The punnets square shows a text cross of mice that are heterozygous for both traits what will the offspring be fill in the white boxes of the punnets square with all the possible offspring genotypes

The Punnets Square Shows A Text Cross Of Mice That Are Heterozygous For Both Traits What Will The Offspring

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Explanation:

Dominant allele are allele that finds expression the offspring physical expression while recessive allele are alleles that are not expressed in the offspring phenotype.

The Punnets Square Shows A Text Cross Of Mice That Are Heterozygous For Both Traits What Will The Offspring

Related Questions

Which statement correctly describes glucose (CGH120.?
It is made of matter and contains twenty-four molecules.
It is an element made of three types of atoms.
It is an atom made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
It is a compound made of twenty-four total atoms of three different elements

Answers

Answer:

It is made of matter and contains twenty-four molecules.


Please describe the regulation of the blood glucose 6 hours after a meal?
Please include all relevant organs, hormones, and actions.

Answers

Answer:

Find the description below in the explanation section

Explanation:

The body system regulates the blood sugar level via the hand-in-hand working of insulin and glucagon hormones, both produced by the Pancreas. After a meal, the food undergoes digestion and is broken down into glucose, which is absorbed into the bloodstream. Insulin hormone is released by the pancreas (stimulated by a negative feedback) when the sugar level of the blood increases. This secretion of insulin causes cells to absorb glucose as source of energy, while liver and muscle cells store some of the excess blood glucose as GLYCOGEN.

However, after about 6 hours of taking the meal, the blood sugar (glucose) level must have decreased. This triggers the secretion of Glucagon hormone by the Pancreas. Glucagon hormone, acts in an opposite manner as Insulin hormone, by causing the stored GLYCOGEN in the liver and muscle cells to be converted back to Glucose in order for cells to make use of it.

This continuous process occurs and it is how the body regulates the blood glucose levels.

Rosa made a chart to summarize the characteristics of two types of social behavior. Which headings best complete the chart? X: Herding Y: Cooperative Hunting X: Flocking Y: Migrating X: Cooperative Hunting Y: Herding X: Migrating Y: Flocking

Answers

Answer:

Flocking (birds) and cooperative hunting (lions or wolves)

Explanation:

In large animal groups, social behavior enables to obtain an evolutionary advantage over non-social species by making decisions that are likely to be beneficial for the group. In humans, a comprehensive understanding of these benefits has shown to be useful in different areas ranging from social to economic systems.  

Cooperative Hunting is a social behavior that enables predatory social species like lions to hunt larger organisms, thereby improving the adaptive fitness of individuals.

Bird flocking is another type of social behavior in which a group of bird is in flight. This behavior is shared by very different species such as insects and fish. Flocking has shown to be beneficial to individual birds to take care of predators and to find food.

Answer:

A.

Explanation:

A single point mutation in a gene results in a nonfunctional protein. Individuals heterozygous for this mutation were identified using a Southern blot. Which pair of wild-type (WT) and mutant alleles most likely contains the mutation?
A. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCGATGCTTAGGCATCT-3
B. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATAT-3
C. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTTGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
D. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCCAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3

Answers

Answer:

C. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3

Mutant 5-TAGTTGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3

Explanation:

In the wild type, the DNA sequence encodes the following aminoacidic segment: SRSLGI; while the mutant form has a stop codon in the second codon (TGA). A stop codon is a trinucleotide sequence in the messenger RNA (mRNA) that indicates a stop signal in protein synthesis. There are three types of stop codons: UGA, UAG and UAA, where U represents Uracile in the mRNA instead of Thymine in the DNA sequence.

Representation:  

C. WT 5-T AGT CGA AGC TTA GGC ATC T-3 >> 5'3' Frame 1 = SRSLGI

Mutant 5-T AGT TGA AGC TTA GGC ATC T-3 >> 5'3' Frame 1 = S-, where - represents a stop codon (TGA) and therefore it is the end of the protein.

what is odontoid process in bones/

Answers

Answer:

The odontoid process

It exhibits a slight construction or neck, where it joins the main body of the vertebra...

Hope you like it please mark me as a brainliest

In an experiment, there are two groups. Which group is not changed in any way?
A. hypothesis
B. variable
C. experimental
D. control

Answers

Answer:

d) control

Explanation:

a control is what's kept the same throughout the experiment

Control D would be right

Some present-day bacteria use a system of anaerobic respiration characterized by an electron transport chain analogous to that found in aerobic organisms. Which of the following correctly characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain?

a. It uses oxygen as a final electron acceptor.
b. It is embedded in the outer mitochondrial membrane rather than the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. It establishes a proton gradient between the cytoplasm and the extracellular fluid.
d. It establishes a proton gradient between the intermembrane space and the cytoplasm.
e. None of these answer options accurately characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer would be:

Neither of these response options accurately features the anaerobic electron transport chain.

Explanation:

The anaerobic respiration system vibrated by an electron transport chain is a mechanism that anaerobic bacteria have to maintain their respiration.

This mechanism does not require oxygen in the atmosphere, that is why it is said to be an anaerobic mechanism.

Bacteria do not all need oxygen in the environment to live, some need that oxygen is not exactly present (strict anaerobes) or that it is at low partial pressures (facultative anaerobes).

This mechanism is very characteristic in its location since it is located in the inner membrane of the mitochondria, that is why it will decide to indicate that option as the correct one.

Biochemical changes in the body, that affect the rate of metabolism and elimination of a substance from the body and produce increased amounts to achieve the desired effects, may lead to development of

Answers

Answer:

Tolerance

Explanation:

Tolerance is the capacity of an organism to survive changes in certain environmental and biochemical conditions. It has to with changes an organism is able to withstand when is subjected to certain factors which can biotic or abiotic.

For example, in the consumption of alcohol, tolerance can occur when there is a fast elimination of alcohol from the body system. This is usually as a result of the activation of a group of enzymes that is responsible for the metabolism of alcohol in excessive alcohol drinkers. The activation of this enzymes increases the catabolism of alcohol and hence reduces the active time within the body, hence reducing the time by which alcohol intoxicates.

The process of succession is necessary to maintain and establish stable communities. T or F

Answers

Answer: True it is necessary

Answer:

True

Explanation:

a strand of mRNA has the bases adenine- cytosine- uracil which amino acid corresponds to these bases?

Answers

Answer:

Threonine

Explanation:

Using the amino acid chart, the mRNA strand ACU corresponds to the amino acid Threonine.

Answer:

thr

Explanation:

i did test

Suppose a plant breeder wants to isolate mutants in tomatoes that are defective in DNA repair. However, this breeder does not have the expertise or equipment to study enzymes in DNA repair systems.
Which methods would best allow the breeder to identify tomato plants that are deficient in DNA repair?
A) Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants.
B) Measure the amount of post-translational processing that occurs in the putative DNA repair mutant plants. Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
C) Expose the putative DNA repair mutant plants to a deaminating agent and select those that have a decreased mutation rate.
D) Measure the germ line spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.

Answers

The provided question has marked options incorrectely the correct order as follows:

A) Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants.

B) Measure the amount of post-translational processing that occurs in the putative DNA repair mutant plants.

C) Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.

D) Expose the putative DNA repair mutant plants to a deaminating agent and select those that have a decreased mutation rate.

E) Measure the germline spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.

Answer:

The correct answer is: A), C) and E)

Explanation:

The breeder wants to isolate the mutants in tomatoes that are defective in DNA repair, to identify such plants breeder should follow these methods as they will allow best to identifying the defective tomatoes-

Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.

Measure the germline spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.

Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants.  This will allow the breeder to see and analyze the ability of DNA repair in tomatoes

molecular genetics experiment: In what way do the percentages of yellow leaves vary between dishes on Day 2? How do you account for this difference? Compare the percentage of yellow seedlings in dish 2 on day 2 with the percentage on day 4. What is the difference? What experimental variable accounts for this difference? How can you account for the difference between the seedlings in dish 1? Is the yellow color genetically or environmentally controlled? How can environmental factors affect inheritance? (Use human height as an example.)

Answers

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

There were yellow seedlings in Dish #1 during the light phase and also during the dark in Dish #2. The difference in these results is likely due to the period of exposure to light.

There are more number of yellow seedlings on Day 4. This is probably because of being kept in the dark for a long period of time. Light intensity is the experimental variable that accounts for this difference in appearance.

The yellow color is being environmentally controlled since the parent phenotype was wildtype in this experiment. The environment has an effect on which genes are expressed in the organism, which in turn influences the phenotype observed.

The allosteric effector molecule 2,3-BPG facilitates transfer of oxygen between maternal and fetal blood in the placenta. Which of the following correctly describes the role of BPG in this process?

a. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is unable to cross the placenta into fetal blood, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
b. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
c. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the T state.
d. Fetal hemoglobin releases oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds more effectively to fetal hemoglobin causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the T state.

Answers

Answer:

b. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.

Explanation:

BPG is a chemical compound which is found in red blood cells. It is known for decreasing the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen and thus helps in unloading oxygen from hemoglobin.

Owing to the structural difference, fetal hemoglobin binds to BPG with less affinity as compared to maternal hemoglobin thus it shifts the oxyhemoglobin curve to the left i.e. causes fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state. Due to this, fetal hemoglobin can carry up to 30% more oxygen as compared to maternal hemoglobin. As a result of this, oxygen is readily transferred to fetal blood when maternal blood enters placenta which restricts hypoxia in fetus.

Which type of mutation results in a frame shift mutation? Check all that apply? Substitute Insertion Deletion Point mutation

Answers

Answer: Insertion, Deletion

Explanation:

The frameshift mutation can be defined as a genetic mutation that is caused by the deletion or insertion of the DNA sequence or base pairs that shifts the sequence to be read. As a result of this the abnormal proteins are produced along with incorrect amino acid sequence that either shorter or longer than the normal protein.

The currently accepted model of the coeur laboratory you are observing skin cells labeled 'defective' to determine what is wrong with them. After careful observation you notice that the cytoskeleton is there, but the cell is still having trouble maintaining its shape. Infer what could be damaged.l membrane was discovered by

Answers

Answer:

Cell membrane

Explanation:

The cytoskeleton is known to be a kind of proteinous filaments which is found in the cytoplasm of organism but grow out to the cell membrane to give shape to the organism and likewise help in movement.

In the case highlighted above, the organism might still not be able to get a shape especially when the cell membrane is affected or being damaged.

maggots feed on dead and decaying organisms for energy. what are maggots

Answers

Answer:

Decomposers, or as they're alternatively known, detritovores.

Explanation:

Their job is to break down decaying/dead organic matter to recycle it into the soil for plants (mainly). Fungi and bacteria make up the vast majority of decomposers.

many people try to eliminate fat from their diet

Answers

Answer:

yes they do

Explanation:

they do because they don't want to be big chungus anymore, they want to be a skinny queen

Where does most of the phosphorus cycle take place?

Answers

It is mainly cycling through water, soil and sediments. In the atmosphere phosphorus can mainly be found as very small dust particles. Phosphorus moves slowly from deposits on land and in sediments, to living organisms, and than much more slowly back into the soil and water sediment.

What are the 5 steps of the phosphorus cycle?
Terms in this set (5)
1Weathering.
2Fertilizer. -Soil. -Direct Runoff.
3Excretion and Decomposition.
4Dissolved Phosphates (generally in ocean)
5Geologic Uplift.

Tryptophan is an amino acid necessary for E. coli survival and growth. E. coli contain genes coding for enzymes that synthesize tryptophan. These genes are grouped together on a segment of DNA called the tryptophan (trp) operon. Cells can use these enzymes to synthesize tryptophan when it is not present in the environment. owever, when tryptophan is already present in the environment, cellular resources are shifted away from manufacturing the enzymes for tryptophan synthesis. Tryptophan binds with and activates the trp repressor, which then binds to the trp promoter and blocks RNA polymerase. Blocking RNA polymerase decreases the normal transcription rate of the operon. What type of regulation does the trp operon exhibit?a. positive regulation b. protein modification c. negative regulation d. translational regulation

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - The tryptophan operon shows C. negative regulation.

Explanation:

Tryptophan is an amino acid, excessively synthesized by the organism, it regulates its transcription through “trp Operon.” In this operon, the corepressor of the tryptophan binds to the repressor protein and gets activated.

This activated repressor now binds to the operator site, and prevents the binding of RNA polymerase enzyme and inhibits the protein synthesis.

If your observations do not support your hypothesis, what
should you
you do?

Answers

Answer:

than admit defeat

Explanation:

smear samples from patient admitted at the kole-teaching hospital with boils and abscesses were brought to the laboratory for staining and microscopic examination. As an upcoming microbiologist state the keeping steps you would to stain the smear using Gram stain.upon examination, you've found blue coloured graped-cluster berry round the cell
1.what could be the outcome of the Gram staining reaction
2.what could be this bacterium and why

Answers

Answer:

It could be a Staphylococcus or also called Staphylococcus, due to the disposition it presents.

Explanation:

Staphylococci are coconuts (rounded shape) that unite in the form of a bunch of grapes, this is characteristic of them.

It could become a Staphylococ Aureus, since these are usually associated with the most frequent infections in humans, but the possibility that it is another type of the same bacterial family is not ruled out.

If it is accepted that the information for how a protein is intended to fold lies within its primary sequence, explain why a purified protein denatured in vitro might not be able to renature accurately.

Answers

Answer:

Denaturation and renaturation are properties of protein but in some cases denaturation is irreversible and protein is unable to renature.

The primary sequence of a protein determines which portion of protein fold closely together in order to form three-dimensional conformation and the conformations are held by hydrogen bonds.

Denaturation of protein in-vitro is generally obtained by increasing temperature. Heat or high temperature disrupts hydrogen bonds that held between protein folds because high temperature increases the kinetic energy and the bonds are disrupted due to rapid heating. Disruption of hydrogen bonds will change the 3D structure of the protein and denatured proteins lose its function.

Chemicals are also used to disrupt hydrogen bonds such as alcohol.

So, high temperature and chemicals denature protein by affecting the hydrogen bonds holding 3D shape of primary sequence in protein and the change in protein becomes irreversible.

Fungi are a necessary evil to humanity. Discuss the pros and cons.

Answers

Answer:

Fungi are said to be a necessary evil for society because:

On the one hand it has many pros, this means that they are used with optimal fines or that they benefit the human, such as yeast and alcoholic fermentation, the processes of beer formation, the production of basic foods for human nutrition , subsistence with the commensal or own flora of the human organism that defends us from other pathogenic microorganisms and really lethal for our species, and lastly they are also very good when it comes to scientific discoveries or advances, a great example is the penicillium fungus which is responsible for forming penicillin which is a very effective antibiotic today for a wide spectrum of bacteria.

On the other hand, the cons that some variety of fungi experienced lethal pathologies for humans such as histoplasmosis, or extremely dangerous pneumonia / bronchitis that today do not have a preventive method such as vaccines.

Explanation:

The fungi kingdom is extremely broad, that is why this kingdom can offer benefits or harm us human beings, and that is because the versatility of fungi is very high.

Nowadays, fungi present not only a difference in their morphologies, but also other resistance mechanisms, or tolerances to oxygen, metabolisms, energy sources, etc.

g If a pair of sister chromatids fail to separate during anaphase II (meiosis II), what will be the chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the normal haploid number (n)

Answers

Answer:

The result will be two gametes with a normal haploid number (n), one gamete containing an extra chromosome (n + 1) and one gamete missing one chromosome (n − 1).

Explanation:

Nondisjunction is caused by the failure in the mechanism of separation of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids during meiosis and/or mitosis. The failure in the separation of sister chromatids during meiosis II is referred to as 'secondary nondisjunction' and it produces two daughter cells with abnormal chromosome numbers.  

The fusion of one gamete containing an extra chromosome (n + 1) with a normal (n) gamete will lead to trisomy (2n + 1), while the fusion of one gamete missing one chromosome (n - 1) with a normal gamete will lead to monosomy (2n-1).

Which of these is an organism?

Answers

Answer:

A wolf...........

.......................

Answer:

I believe the answer is heart

In a songbird species, defending a territory saved the bird 584 calories a day in reduced foraging activity, but cost the bird 656 calories in defense of the territory. Is defending the territory consistent with the prediction from optimal foraging theory, and what can explain this

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is "No, this is not consistent with the predictions on optimality".

Explanation:

The optimal foraging theory (OFT) establishes that an organism looks for the best foraging strategy, which involves maximizing the amount of energy that is available in its daily activities. In this case, the songbird species is not consistent with the predictions on optimality since it needs more calories than it intakes in order to defend its territory. In this scenario, the songbird will lose 72 calories per day.

Which of the following is a known limiting factor for good nutrition

Answers

Answer:  

seems you forgot the "followings" but here are some known limiting factors

Explanation:

   Exercise,Physiology, Mindset, Nutrition and Genetics.

The women has had two miscarriages. What is the chance that she could have a normal child? a. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.b. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.c. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers.d. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers

Answers

Dududjdudbdudjdbbrud

During which phase of mitosis do the nuclear membrane, nucleoli, nucleus dissolve

Answers

Answer:

Prophase stage

Hope this helps

Hurry please!!!
Which statement accurately describes long-term environmental changes?

Long-term environmental changes cause changes in genetic makeup.

Long-term environmental changes happen suddenly with little warning,

Long-term environmental changes occur in hundreds of years.

Long-term environmental changes immediately affect organisms in the environment

Answers

Answer:

A. or #1 -- Long-term environmental changes cause changes in genetic makeup

Explanation:

Answer: A

Explanation:

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Gene starts from home and travels 3 miles north to the shopping mall. From the shopping mall, he travels 2 miles west to the library. Then, from the library, he travels about 3.6 miles to return home. The entire trip forms a triangle. A triangle has points labeled Library, Mall, and Home The largest angle formed during his trip is _______. At his home at the mall between the mall and the library between his home and the library In a certain state, the recent average critical reading standardized test score was 514. Assume that the standard deviation is 50 and that standardized test scores are Normally distributed. Complete parts (a) and (b) below. Include a Normal curve for each part.Required:a. What percentage of standardized test takers scored 550 or less?b. What percentage of standardized test takers scored 524? How do you measure the intake or servings of the different food groups of MyPlate?Grains and protein foods are measured in terms of (Blank) Intake of fruits and vegetables is measured in terms of (Blank) Men and women in the range of 19 to 30 years of age must consume at least (Blank) of fruits. A heavy, 6 m long uniform plank has a mass of 30 kg. It is positioned so that 4 m is supported on the deck of a ship and 2 m sticks out over the water. It is held in place only by its own weight. You have a mass of 70 kg and walk the plank past the edge of the ship. How far past the edge do you get before the plank starts to tip, in m The hypotenuse of a triangle is 19cm calculate the length of the shortest side How have safety concerns about chemicals changed over time?A. Government officials rather than scientists decide what chemicalsare dangerous.B. All nations have agreed to a set of safety standards, so testingchemicals is no longer necessary.C. As scientists have learned more about chemicals, they havebecome more aware of their dangers.D. Scientists are no longer as concerned about chemicals becausethey are much safer today. why is there a greater volume of living organisms at the bottom of the energy pyramid? Which reaction does not involve neutralization? A. H 2 SO 4 + 2NH 3 -------> (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 B. H 2 SO 4 + BaCl 2 --------> BaSO 4 + 2HCl C. H 2 SO 4 + CuO -----> CuSO 4 + H 2 O D. H 2 SO 4 + 2NaOH ----> Na 2 SO 4 + 2H 2 O Find the equation of the line whose slope is 2 and which passes through the point (-2, 4). Which facts could be applied to simplify this expression? Check all that apply. 5 x + 3 y + (negative x) + 6 z To add like terms, add the coefficients, not the variables. First add 5x + x. The simplified expression is 4 x + 3 y + 6 z. Only combine terms which contain the same variable. The simplified expression is 5 x + 3 y + 6 z. You want to plate a steel part having a surface area of 160 with a 0.002--thick layer of lead. The atomic mass of lead is 207.19 . The density of lead is 11.36 . How many atoms of lead are required The hypothalamus controls excretions from the pituitary gland. It causes the release of some hormones from the pituitary by direct nervous control, and others by secreting releasing and inhibiting factors that stimulate the pituitary to secrete hormones. Which best describes the hypothalamus? It is a connection point between the nervous and endocrine systems. It is both an exocrine and endocrine gland. It is referred to as the master gland. It secretes its contents into ducts. Thornton, Inc., had taxable income of $128,267 for the year. The company's marginal tax rate was 35 percent and its average tax rate was 24 percent. How much did the company have to pay in taxes for the year? Use the zero product property to find the solutions to the equation x2 - X-6 = 0.x= -3 or x = -2x= -3 or x = 2Ox= -2 or x= 3O x= 2 or x = 3 Circle O is circumscribed About triangle ABC? a: line AB b: line AO c: line ob Is a diameter of circle O is the a: Endpoint b: midpoint c: vertexOf AB Grassland animals reproduce mainly during..... *A. Rainy seasonsB. Dry seasonsC. Predators' attackD. Hibernation What is one of the non-monetary benefits of attending college?O A. Increased earning potential in the futureOB. A chance to avoid going into debtO C. The ability to choose a satisfying jobO D. Time spent in the classroom A robotic machine fills containers with an acid solution at the rate of 50 + 5 t milliliters (mL) per second, where t is in seconds and 0 t 60 . How many mL are put into a container in 60 seconds? Evaluate your answer to a whole number. If there are four teams in a league, how many games will have to be played so that each team plays every other team once? Kaya figured out that she will need $47,592 to attend college. What is the amount rounded to the nearest ten thousand? Help meeee