Answer:the reactionto a stimulus is called response
Explanation:brainiest please
Answer: The reaction to a stimulus is called response.
Explanation:
Which type of moderately repetitive dna would be least likely to change its location in the genome?.
The least probable type of tRNA gene to move within the genome is one with a somewhat repetitive DNA sequence.
What kind of DNA sequence is seen most frequently in eukaryotic genomes?Abstract. The majority of the nuclear DNA in most eukaryotic genomes is composed of repetitive DNA, which are sequence motifs repeated hundreds or thousands of times throughout the genome.
Is a DNA sequence's specific position known?Repetitive DNA sequences are abundant in eukaryotic genomes and are present in multiple copies (thousands, in some cases). The term "unique-sequence DNA" is used to describe the coding sections of genes, which are normally found in a single copy per haploid genome.
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a no argument constructor that initializes the object with an empty string for the name, address, phone, and customer number. (2 points)
Its name, "Zero Argument Constructor," implies that no arguments are utilized in it.
The No-argument or Zero argument function Object() { [native code] } is a function Object() { [native code] } that accepts no parameters. If we don't define a function Object() { [native code] } in a class, the compiler automatically builds one for the class (with no arguments). Additionally, the compiler does not create a default function Object() { [native code] } if we write a function Object() { [native code] } with arguments or without arguments.
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20 points
Which of the following is a characteristic of sexual reproduction? Select all that apply.
A. Requires two parent organisms
B. Offspring are identical to the parent
C. Results in increasing the survival rate of the population
D. Extremely efficient
E. Can occur internally or externally
F. Offspring are genetically unique
A,E & F
In sexual reproduction two parent are involved, male and female gamete is formed to produce offspring that are genetically unique. This type of reproduction can be found in both plants and animals. It can occur internally or externally.
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question 2 based on the results from your experiment, rank the antibiotics from the most effective to the least in controlling s. epidermidis. 13 word(s) penicillin was the most effective, then novobiocin, and the least was the gentamicin. question 3 how do the results compare to your hypothesis? explain why your hypothesis was/was not supported by the results.
Based on the results from your experiment, rank the antibiotics from the most effective to the least in controlling epidermidis. These aid by halting bacterial growth and infection spread.
A Gram-positive bacterium called S. epidermidis is a component of the flora of humans. Anaerobic bacteria are what it is. It promotes the growth of pathogens that are present in medical equipment. These may enter the bloodstream. Based on the results from your experiment, rank the antibiotics from the most effective to the least in controlling s. epidermidis.Molds produce a class of antibiotics known as penicillium. Actinomycetes produce the antibody known as novobiocin, which has antibacterial characteristics. Gentamicin is one of the antibodies that can treat infections and aid in halting bacterial development.
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what type of cell did you locate outside of the seminiferous tubule? what is the function of these cells?
Sertoli cells which feed the germ cells are found in seminiferous tubules. They create androgens and release them during spermatogenesis.
In Leydig cells, LH stimulates the production of T, whereas FSH stimulates the development of regulatory molecules and the nutrients needed to maintain spermatogenesis in Sertoli cells in conjunction with T. As a result, T and FSH indirectly regulate spermatogenesis via Sertoli cells.
LH-stimulated Leydig cell androgen production is necessary for the development and maintenance of the male reproductive system as well as for spermatogenesis. The testis of newborn boys and adult males after puberty contain a high concentration of interstitial cells of Leydig, which release testosterone. Leydig cells are also referred to as interstitial cells. They are located outside of seminiferous tubules in the interstitial spaces.
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how do we recognize alleles that have recently been favored for selection, as opposed to those that have spread through the population farther in the past? explain your answer.
Natural selection will affect the heritable features of the population by favouring advantageous alleles and so increasing their frequency in the population, while favouring detrimental alleles and thereby decreasing their frequency. Adaptive evolution is the term for this.
A variant of the DNA sequence at a specific genomic site known as an allele may exist in two or more forms. For any chromosomal region where such variation exists, a person inherits two alleles, one from each parent. The person has homozygosity for that allele if the two alleles are identical. According to the definition of an allele given in the top textbooks on genetics and evolution, an allele is a different arrangement of the same nucleotides in the same location on a long DNA molecule.
Adaptive evolution is the process by which an organism undergoes evolutionary modifications to better fit its environment. Increased chances of surviving and procreating are the result of the alterations. The modifications make it possible for that specific creature to adapt to its surroundings. Positive selection allows beneficial mutations to spread, which is how adaptive evolution occurs.
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what was the hormone from set 3? explain your answer, accounting for any increase or decrease in organ sizes.
Hormones serve as chemical bloodstream messengers in your body. They go through the circulation to tissues or organs. They function gradually and have an impact on a variety of processes.
Hormones are chemicals that bloodstream act as messenger molecules in the body. They are made in one part of the body and then travel to other parts to help regulate how cells and organs operate. Pancreatic beta cells, for example, create the hormone insulin.
"Specialized glands create and synthesise hormones, which are substances that are utilised to drive and regulate the functioning of specific cells and organs; these specialised glands are known as endocrine glands."
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The biological levels of organization range from a single organelle all the way up to the biosphere in a highly structured hierarchy. Your lab partner is struggling to understand the interaction between the levels in the biological hierarchy. Using the model, what explanations can your offer to help your classmate? choose all that apply.
Organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems, and biosphere, in that sequence, are the elaborated levels.
An ecosystem is a place where several types of living things coexist to create a bubble of life, including plants, animals, and other species. Ecosystems are made up of both biotic (or alive) and abiotic (or nonliving) components. Plants, animals, and other living things are considered biotic factors. Rocks, temperature, and humidity are examples of abiotic variables. In an ecosystem, every component is dependent on every other component, either directly or indirectly. For example, a change in ecosystem temperature frequently affects the types of plants that may flourish there. Animals that rely on plants for food and shelter will have to shift to accommodate the new conditions.
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if the micturition reflex is primarily controlled by parasympathetic innervation, then how is it that you have voluntary control of when you choose to urinate?
The external urethral sphincter is controlled by skeletal muscles if the parasympathetic nervous system is largely responsible for controlling the micturition reflex.
Skeletal muscle: What is it?
One of the three essential muscle tissues in the human body is found in the bone. Thousands of muscle fibres covered in connective tissue sheaths make up each skeletal muscle. Fasciculi are the different collections of muscular fibres that make up skeletal muscles.
The somatic nervous system is in charge of the voluntary skeletal muscles. The other types of muscle include non-striated smooth muscle and striated cardiac muscle. Both of these muscle groups can be classified as being autonomic, or under the control of the autonomic nervous system micturition reflex.
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the quadriceps group includes all of the following except the biceps femoris. vastus lateralis. vastus medialis. vastus intermedius. rectus femoris.
The quadriceps group includes all of the following muscles except for Biceps fumoirs.
What are quadriceps?
Four distinct muscles (the "heads") make up the quadriceps femoris, the first of which lies superficially to the other three over the femur (from the trochanters to the condyles):
The centre of the thigh is occupied by the rectus femoris muscle, which mostly encloses the other three quadriceps muscles. It comes from the ilium. Its straight route gave rise to its name.On the lateral side of the femur is the vastus lateralis muscle (i.e. on the outer side of the thigh).On the medial side of the femur is the vastus medialis muscle (i.e. on the inner part thigh).On the top or front of the thigh, between the vastus lateralis and vastus medialis, is where the vastus intermedius muscle is located.The quads, also known as the quadriceps femoris, are one of the strongest and densest muscle groups in the body and help to shape the majority of the thigh.The thigh muscles can be further divided by experts into three compartments:
the front, medial, posterior anterior (back of the thigh)The quadriceps are a part of the anterior compartment, which extends the leg at the knee to allow for stability and movement, along with the sartorius and iliopsoas muscles.Hence, The quadriceps group includes all of the following muscles except for Biceps fumoirs.
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home-canned low-acid foods, such as beans and corn, may be contaminated with clostridium botulinum, a bacterium that produces a dangerous toxin. to destroy the toxin, the food should be
Answer: discarded
Explanation:
According to piaget's theory, which stage of development is between birth and 2 years of age during which the individual uses senses and motor abilities to interact with objects in the environment?.
The sensorimotor stage is the time when babies are developing their senses, knowledge and motor skills, and it lasts from birth to two years of age.
Basic reflex motions like sucking, flailing limbs, or shaking the head are a newborn's initial means of communication. To learn more about their environment and their body, they make use of their five senses: sight, touch, smell, taste, and hearing. Infants absorb knowledge about these encounters and discover how various factors affect their feelings. They also learn to distinguish between various items, persons, textures, and sights. Children begin to grasp the idea of cause and effect at this sensorimotor stage.
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If genes are on different chromosomes or far apart on the same chromosome, they will assort ___________________________ during meiosis.
Genes will assort independently and are referred to as being unlinked during meiosis if they are located on distinct chromosomes or distantly from one another on the same chromosome.
What transpires when two genes on the same chromosome are located far apart?Due to cross-over, genes that are on the same chromosome but located far apart assort separately (homologous recombination). This is a mechanism where homologous chromosomes randomly exchange matched pieces at the start of meiosis.
What does meiotic independent assortment entail?During meiosis, a process known as independent assortment causes the chromosomes to randomly move to different poles. After meiosis, a gamete will have 23 chromosomes, but independent assortment means that each gamete will have 1 of numerous different combinations.
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which of the following may explain irregular menstruation in physically active women?a. metaboreflex hypothesis *b. energy availability hypothesis c. lactate paradox d. hypothalamus hypothesis
(b) The energy availability hypothesis is the correct option that explains irregular periods in physically active women.
Irregular periods are often caused by a hormonal imbalance, especially estrogen and progesterone. our menstrual cycle can tell us a lot about our health. A regular period between puberty and menopause means your body is functioning normally. Menstrual problems, such as irregular periods or pain, can be a sign of a serious health problem. Menstrual problems can also lead to other health problems, including pregnancy problems. This cycle of changes occurs in women every month, positively for pregnancy it is called the menstrual cycle.
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In humans there are 23 pairs of chromosomes. One pair of the 23 are sex chromosomes. The other 22 pairs are known as?
Answer:D. 23 pairs of chromosomes are arranged from smallest to largest.
Explanation:
in animals, the normal development of an embryo is dependent on select one: a. production of new cells having twice the number of chromosomes as the zygote b. mitosis and the differentiation of cells after fertilization has occurred c. fertilization of a mature egg by many sperm cells d. production of body cells having half the number of chromosomes as the zygote
In animals, the normal development of an embryo is dependent on mitosis and the differentiation of cells after fertilization has occurred,
what is mitosis?
One cell (the mother) divides into two new cells (the daughters) that are genetically identical to the original cell during a process known as mitosis.
Normal embryonic development is largely shaped by the process of cell division. In mitosis, the replicated genome is separated (karyokinesis) from the cytoplasmic material (cytokinesis). During typical embryogenesis, these two important steps are closely regulated in both space and time. Thus, understanding cell division is essential for comprehending developmental processes that result in the formation of tissues and organs. Many rounds of cell division are necessary for the transformation of a single cell zygote into an adult with multiple cells that can function.
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1. describe the basic process of an elisa. what binds to what? when you get a positive or negative result from an elisa, what are you actually seeing?
An antibody or antigen (immunologic molecules) is involved, which may result in an antigen-antibody reaction to produce a positive result or, in the absence of a reaction, a negative outcome.
+ Antigen → primary antibody → secondary antibody → conjugated enzyme --> substrate
An antigen is a signal that lets your immune system know whether or not something is dangerous in your body. Antigens can be found on bacteria, cancers, viruses, and healthy bodily cells. Antigen testing is carried out to identify viral infections, keep track of and screen for certain diseases, and decide whether a donor is an appropriate match for a transplant. Typically, proteins or sugars (polysaccharides) present on the surface of organisms like cells or viruses are considered to be antigens. Every one of them has a distinct shape that your immune system recognises like a nametag to determine whether it belongs in your body.
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After sperm are produced, they enter the first part of the duct system, the __________.
Sperm enter the epididymis, the first duct system component, once they are created.
What is the sequence of sperm passage?To leave the body, sperm cells travel through a network of channels. Sperm go through the epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra after leaving the testes.
When sperm pass through the ductus deferens, where do they go next?During their journey from the egg to adulthood, sperm pass through the deferent duct, the spermatic cord, the pelvic cavity, the ureter, and the prostate, which is situated behind the bladder. The vas deferens and seminal vesicle join here to form the ejaculatory duct, which empties into the urethra after passing through the prostate.
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What is the process by which a star is born
Answer:
Stars form from an accumulation of gas and dust, which collapses due to gravity and starts to form stars. The process of star formation takes around a million years from the time the initial gas cloud starts to collapse until the star is created and shines like the Sun.Jul 4, 2019
Explanation:
Infortmation:
How Do Stars Form? - Frontiers for Young Mindshttps://kids.frontiersin.org › articles › frym.2019.00092
two organisms mate and have offspring. how could you test to see if the parents were the same species?
The biological species idea states that organisms can only interbreed and generate viable, fruitful offspring within their own species.
The biggest group of organisms in which any two individuals of the right sexes or mating types can conceive a fertile offspring, usually by sexual reproduction, is referred to as a species. The amino acid sequence of a protein that is found in all species will differ. After a protein has been selected, its amino acid sequence in various species is compared. A closer relationship between two species is indicated by greater similarity or fewer differences. The genetic code and DNA show how life has a common ancestor.
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overall, is the a. afarensis cranium more similar to apes or to humans? in what way is it more similar to whom?
Overall, the an afarensis cranium resembles apes more than it does humans, which is almost chimpanzee-like. Children of the afarensis species developed quickly after birth.
And reached adulthood earlier than contemporary humans. As a result, Au. afarensis had a shorter childhood than contemporary humans do, which gave them less opportunity for parental instruction and early socialization. Both ape-like and human-like traits were present in Au. afarensis. Its brain was about the size of a chimpanzee's, and the top of its skull, or the cranial vault, was somewhat domed. Less so in females than in males, its face protruded outward. Some Au. afarensis skull samples reveal evidence of this species' strong chewing muscles as well as chimpanzee's.
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One main difference between thin skin and thick skin is that __________.
a. in thin skin, the stratum lucid appears to be absent
b. in thin skin, the stratum corner appears to be absent
c. in thin skin, there are no melanocytes
d. in thin skin, keratinocytes are absent
a) In thin skin, the stratum lucid appears to be absent.
Difference between thin and thick skin
Under a microscope, thick and thin skin have various appearances. The epidermis of thick skin has a fifth layer, whereas thin skin only has four layers. These layers are the stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale, and stratum granulosum.
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the majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive. the majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive. true false
The majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive. the majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive. Given statement are false.
Instead of being the primary cause of disease, S. aureus is typically isolated from an abscess, boil, or other skin lesion as a result of its secondary invasion of a wound. Similar to abscesses, breast abscesses or mastitis, dermatitis or skin infections, and genital tract infections, S. aureus can also be isolated from these conditions.
Clinical specimens are often cultured on Blood agar to isolate staphylococci (described in Lab 14). A spherical, elevated, opaque colony with a diameter of 1-2 mm is produced by staphylococci. The novobiocin disc is used to assess novobiocin sensitivity or resistance.
It is the main contributor to skin and soft tissue infections such cellulitis, furuncles, and abscesses (boils). S. aureus can cause serious infections such bloodstream infections, pneumonia, or bone and joint infections, even though most staph infections are not dangerous.
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for which of the following processes are enzymes not required? multiple choice replication self-assembly translation maturation all of the answer choices are correct.
The process of assembling individual units of a material into highly arranged/ordered structures/patterns is known as self-assembly. Self-assembly processes are enzymes not required.
Self-assembly is the process by which a disordered system of pre-existing components forms an organized structure or pattern as a result of specific, local interactions among the components themselves, without the need for external direction. When the constituents are molecules, the process is known as molecular self-assembly.
What are the types of self-assembly?
Self-assembly is classified into two types: intramolecular self-assembly and intermolecular self-assembly. The term molecular self-assembly most commonly refers to intermolecular self-assembly, whereas folding refers to the intramolecular analog.
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Assume that a drop in parasite abundance reflects an effective immune response by the host.
What could explain the pattern revealed by your graph?
a) By the time the host developed an effective immune response to one surface glycoprotein, the parasite had changed to a different glycoprotein.
b) The host's immune response went through cycles of strength and weakness.
c) The host was infected by new Trypanosoma parasites three times during the course of the study.
d) The parasite went through regular, synchronized cycles of reproduction followed by death.
A parasitic is a living thing that inhabits or lives on the body of another species (its host) and derives its nourishment from the host.Whether the visit is parasite, mutualistic, or commensal, a host is a larger animal that accommodates a smaller organism.Usually, food and lodging are provided for guests.
How do parasites endure inside the human body?The term "parasite" refers to an organism that inhabits or lives on a living host of a species.They feed off of this host's nutrition to stay alive.We describe the various kinds of parasites or parasitic illnesses that can harm people in this article.
In which immune cells do parasites get treated?In addition to containing histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and proteases, basophils and mast cells also have IgE surface receptors. They play a role in the immediate form of hypersensitivity reactions as well as immunological responses to parasites.
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Cecropias are known for the mutualistic relationship they have with which creature?.
One of the most well-known pioneer plants in this region is cecropia. Their numerous particular adaptations, notably their close mutualistic association with Azteca ants, are largely responsible for their success (pictured left).
Describe the cecropia?Beautiful silk moths with reddish bodies and black to brown wings bordered by white, red, and tan bands are called cecropia moths. The cecropia moth, which can reach a wingspan of five to seven inches (13 to 18 centimeters), is the biggest moth to be seen in North America.
Can enormous moths harm you?Most adult moths are unable to bite anything, much less you, because they lack mouths. They generally don't sting either. Moths, on the other hand, start out as caterpillar larvae.
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suppose that certain root cells have an overall charge that is more negative than normal. what impact would this likely have on the uptake of anions such as
The answer of this question is Anions would be less likely to enter roots.
What is plant nutrition?
A significant source of the nutrients required by plants for growth is soil. The three essential nutrients are potassium, phosphorus, and nitrogen (K). They combine to form the group known as NPK. The nutrients calcium, magnesium, and sulfur are also very important. Additionally, plants require trace elements including iron, manganese, zinc, copper, boron, and molybdenum, which are minuscule amounts that the plant only needs in trace amounts. This document merely provides a basic overview of the complicated role that these nutrients play in plant growth.Major elements:
Nitrogen: A crucial component for plant growth is nitrogen. It can be found in chlorophyll, plant proteins, hormones, and all plant cells.Phosphorus: Phosphorus promotes early root and plant growth, speeds up maturity, and aids in the transfer of solar energy to plants.Potassium: Potassium helps plants form and move starches, sugars, and oils, increases plant vigor and disease resistance, and can enhance the quality of fruits.Calcium: Calcium is necessary for healthy roots, the creation of new roots and root hairs, and the growth of leaves.Magnesium: Magnesium is essential for photosynthesis and is a crucial component of chlorophyll, the substance that gives plants their green color.Sulfur: Sulfur is a component of the amino acids in plant proteins and is involved in the processes that allow plants to produce energy.Hence, Anions would be less likely to enter roots.
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explain why a quantitative pcr analysis cannot determine the size of the initial template the sequence in a dna sample.
Quantitative PCR analysis cannot determine the size of the initial template sequence in a DNA sample just because it measures the amount of particular sample present.
Building on the fundamental PCR technology, quantitative PCR (also known as quantitative real-time PCR, or qPCR) detection enables scientists to determine how much starting material is present in a sample. qPCR has a much greater dynamic range of analysis than traditional, end-point PCR since the products are detected as the reaction progresses; from one copy to approximately 1011 copies are recognized in a single run. Using a closed-tube format for quantitative real-time PCR and the subsequent amplicon identification, which does not require post-PCR processing such as gel electrophoresis, dramatically reduces the possibility of cross contamination. In order to determine indirectly how much nucleic acid is present during each cycle of amplification, qPCR uses a fluorescent reporter dye. During the reaction's repeating stages, the number of exponentially increasing PCR product molecules (amplicons) generated is directly proportional to the growth in fluorescence signal. Reporter molecules can be classified into one of three groups: additional dye-conjugated oligonucleotides known as probes, dyes attached to primers.
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the use of slower, controlled speeds during resistive exercises increases the duration of time stress is placed on the muscle, thereby increasing . muscle fiber recruitment risk of muscle fiber tears muscle fiber atrophy all of the above
In contrast to endurance workouts, which focus on brief, strong movements that are not repeated for extended periods of time, resistant exercises target rapid glycolytic fibers in muscles.
Strong muscular contractions are caused by the rapid ATP hydrolysis and cross-bridge generation in fast glycolytic fibers. As a result, muscles that are used for strength frequently contain a larger proportion of rapid glycolytic fibers than slow oxidative fibers. The diameter of muscle fibers increases as a result of resistance training boosting the production of myofibrils. Athletes attempting to increase their muscle mass frequently consume high levels of protein since this muscular growth is made possible by the addition of structural proteins. Resistance training can cause overuse injuries to the muscle, tendon, or bone if it is performed incorrectly. These injuries can happen if the load is too great, if the muscles don't have enough time to heal between sessions, or if the joints aren't properly positioned when doing the exercises. After vigorous exercise, muscle fibers sustain cellular damage, including harm to the sarcolemma and myofibrils. After intense exercise, injured muscles might make you feel painful, but when the damage is healed and new structural proteins are added to replace the ones that were lost, muscles develop bulk.
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the cells that store starch in dicot roots are located between the a) xylem and the phloem. b) epidermis and the root hairs. c) epidermis and the cortex. d) epidermis and the vascular cylinder.
The cells that store starch in dicot roots are located between the epidermis and the vascular cylinder. The correct option is d.
The region of ground tissue that is between the vascular cylinder and the epidermis is called the cortex. The root cortex transports water and nutrients absorbed by the root epidermis into the vascular bundle and stores substances such as starch, resins, and essential oils. The cells of the pith also store starch and water, and the intercellular spaces allow for gaseous exchange. The pith chamber is located in the center of the stem, after the vascular bundles. The main purpose of pith is to store nutrients such as starch. Amyloplasts are found in roots and also in storage tissues and store and synthesize starch for the plant through the polymerization of glucose.
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