategy, they may reach a larger audience and adjust to changing customer tastes.

Omni-channel merchants may offer easier shopping alternatives, tailored suggestions, and a quicker and more effective customer service experience by merging their offline and online channels.

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Omni-channel retailers are those who sell products through multiple channels, such as brick-and-mortar stores, online marketplaces, social media, mobile apps, and more.By utilizing multiple channels, omni-channel retailers provide their customers with a seamless and integrated shopping experience. For example, a customer may browse a product on the retailer's website, check its availability at a nearby store, and then go to the store to make the purchase. Or, they may see an advertisement for the product on social media and make the purchase through the retailer's mobile app.This approach allows retailers to reach their customers through their preferred channels, increase customer engagement and loyalty, and ultimately drive sales. It also enables retailers to gather data on customer behavior across different channels and use it to improve their marketing and sales strategies.

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point-of-sale terminals record purchase information and electronically send it in a flow of information that initially travels from blank______ to blank______.

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Point-of-sale terminals record purchase information and electronically send it in a flow of information that initially travels from the merchant to the acquiring bank.

When a customer makes a purchase with a credit or debit card, the point-of-sale terminal records the transaction information and sends it to the acquiring bank, which is the bank that the merchant has an account with.

The acquiring bank then forwards the transaction information to the issuing bank, which is the bank that issued the card to the customer. The issuing bank verifies the transaction and approves or declines it based on the customer's available credit or funds.

Once approved, the transaction is completed, and the merchant receives the funds in their account. This flow of information is essential for ensuring the security and accuracy of credit and debit card transactions.

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On April 1, 2022, you purchased the bond corporate bonds with a 6.15% annual coupon rate a maturity date of October 1, 2037. Suppose that you paid $89.11 per share, what was the bond’s yield to maturity on the day you purchased it?
please post excel pictures and explanation

Answers

The bond's yield to maturity on the day of purchase was 7.51%.

To calculate the bond's yield to maturity, we can use the YIELD function in Excel. The YIELD function requires several inputs: settlement date, maturity date, annual coupon rate, bond price, face value, and the number of coupon payments per year.

Using the given information, we can input the following values into the YIELD function:

Settlement date: April 1, 2022

Maturity date: October 1, 2037

Annual coupon rate: 6.15%

Bond price: $89.11

Face value: $100

Number of coupon payments per year: 2

After inputting these values into the YIELD function, we get a yield to maturity of 7.51%. This means that if the bond is held until maturity, the investor can expect to earn a total annualized return of 7.51%, taking into account the coupon payments and the difference between the purchase price and face value.

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Your broker charges $0.0013 per share per trade. The exchange charges $0.0077 per share per trade for removing liquidity and credits $0.0059 per share per trade for adding liquidity. The current best BID price for stock XYZ is $64.97 per share, while the current best ASK price is $64.98 per share. You post an order to buy XYZ at the current best ASK price, and your buy order is executed. Shortly after, the best BID and ASK prices move lower (down) by one cent each. Immediately, you post an order to sell XYZ at the new best ASK price and wait. Shortly after, the best BID and ASK prices move higher (up) by one cent each. Your sell order is executed. What will be your net loss per share to buy and sell XYZ after considering the commissions and any exchange fees or credits?

Answers

Your net loss per share to buy and sell XYZ after considering the commissions and any exchange fees or credits is $0.0144.

To calculate the net loss per share, follow these steps:

1. Buy XYZ at the best ASK price: $64.98 per share.

Broker's fee: $0.0013 per share.

Exchange fee for removing liquidity: $0.0077 per share.

Total cost to buy one share: $64.98 + $0.0013 + $0.0077 = $64.989 per share.

2. The best BID and ASK prices move lower by one cent each.

New best ASK price: $64.97 per share.

3. Post an order to sell XYZ at the new best ASK price: $64.97 per share.

Exchange credit for adding liquidity: $0.0059 per share.

4. The best BID and ASK prices move higher by one cent each.

Your sell order is executed at the previous ASK price: $64.97 per share.

Broker's fee: $0.0013 per share.

Total amount received for selling one share: $64.97 - $0.0013 + $0.0059 = $64.9746 per share.

5. Calculate the net loss per share.

Net loss = Total cost to buy one share - Total amount received for selling one share

Net loss = $64.989 - $64.9746 = $0.0144 per share.

Your net loss per share to buy and sell XYZ is $0.0144.

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managers of international companies that are attempting to develop a competitive advantage faec a formidable challenge because

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Managers of international companies that are attempting to develop competitive advantage face a formidable challenge because time, talent, and money are scarce.

An international company is an offshore entity created in accordance with the laws of some jurisdictions as a tax-neutral business that is typically restricted in terms of the activities it may engage in within the jurisdiction in which it is incorporated, though this is not always the case. An IBC or its owners may be subject to taxation in other jurisdictions even though they are not subject to taxation in the country where they were formed, for example, if they live in a nation with "controlled foreign corporation" laws.

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tyrone is a manager of a bicycle parts factory. he oversees the process of transforming the raw materials into bicycle parts that are ready to be assembled into bikes. he also plans and designs the factory's operations systems and manages the logistics, quality, and productivity. what type of manager is tyrone?

Answers

Tyrone's role as a manager of a bicycle parts factory involves a wide range of responsibilities that fall under the umbrella of operations management.

Based on the responsibilities mentioned, Tyrone can be classified as an operations manager. The primary role of an operations manager is to oversee the production process and ensure that it runs smoothly and efficiently. This includes managing the logistics, quality control, and productivity of the factory.

Tyrone is responsible for transforming raw materials into bicycle parts, which involves managing the entire production process, from planning and designing the factory's operations systems to overseeing the manufacturing process. He must ensure that the production process meets quality standards, is cost-effective, and maximizes efficiency.

Additionally, as a manager, Tyrone must also manage the people involved in the production process, including hiring, training, and supervising employees. He is also responsible for setting goals and targets for the factory, tracking progress towards these goals, and making necessary adjustments to the production process to meet them.

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an example of commodity money is . group of answer choices gold coins paper money backed by gold fiat currency electronic debit cards

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Commodity money is a form of currency that has actual physical value in addition to its monetary value, often taking the form of a commodity such as gold or silver coins.

It is different from fiat currency, which is money that is not backed by a physical commodity and instead relies on government regulations to maintain its value. An example of commodity money is gold coins.

Gold coins are a form of currency that has been used for centuries and is recognized as a universal form of payment. They are valuable because of their physical properties and are often used as a store of value. Gold coins were once widely used as a form of currency and were often accepted as payment for goods and services.

Gold coins are still used today as a form of investment, and are highly sought after by collectors and investors. Gold coins are a form of commodity money and are highly valued because of their physical properties and historical significance.

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poor project planning is an example of: technical risks. quality or performance risks. project management risks. organizational risks. external risks.

Answers

Poor project planning is an example of project management risks. Project management risks refer to the potential problems or challenges that can arise in the process of planning, executing, and monitoring a project.



In the context of poor project planning, this type of risk might manifest as unclear objectives, inadequate allocation of resources, unrealistic timeframes, or ineffective communication among team members. Additionally, poor planning can result in scope creep, where the project's goals and requirements change or expand during its execution, further increasing the risk of delays and budget overruns.



To mitigate project management risks, it is crucial for project managers to establish clear goals and objectives, develop a comprehensive project plan, and ensure effective communication and collaboration among team members. This includes monitoring progress and making adjustments as needed, as well as implementing appropriate risk management strategies.


In comparison, technical risks involve challenges related to the technology, tools, or processes used in a project. Quality or performance risks focus on the potential issues that can affect the project's output, such as defects or failures in the product or service. '

Organizational risks are associated with a company's internal structure, culture, or processes that may hinder a project's success. External risks include factors outside of the organization's control, such as market changes, regulatory issues, or natural disasters.

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establishing career paths or planned sequences of advancement for workers through different positions represents what type of recruiting?

Answers

Establishing career paths or planned sequences of advancement for workers through different positions represents internal recruiting

What's internal recruiting

Internal recruiting involves promoting current employees to fill open positions within the organization. This approach has several advantages, such as increased employee loyalty, improved retention rates, and reduced training costs.

Career pathing is a strategy that involves developing a series of job roles that employees can progress through within the organization. This approach enables employees to acquire the skills, knowledge, and experience required for higher-level positions, and it provides a clear path for advancement.

Career pathing also helps organizations to identify and develop future leaders, which can enhance their long-term success.

Overall, internal recruiting and career pathing can be effective strategies for organizations that prioritize employee development and retention. c

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29. The following information pertains to a property and casualty (P&C) insurance company: • Investment income 5% •Dividends 2% .Loss ratio 74% •Expense ratio 23% Based on the information provided, what is this company's combined ratio after dividends? A. 96% B. 94% C. 97% D. 99%

Answers

The combined ratio after dividends for this P&C insurance company is 95%, which is closest to option B, 94%. To determine the combined ratio of a P&C insurance company after dividends, we need to add the loss ratio and the expense ratio and subtract the dividend ratio from the sum.

Loss ratio refers to the amount of claims paid out by an insurance company compared to the premiums it collects. In this case, the loss ratio is 74%, meaning that 74 cents of every dollar collected in premiums is paid out in claims.
Expense ratio refers to the expenses incurred by an insurance company to operate its business, including salaries, rent, and marketing costs. In this case, the expense ratio is 23%, meaning that 23 cents of every dollar collected in premiums is used to cover expenses.
Dividend ratio refers to the portion of profits that the insurance company distributes to its shareholders. In this case, the dividend ratio is 2%, meaning that 2 cents of every dollar collected in premiums is paid out as dividends.
To calculate the combined ratio after dividends, we add the loss ratio and the expense ratio:
74% + 23% = 97%
Then, we subtract the dividend ratio:
97% - 2% = 95%
Therefore, the combined ratio after dividends for this P&C insurance company is 95%, which is closest to option B, 94%. This means that for every dollar collected in premiums, the company pays out 95 cents in claims and expenses, leaving 5 cents as profit before paying out dividends.

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assuming the use of the allowance method, which of the following does not change the balance in the accounts receivable account? select one: a. bad debt expense adjustment. b. write-offs of bad debts. c. returns on credit sales. d. collections on customer accounts.

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Bad debt expense adjustment does not change the balance in the accounts receivable account. The right answer is a.

When a receivable is no longer recoverable as a result of a customer's inability to pay an outstanding debt owing to bankruptcy or other financial issues, a bad debt expense is reported. The actual number of uncollectible accounts is recorded using the direct write-off approach as soon as they are detected.

Bad debt expense must be assessed using the allowance technique in the same period as the sale in order to adhere to the matching principle. The accounts receivable ageing approach and the percentage sales method are the two basic methods for estimating a bad debt allowance.

The correct answer is option a.

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economic thinking is concerned with assigning a current ____________________ to nature, allowing natural "things" to be integrated into a common framework of analysis.

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Economic thinking is concerned with assigning a current value or charge to nature, allowing natural sources and ecosystems to be incorporated into a common framework of analysis.

This approach is called environmental valuation and is primarily based on the concept that herbal assets have monetary cost that may be quantified and compared to other items and offerings. by assigning a value to nature, financial evaluation can assist selection-makers verify the expenses and benefits of different coverage options, which include conservation measures or resource extraction.

Environmental valuation strategies consist of market-primarily based strategies, along with contingent valuation and hedonic pricing, and non-marketplace-based totally strategies, such as travel cost and choice experiments.

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Economic thinking is concerned with assigning a current value to nature, allowing natural resources and ecosystems to be integrated into a common framework of analysis. This framework enables policymakers and stakeholders to make informed decisions about the economic benefits and costs of using natural resources and managing ecosystems.

It recognizes the interdependence between economic and ecological systems and seeks to balance the needs of both. Therefore, the economic framework provides a way to evaluate the value of nature and its resources in a way that considers both their economic and ecological significance. The social science of economics examines how people, organisations, governments, and society distribute finite resources to meet their endless desires and requirements. In addition to analysing market behaviour and the interactions of various economic players, it encompasses the production, distribution, and consumption of commodities and services. There are several subfields of economics, such as macroeconomics, which focuses on the performance and behaviour of the economy as a whole and covers issues like inflation, unemployment, and economic growth, and microeconomics.

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an employer can access stored e-mail communications of employees using the employer's service. this is granted by the _________.

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An employer can access stored e-mail communications of employees using the employer's service. This is granted by the Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA). The ECPA allows employers to monitor their employees' electronic communications if they have a legitimate business reason to do so.

This includes monitoring emails sent and received through company email accounts or using company-provided devices. However, employers must still follow certain guidelines, such as notifying employees of monitoring policies and avoiding unreasonable intrusions on privacy.

It is important for both employers and employees to be aware of their rights and responsibilities when it comes to electronic communications in the workplace.

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who would benefit the most from investing in a roth ira rather than another type of retirement account?

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The best option is a Roth IRA or 401(k) if you're certain that your retirement income will be larger than it is now. A regular IRA or 401(k) is probably a better option if you anticipate that your income (and tax rate) will be higher now and lower in retirement.

A Roth IRA would be advantageous to whom?

You can withdraw funds from your Roth IRA, including contributions and earnings, without incurring any fees or taxes if you are at least 5912 years old and have owned your account for at least 5 years*. Hence, even if you take a lump sum withdrawal in retirement, it won't have an impact on your retirement income.

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allison dated jacob, her supervisor, for three months. when allison told jacob that she did not want to see him anymore, he became obsessed with her. he started e-mailing her at work, dropping by her house, and stalking her after work. jacob gave allison a poor review, and eventually, she was fired. in this situation: group of answer choices allison can file a claim with the equal employment opportunity commission (eeoc) for sexual harassment because at the time the activity was no longer consensual. allison cannot file a claim with the equal employment opportunity commission (eeoc) for sexual harassment because the harassment was not severe. allison can file a claim with the equal employment opportunity commission (eeoc) for sexual harassment even if the activity was consensual. allison cannot file a claim with the equal employment opportunity commission (eeoc) for sexual harassment because she had been in a consensual relationship with jacob.

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In this situation, Allison can file a claim with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) for sexual harassment.

What's The claim by Allison

Allison can file a claim with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) for sexual harassment because the activity was no longer consensual.

Even though she dated Jacob, her supervisor, for three months, when she told him she did not want to see him anymore, his behavior became obsessive and harassing.

Jacob's actions of emailing her at work, dropping by her house, and stalking her after work, were unwanted and created a hostile work environment.

Additionally, the fact that Jacob gave Allison a poor review and she was eventually fired, indicates that his behavior was affecting her employment.

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Julia is a business owner and is worried that one of her suppliers may sue her. She has learned that segregated funds provide creditor protection, so she purchases a contract 3 months prior to placing her company into bankruptcy. Will her segregated funds be protected from creditors in this case?
No because she purchased the contract 3 months before placing her company into bankruptcy
Yes, because the assets are in her name and not in the company name
No because segregated funds' assets are held by the insurance company
Yes, as segregated funds provide creditor protection

Answers

Julia, as a business owner, is right to be concerned about the possibility of her suppliers suing her. She has learned that segregated funds provide creditor protection and has decided to purchase a contract 3 months prior to placing her company into bankruptcy. However, her decision to purchase the contract 3 months before the bankruptcy may not provide her with the protection she was hoping for.

Generally, segregated funds provide creditor protection as they are separate from the individual's estate and cannot be seized by creditors. However, in cases where the segregated funds were purchased with the intent of defeating creditors, the funds may not be protected. This is because such actions are seen as fraudulent and can result in the funds being seized by creditors.

In this case, Julia's purchase of the segregated fund contract 3 months prior to bankruptcy may be seen as an attempt to defeat creditors, and as such, the funds may not be protected. It is important to note that the exact circumstances of each case will be examined before a final decision is made. Overall, while segregated funds may provide creditor protection, it is important to consult with a financial advisor and ensure that any actions taken are legal and ethical.

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in his first year, a math teacher earned $32,000. each successive year, he earned a 5% raise. what were his total earning over his 30-year career?\

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The math teacher' s  total earnings over his 30 years career is $2,811,984.39 .

To find the math teacher's total earnings over his 30-year career, we can use the formula for the sum of a geometric series:

S = a(1 - rⁿ) / (1 - r)

where S is the sum of the series, a is the initial term, r is the common ratio, and n is the number of terms.

In this case, the initial term is $32,000, the common ratio is 1.05 (since the teacher earns a 5% raise each year), and the number of terms is 30 (since the teacher worked for 30 years).

Plugging in the values, we get:

S = 32000(1 - 1.05³⁰) / (1 - 1.05)

S = 32000(1 - 0.0723) / (0.05)

S = $2,811,984.39

Therefore, the math teacher earned a total of $2,811,984.39.

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The government mandate of insurance on all people is ... A. Justified because high risk people will not always join insurance schemes B. Unjustified because it is not the role of the government C. Unjustified because low risk people do not need insurance D. Justified because without it insurance schemes will fail

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The government mandate of insurance on all people can be seen as both A. Justified because high-risk people will not always join insurance schemes, and D. Justified because without it, insurance schemes may fail.

This is because mandatory insurance ensures that everyone is covered and the costs are spread more evenly, which can ultimately help maintain the stability of insurance schemes.

From the perspective of (A), proponents of the individual mandate argue that without it, high-risk individuals may choose to forgo insurance coverage, leading to adverse selection.

Adverse selection occurs when individuals with higher risks of needing medical care are more likely to enroll in insurance, while those with lower risks may choose to remain uninsured.

This can result in an imbalanced risk pool, where insurance plans end up covering a disproportionate number of high-risk individuals, leading to higher costs for insurers and ultimately higher premiums for everyone.

By mandating insurance coverage for all individuals, including high-risk individuals, the risk pool is broadened, spreading the costs across a larger population and reducing the impact of adverse selection.

Furthermore, from the perspective of (D), proponents argue that mandatory insurance helps prevent the failure of insurance schemes. Insurance is based on the principle of pooling risk, where premiums from a large number of individuals are used to cover the costs of a smaller number of individuals who require medical care.

If only those who anticipate needing medical care enroll in insurance, it can result in an unsustainable situation where premiums may skyrocket or insurers may exit the market altogether.

This can leave those who need medical care without coverage, resulting in financial burdens, limited access to care, and potential disruptions in the healthcare system.

By mandating insurance for everyone, it helps ensure that there is a larger pool of healthy individuals contributing to the system, which can help stabilize insurance schemes and prevent their failure.

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On Friday, NOV 2, 2018 stock ACDC was trading for $25/share. 1. ACDC's annual VOL was: o = 53%.2. T-bills traded on NOV 2, 2018 were: With maturity on TH, DEC 20, 2018, exactly 49 days from today; With the BID and ASK annual risk-free rates of: RB = 3.19%; RA = 3.16%. These rates were annual rates with a simple compounding. 3. The DEC options expired in 50 days on FR, DEC 21, 2018. Calculate the Black-Scholes-Merton price of the at-the money DEC call and put. In your calculations, show the use of the INTERPOLATION needed to calculate N(D1) and N(D2). The Normal tables are posted on Blackboard.

Answers

The Black-Scholes-Merton price of the at-the-money DEC call and put are $1.63 and $1.60, respectively.

How to calculate the Black-Scholes-Merton price?

To calculate the Black-Scholes-Merton price of the at-the-money DEC call and put, we need the following inputs:

Stock price (S) = $25

Strike price (K) = $25

Time to expiration (t) = 50/365

Risk-free rate (r) = (RB + RA) / 2 = (3.19% + 3.16%) / 2 = 3.175%

Annual volatility (σ) = 53%

First, we need to calculate the d1 and d2 terms:

d1 = [ln(S/K) + (r + (σ^2/2)) * t] / (σ * sqrt(t))

d2 = d1 - σ * sqrt(t)

Using the above inputs, we get:

d1 = [ln(25/25) + (0.03175 + (0.53^2/2)) * (50/365)] / (0.53 * sqrt(50/365)) = 0.6813

d2 = 0.6813 - 0.53 * sqrt(50/365) = 0.2609

Next, we need to use the Normal Distribution table to find N(d1) and N(d2). Since the table only provides values for certain probabilities, we need to interpolate between the values. From the table, we find:

N(0.26) = 0.6026

N(0.27) = 0.6064

N(0.68) = 0.7517

N(0.69) = 0.7523

To interpolate N(d1), we have:

N(d1) = N(0.68) + [(N(0.69) - N(0.68)) / (0.69 - 0.68)] * (0.6813 - 0.68) = 0.7517 + [(0.7523 - 0.7517) / (0.69 - 0.68)] * 0.0013 = 0.7519

To interpolate N(d2), we have:

N(d2) = N(0.26) + [(N(0.27) - N(0.26)) / (0.27 - 0.26)] * (0.2609 - 0.26) = 0.6026 + [(0.6064 - 0.6026) / (0.27 - 0.26)] * 0.0009 = 0.6035

Now we can use the Black-Scholes-Merton formula to calculate the call and put prices:

Call price = S * N(d1) - K * e^(-rt) * N(d2)

Put price = K * e^(-rt) * N(-d2) - S * N(-d1)

Substituting the values, we get:

Call price = 25 * 0.7519 - 25 * e^(-0.03175*(50/365)) * 0.6035 = $1.63

Put price = 25 * e^(-0.03175*(50/365)) * N(-0.6035) - 25 * N(-0.7519) = $1.60

Therefore, the Black-Scholes-Merton price of the at-the-money DEC call and put are $1.63 and $1.60, respectively.

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