the patient reports grossly blood stool persistent for the past three days. he feels fatigued and mildly short of breath. on exam, he has pale conjunctiva and pallor to the skin. which lab will your doctor order to assess his condition?

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Answer 1

Complete blood count (CBC). A blood test called a complete blood count, or CBC, evaluates components and characteristics of your blood, such as: Red blood cells transport oxygen throughout your body from your lungs.

White blood cells, which fend against illnesses and infections. White blood cells may be divided into five main categories. A CBC test counts all of the white blood cells in your blood. The quantity counts of each of these white blood cells is counts during a separate examination known as a CBC with differential. Platelets, which help your blood clot to halt bleeding. Red blood cells contain the protein haemoglobin, which transports oxygen from your lungs to the rest of your body. Hematocrit is a metric used to determine how many red blood cells are present in your blood. Mean corpuscular volume (MCV), a gauge of your red blood cells' typical size.

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'what do you need to consider in the assessment process for a client who is being treated for a dual diagnosis?''

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A combined diagnostic and treatment strategy is required for dual diagnoses in both specialty alcohol and other substance services and mental health services.

Dual diagnosis describes the co-occurrence of problematic drug and alcohol use and one or more recognised mental health issues.

Services for alcohol, other drugs, and mental health ought to be able to cater to the needs of those who have a dual diagnosis.

This entails addressing a person's requirements in light of their presenting disease, utilising a risk framework, and being aware of the preferences of both the consumer and the caregiver/family. Staff members should receive suitable education and learning opportunities as well as training on dual diagnosis.

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an older adult client comes to the health center reporting difficulty sleeping. which statement by the client would the nurse need to address?\

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A senior citizen client who has trouble sleeping visits the clinic. a reduction in the amount of time spent in deep sleep.

What makes deep sleep less frequent?

Your desire to sleep might be weakened by napping or oversleeping. You might be less able to fall asleep naturally, which would reduce the amount of deep sleep you get. medicine use and substance abuse. Deep sleep can be impacted by benzodiazepines, narcotic painkillers, and caffeine.

What occurs during the period of profound sleep?

It is more difficult to rouse someone who is in stage 3 sleep, sometimes referred to as deep slumber. As the body relaxes even more during N3 sleep, muscle tone, pulse, and breathing rate all drop. The delta wave pattern in the brain's activity during this time can be recognized.

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the nurse is caring for a newborn whose mother is suspected of having a drug addiction. which would the nurse do to most accurately confirm that the newborn may be at risk for withdrawal?

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Shaking that is regular and involuntary is a symptom of the neurological illness known as essential tremor. The most common cause of handshaking is executing simple tasks.

What exactly do you mean by drug abuse?

Drug addiction, also known as substance use disorder, is a condition that impairs a person's capacity to control their use of drugs and medications, whether they are legal or not. Drugs include substances like nicotine, alcohol, and marijuana.

What negative repercussions might drug addiction have?

People who struggle with addiction frequently experience one or more coexisting medical disorders, such as lung or heart disease, stroke, cancer, or mental health issues. The harmful effects of long-term drug usage can be shown by imaging scans, chest X-rays, and blood testing..

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a college student reports the onset of skin burning and hives when walking outdoors in cold weather. which suggestions will the nurse make to limit this reaction from occurring? select all that apply.

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When swimming in chilly weather, wear a wetsuit, stay away from cold-temperature meals and drinks, and take an over-the-counter antihistamine before venturing outside.

What do you mean reaction?

Resistant or resistance to a source, influence, or movement is a reactionary act, process, or occurrence. especially: a reaction to just a particular treatment, circumstance, or stimulus; leaning toward a past and typically antiquated political or social system or policies.

What is the meaning of reaction and example?

The reaction is an activity that is taken as a result of anything. You can tell if your parents are upset if you tell them you would really like to move out by their response. A reaction frequently has a physical component.

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a major difference in the diagnosis of chronic disease between younger adults and older adults is that:

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Older adults were just as receptive to daily pressures as younger persons were among those reporting four or more chronic illnesses.

Which chronic illness affects older people most frequently?

The most prevalent chronic condition affecting older persons is hypertension, which significantly contributes to atherosclerosis (23). Even at advanced ages, isolated systolic hypertension is linked to death, especially in older persons.

What are the two most prevalent chronic illnesses affecting elderly people?

Chronic Conditions

Chronic diseases include heart disease, cancer, chronic lower respiratory illnesses, stroke, Alzheimer's disease, and diabetes are the main killers of older Americans in the U.S.

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which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? question 24 options: a) if your general impression of a patient does not reveal any obvious life threats, you should proceed directly to the secondary assessment. b) the purpose of the secondary assessment is to systematically examine every patient from head to toe, regardless of the severity of his or her injury. c) you may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment. d) a focused secondary assessment would be the most appropriate approach for a patient who experienced significant trauma to multiple body systems.\

Answers

The statement that is correct regarding the secondary assessment is "you may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment". Hence, the correct answer is C.

What is secondary assessment?

The secondary assessment can be defined as a quick and methodical examination of an injured pediatric client from head to toe in order to detect all injuries or of a dangerously ill patient whenever the origin of signs and symptoms is undetermined.

Just after the primary assessment, the secondary assessment will be used. This is where the physician goes through the process from head to toe to determine what happened. Inspection, bone and soft tissue palpation, specific testing, circulation, and neurological evaluation are all possible. 

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a client asks the nurse how to identify rheumatoid nodules with rheumatoid arthritis. what characteristic will the nurse include?

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Rheumatoid nodules are often nontender, moveable, and visible over bony prominences like the elbow or the base of the spine. The nodules have not become red.

Which of the following is a symptom of rheumatoid arthritis?

More than one joint is stiff. Tenderness and edema in multiple joints. The symptoms are the same on both sides of the body (such as in both hands or both knees) Loss of weight. RA primarily affects the joints, often attacking multiple joints at once. The hands, wrists, and knees are the most typically affected joints by RA. The lining of the joint becomes inflamed in RA joints, causing joint tissue destruction. This tissue damage can result in persistent or long-term pain, unsteadiness (loss of balance), and deformity (misshapenness). RA can also affect other tissues and organs, including the lungs, heart, and eyes.

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after neck surgery, the client asks the nurse why the head of the bed is up so high. which reason would the nurse give?

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To lessen edema at the surgery site, the bed's head is raised quite high.

What posture would a client recovering from general anesthesia be placed in by the nurse?

Legs can be stretched or slightly bent in the supine position, and arms can be raised or lowered. It offers general comfort to people recovering from surgery of any kind. most typical usage position The positions utilized for a general examination or physical assessment are supine or dorsal recumbent.

Which nurse evaluation is most important for a patient who may have myasthenia gravis?

The most sensitive test for myasthenia gravis, single fiber electromyography (EMG), finds decreased nerve-to-muscle communication.

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a nurse is caring for a client who's experiencing septic arthritis. this client has a history of immunosuppressive therapy and the immune system is currently depressed. which assignment is the most appropriate for the nurse caring for this client?

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A nurse is caring for a client who's experiencing septic arthritis. this client has a history of immunosuppressive therapy and the immune system is currently depressed,Take the medication without food.

The major goal of a nursing joba  is caring for a client who's experiencing septic arthritis. this client has a history of immunosuppressive therapy and the immune system  is to help people attain, maintain, or regain optimal health and quality of life.They are crucial in teaching, analyzing situations, and providing assistance.In terms of patient care, education, and the range of their practice, nurses can be different from other healthcare professionals.Nurses operate in a variety of specializations and have varying degrees of prescription power.The majority of healthcare facilities are staffed by nurses, however evidence suggests that there is a global shortage of competent nurses.Nurses plan and deliver medical and nursing care to patients with acute or chronic physical or mental diseases in hospitals, at home, and in other settings.

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the nurse notes that an older adult client with diabetes is prescribed rosiglitazone. which assessment should the nurse complete before providing this medication to the client?

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Type 2 diabetes mellitus is managed and treated with the aid of the drug rosiglitazone. Prior to giving the patient these medications, it is important to always check their coagulant level and have a full blood count (CBC).

What medication should people with type 2 diabetes take first?

The first drug typically administered for type 2 diabetes is metformin (Fortamet, Glumetza, etc.). It primarily works by reducing the amount of glucose produced by the liver and increasing your body's sensitivity to insulin so that it is utilised more efficiently by your body.

For what purposes is rosiglitazone maleate used?

The symptoms of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus are treated with the prescription drug Avandia. You can take Avandia by itself or in combination with other drugs. Avandia is a member of the class of medications known as anti-diabetics, or thiazolidinediones.

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a patient was placed in restraints for 2 hours in order to help manage impulsive, destructive, unsafe behavior. which statement made by the charge nurse during a meeting to discuss the incident shows an understanding of the need to use restraints only as a last resort?

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The following  statement made by the charge nurse shows an understanding of the need to use restraints only as a last resort:

“Let’s review what exactly happened that led to the use of restraints.”

What are Restraints?

Restraints are physical or chemical means of limiting or restricting a person’s movement or actions. Physical restraints are objects or materials used to immobilize or limit a person’s freedom of movement, while chemical restraints are drugs used to restrain a person’s behavior. Restraints are often used in healthcare settings, such as hospitals and nursing homes, to help keep patients safe from harm.

The charge nurse must not put the staff on the defensive in order to encourage an open, honest examination of the situation that will allow learning to take place. Reviewing the events before the patient's restraint in an unaccusatory manner demonstrates an awareness of proper restraint use. The other selections indicate that the nurse manager does not believe the matter was handled appropriately.

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a nurse is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. which interventions would be appropriate for this client? select all that apply.

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The nurse is providing anorexia nervosa treatment for her patient. Would the nurse add any nursing interventions to the plan of care? Reduce your attention to food and eating, Eat only for 30 minutes at a time.

What treatments are successful for those who have anorexia?

Adults with anorexia nervosa did not respond to any particular type of therapy the best. Many anorexics do, however, experience recovery with therapy. The most well-known therapies for binge eating disorder and bulimia nervosa are CBT and IPT.

What guidance is suitable for someone who has anorexia nervosa?

The best chance for your friend or relative to recover is to seek medical attention from a doctor, practice nurse, or a school or college nurse.

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a client has an order for a clear liquid diet. the nurse is assisting the client to complete a menu. which item would be appropriate for the client to order? select all that apply.

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White grape juice and other fruit juices without pulp, such as apple juice. beverages with a fruit flavor, like lemonade or fruit punch.

What foods are permitted on a clear liquid diet?

A diet consisting exclusively of transparent liquids or meals that become liquid at body temperature is known as a clear liquid diet. As examples, consider clear broth, coffee, tea, clear fruit juices (apple, cranberry, grape), gelatin, popsicles, and commercially produced clear liquid supplements.

A full liquid diet consists of which of the following foods?

All of the foods and beverages permitted on the clear liquid diet, including popsicles, clear juice without pulp, plain gelatin, ice chips, water, sweetened tea or coffee (without creamer), clear broths, carbonated beverages, flavored water, and water, as well as thin hot cereal, are permitted on the full liquid diet.

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patient going through menopause. what do they experience in decrease in hormone secrection, which increase the risk of menopouse?osteoporosis pathophysiology

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During the menopausal transition period, the drop in estrogen leads to more bone resorption than formation, resulting in osteoporosis.

The major health threat of osteoporosis is osteoporotic fractures.

What is osteoporosis?

disorder when the bones become fragile and feeble.

Bone tissue is continuously absorbed by and replaced by the body. When someone has osteoporosis, the replacement of lost bone does not occur at the same rate. Osteoporosis is caused by a lifelong deficiency in calcium. Low calcium consumption increases the risk of fractures, early bone loss, and decreased bone density. eating problems. Bone deteriorates in both men and women who severely restrict their food intake and who are underweight. Osteoporosis makes bones so fragile that they can readily be broken. The term "silent sickness" refers to a condition in which a person may not notice any symptoms until a bone fracture, typically a bone in the hip, spine, or wrist. Living tissue is used to create bones.

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a patient asks what medication would be most effective in the treatment of seasonal hay fever (aka allergic rhinitis). the nurse will teach the patient about the use of which drug?

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The nurse will teach the patient about the use of Fluticasone. The most effective agents used to treat allergic rhinitis are Glucocorticoids (fluticasone [Flonase]).

Rhinitis: when a reaction that causes runny nose, nasal congestion, sneezing, and itching occurs. Most rhinitis are caused due to an inflammation and are associated with symptoms in the ears, eyes, or throat.

Allergens are a usually harmless substance that can cause an allergic reaction. Hay fever or allergic rhinitis, is an allergic reaction to certain allergens, most commonly pollen. These allergens trigger the release of histamine in a person’s body, which leads to swelling, itching, and build up of fluid in the fragile linings of nasal passages, eyelids and sinuses.

Common symptoms of allergic rhinitis are:

SneezingItchy noseRunny noseCoughingFrequent headachesDry, itchy skin

Allergic rhinitis can be treated in several ways. Medications and/or home remedies are effective as well.

Therefore, the nurse will teach the patient about the use of Fluticasone. The most effective agents used to treat allergic rhinitis are Glucocorticoids (fluticasone [Flonase]).

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Mark enters a patient's room and finds the patient kneeling on the floor. The patient is chanting something that Mark does not understand. He realizes that the patient is praying and most likely a Muslim. What should he do?​

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Answer:

Mark should try to be respectful and not interrupt the patient while they are praying. If the patient is comfortable doing so, he could ask them if they would like him to wait until they're finished before continuing the conversation. He could also ask if there is anything he can do to help make the patient more comfortable. Additionally, he could show respect for the patient's religious beliefs by asking if there is anything else he can do to help them during the prayer.

Explanation:

The patient's right to worship should be respected. It is not in order if Mark interrupts the patient while in prayers. Interrupting the patient while praying can be termed as a violation of his fundamental right to worship.

what medication for the treatment of opioid use disorder does not currently have evidence showing that it reduces transmission of hiv and hcv?

Answers

The use of naltrexone, methadone, and buprenorphine for opioid therapy.

What is the most effective method of addiction treatment?

Behavioral therapy is arguably the most common type of addiction treatment that is frequently used in drug rehab. A general behavioral treatment strategy has led to the development of several effective techniques.

What stage of the recovery from addiction is first?

Detoxification usually happens first in a therapeutic schedule. It involves stopping withdrawal symptoms and getting rid of the substance from the body. According to the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, a treatment center will use medicine to lessen withdrawal symptoms in 80% of cases (SAMHSA).

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the nurse is teaching a client about rheumatic disease. what statement best helps to explain autoimmunity?

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Nurse is teaching a client about rheumatic disease, statement that best helps to explain autoimmunity is: your symptoms are the result of your body attacking itself.

What is meant by autoimmunity?

In autoimmunity, body mistakes its own tissue for foreign tissue and begins  attacking it and symptoms develop as the body destroys tissue.

In immunology, system of immune responses of an organism against its own healthy cells, tissues and other normal body constituents is called autoimmunity. Disease resulting from this type of immune response is called autoimmune disease.

The antinuclear antibody test is one of the first tests that physicians do when they suspect a patient of an autoimmune disorder.

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question 15 of 20a client has a foot ulcer that has not shown signs of improvement over the past several months. which medical condition is most likely causing the delay in wound healing? select all that ap

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Peripheral vascular disease is most likely causing the wound healing delay.

The emergent phase starts when a burn wound occurs through disease  and lasts for approximately the first 24 hours, or until fluid resuscitation is finished. The focus of client care during the emergency period is to keep the client's airway open and manage their wound shock. The stratum basale, which is the epidermis' innermost layer, as well as the stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, & stratum corneum are among the epidermis' layers (the most superficial portion of the epidermis. Keep a close eye on the patient's hourly fluid intake, urine output, blood pressure, and heart rate; any disease abnormalities should be communicated to the burn surgeon.

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true or false our patients have the right to know how we will use and disclose their protected health information

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Patients have the right to obtain their medical records from hospitals, according to the law ministry.

What privacy rights do patients have?

The Privacy Rule, a Federal legislation, offers you control over your health information and establishes guidelines and restrictions on who may access and obtain it. Protected health information on people may be in any format, including oral, written, or electronic, and is subject to the Privacy Rule.

Patients have a right to anticipate that doctors and members of their staff will keep information about them private, unless disclosure is mandated by law or is in the public interest. Keeping patient information private is an important component of good medical practise.

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a client who is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer develops myelosuppression. which instruction would the nurse plan to include in the client's discharge teaching plan? select all that apply.

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(1) Avoid people who have recently received attenuated vaccines. (2) Avoid activities that may cause bleeding. (3) Wash hands frequently. (5) Avoid crowded places, such as shopping malls. instruction would the nurse plan to include in the client's discharge teaching plan

Every year, everyone over the age of 18 should receive a seasonal flu vaccines. A Td (tetanus, diphtheria) or Tdap booster dose every ten years is recommended for adults who did not receive the Tdap vaccines as an adolescent in order to protect against whooping cough. When someone bleeds, blood is lost. For example, when you get a cut or wound, it can be external, or outside the body. Injuries to internal organs are an example of when something is internal, or inside the body. Depending on where the internal bleeding is occurring in the body, certain signs and symptoms may indicate concealed internal bleeding.

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the acute care nurse is preparing to care for an 86-year-old client who just returned to the unit after surgery to repair a fractured hip. the client has severe dementia. which pain management strategy would be most appropriate for this client?

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The acute care nurse is preparing to care for an 86-year-old client who just returned to the unit after surgery to repair a fractured hip. the client has severe dementia.The  pain management have to be , positioned by the nurse so that the injured leg is being pulled in.

 pain management have to give unit for post-anesthesia care. After receiving anesthesia for a procedure or surgery, a patient is transported to the PACU to recover and awaken. In the PACU, a critical care facility, where pain management is also started and fluids are given, the patient's vital signs are regularly checked.The following tasks may be carried out by a PACU nurse: Following up with the medical team as needed to update them on the postoperative patients' level of consciousness and anesthesia recovery. Medications should be administered as prescribed in order to manage pain, nausea, and other post-operative anesthesia side effects.

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a student nurse is preparing to administer a client's ordered large-volume enema. what action should the nurse perform during this skill?

Answers

Give the medication gradually over a 5- to 10-minute period.

How should the patient arrange themselves for an enema?

Due to the anatomical features of the colon, the left lateral position is the most suitable position for administering an enema.Even though the tube's authorized length is roughly 5–6 cm, if resistance is felt, pull the tube back a little instead of attempting to force it.

What are the two key methods for obtaining a stool sample?

How to Gather the Sample (s) Pass feces into a large, clean container—such as a milk jug with the top cut off—or onto newspaper put under the toilet seat, avoiding contact with urine.Stools that are loose should be passed into .

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the patient becomes rigid with feet flexed and arms curled to the chest. which abnormal reflex does this represent?

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Decorticate posing is sometimes referred to as "mummy baby," "decorticate response," "decorticate rigidity," and "flexor posturing."

Patients that exhibit decorticate posturing have their legs stretched and feet turned inside, their hands clenched into fists, and their arms flexed or bent inward on their chest.

What symptoms decerebrate rigidity exhibits?

Decerebrate posture is characterised by rigid arms and legs, toes pointing down, and an arched back. opisthotonic stance, characterised by a rigid, arched back and a thrown-back head

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a client has been assessed for aldosteronism and has recently begun treatment. what are priority areas for assessment that the nurse should frequently address? select all that apply.

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Urine output and Blood pressure are priority areas for assessment that the nurse should frequently address. According to research, 5% to 10% of individuals with hypertension also have primary hyper aldosteronism.

According to experts, up to 25% of individuals with medication-resistant high blood pressure may also have hyper aldosteronism. Aldosterone and renin levels in your blood will likely be measured during a screening test if your doctor suspects primary aldosteronism. Your kidneys release renin, which aids in blood pressure regulation. You can have primary aldosteronism if your renin level is very low and your aldosterone level is high.

Some of the tests your doctor recommends, including this screening test, may be impacted by certain blood pressure drugs, including spironolactone and eplerenone. It could be necessary for you to temporarily cease taking your prescription.

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the nurse is assessing antibody levels for a client recovering from hepatitis b. which antibody does the nurse anticipate will be present at this time?

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Hepatitis B is spread when blood, semen, or other body fluids from a person infected with the virus enters the body of someone who is not infected.

Is hepatitis B very serious?

How serious is a chronic (long-term) hepatitis B? Chronic hepatitis B can develop into a serious disease resulting in long-term health problems, including liver damage, liver failure, liver cancer, and even death.

How does hepatitis B make you feel?

Chronic hepatitis B infection may last a lifetime, possibly leading to serious illnesses such as cirrhosis and liver cancer. Some people with chronic hepatitis B may have no symptoms at all.

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an older client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. which nurse is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

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The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.

a nurse is preparing to administer a sulfonamide to a client. the nurse is aware sulfonamides are commonly used to treat which types of infections? select all that apply.

Answers

Acute otitis media, urinary tract infection, and ulcerative colitis Sulfonamides are frequently used to treat acute otitis media, urinary tract infection, and ulcerative colitis.

What does "infection" mean to you?

Infection is the spread and development of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, etc parasites that are not typically found in the body. Either a subclinical infection, which has no symptoms, or a clinically obvious illness, which does.

what is a body  an infection?

Bacteria can proliferate so swiftly that they crowd out host tissues and disrupt normal function in some cases. Tissues and cells can occasionally sustain lethal injury. There are occasions when they release toxins that can paralyze, harm cells' metabolic activities, or cause a strong immune response that is harmful in and of itself.

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the nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking what medication?

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The nurse will inform the healthcare physician about these tetracycline for acne medications.

A client is not a customer.

Instead of a specific sort of customer who pays for professional assistance from a company, anybody who makes use of a company's products or services is referred to as a user. Clients often buy solutions and guidance, whereas consumers frequently buy things.

Who would you utilize as a representative client?

A customer is a person who uses a business's products or services and pays for them. Companies might be among the clients. Clients, as opposed to customers, typically have a connection or agreement with the vendor. If you purchase a cup of coffee from a café kiosk in a train station, for instance, you are a client.

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a nurse explains to her client that food is moved along the gastrointestinal (gi) tract with intermittent contractions that mix the food and move it along. these movements are found in which organ?

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Food is moved through the digestive system by muscular contractions called peristalsis, the small intestine, where waves of smooth muscle transport balls of ingested food to the gastrointestinal tract of stomach.

Peristalsis is the physiological mechanism through which food passes through your gastrointestinal tract. Your gastrointestinal tract's big, hollow organs are covered in a layer of muscle that allows the walls to move. The small intestine motion mixes the contents of each organ as it pushes food and fluids through your gastrointestinal tract. The esophagus, stomach, and intestines move when food travels through the small intestine , yet a person is often unaware of these motions.

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what Expand 2 ( c 2 ) a business major needs 3 humanities courses to graduate. they can be selected from 29 courses offered. how many ways can the 3 courses be selected? what is the maximum speed of a 330 kg car if the spring is compressed the full amount? express your answer with the appropriate units. today anthropologists use a cladistic or phylogenetic approach to classifying the over 200 taxa of primates. this approach groups organisms according to a common ancestor. complete the following chart of the primate order. 27. Joe plays the guitar nicely. Which one is the adverb?O nicelyO guitarO playsO the if your body has a density of 976 kg/m3, what percent of you will be submerged when floating gently in the following liquids? (a) freshwater % (b) salt water, which has a density of 1,030 kg/m3 According to the preamble to the Bill of Rights, what is the purpose of the Bill of Rights? a) to explain the history of rights in the United States b) to stop citizens from depriving others of their rightsc) to establish a system of equality for all Americansd) to prevent the government from abusing its power A researcher is interested in whether using your finger to follow the words you are reading changes reading speed. He has students complete a reading speed test, first without using their fingers to follow the words and then again while using their fingers to follow the words. The researcher randomly selects a sample of 56 students who, at the beginning of the study, scored an average of 256 words per minute on the reading speed test. In the trial where they used their fingers while they read, the students scored an average of 6 words per minute higher. The standard deviation of the difference scores was 29. Since the sample size is larger than 30, the researcher can assume that the sampling distribution of MD is normal. He uses a repeated-measures t test to test that the mean difference is zero, and he describes the results as follows: In the trial where they used their fingers while they read, the reading speed among students is not significantly different than when they do not use their fingers while they read, t(55) = 1.55, p = 0.127. If the researcher had used a repeated-measures ANOVA to test that the mean reading speed is the same before and after using their fingers while they read, he would describe the results as follows (fill in all missing values): In the trial where they used their fingers while they read, the reading speed among students is different than when they do not use their fingers while they read, F()=, p = 0.127. Using the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram below, determine which type of star has the following characteristics: A star with surface temperature 10,000 K and luminosity 0.001 times that of the Sun. which electron carrier is most appropriate for accepting two electrons as a hydride ion and then later participating in an anabolic pathway? Twenty-three tribes in washington operated gaming facilities in 2013, showing that indigenous tribes. onion company, whose fiscal year ends on december 31st, purchased a vehicle for $41,000 on march 12, 2022. the vehicles estimated useful life is five years, and it is expected to be driven 150,000 miles (20,000 miles in the first year and 32,500 for each of the remaining four years). onion estimates the salvage value at $3,500. using the units-of-activity method, what amount of depreciation expense will onion company record in year 3? $8,125 select all occur in a fight-or-flight situation. check all that apply glycogenolysis and release of glucose from the liver glycogenolysis and release of glucose from the liver vasoconstriction of coronary arteries surrounding the heart vasoconstriction of coronary arteries surrounding the heart release of renin from the kidney, resulting in increased blood pressurerelease of renin from the kidney, resulting in increased blood pressure constriction of air passageways within the lungs a client diagnosed with bladder cancer wants to avoid surgery. for which intravesical treatment will the nurse prepare teaching for this client? Explain the significance of a large centralized state. I am a number with 3 tens and 23 ones. What number am I which of the following is the best example of a stressor? a) sleeping b) petting your dog c) reading a book d) winning the lottery a junk yard located across from a subdivision would cause: select one: a. functional obsolescence b. environmental obsolescence c. physical obsolescence d. non-conforming obsolescence g what is the magnitude of the tension ta in rope a? a. 500 n b. 3200 n c. 370 n d. 130 n e. 100 n f. 400 n value: 10 if the axis of rotation is placed on rope a, then the torques of f If gravity is the only force that plays a role in the evolution of the universe, and the mass density is less than the critical mass density, which plot correctly shows the evolution of the universe?.