The older adult with diabetes mellitus may present manifestations of hypoglycemia and anxiety. Confusion symptom might indicate hypoglycemia in the older adult
When the amount of sugar (glucose) in your blood falls too low, the condition is known as low blood sugar, commonly referred to as hypoglycaemia or a "hypo." It mostly affects diabetics, anxiety particularly if they use insulin. If not treated right away, that differ from the classic symptoms of tachycardia, restlessness, low blood sugar hypoglycaemia can be dangerous, but you can usually anxiety take care of it on your own.
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a nurse is assessing a client who has recently lost her husband. during the interview the nurse realizes that the client is unable to cope with the loss. the client finds it difficult to organize daily tasks or solve problems effectively. which suggestion would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest as a crisis intervention?
To ask for help from family and friends would be the most suitable option for the nurse to make as a crisis intervention.
One of the best coping strategies is asking for support from a friend or a counsellor. Exercise, meditation, and journaling are some more healthy coping mechanisms. Attacking and upsetting other people is an example of a bad coping method for stress. Discussing your feelings with friends might help you cope with loss and maintaining a journal One of the ways a nurse may advise you to cope with the loss is to write in a notebook. This not only helps you process your sorrow, but it also keeps a record of how far along you are in the grieving process.
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which is the only completely reliable way to avoid exposure to sexually transmitted diseases? a. take antibiotics on a regular basis b. have annual medical examinations c. engage in oral sex only d. abstain from sexual activity
The only complete and reliable way to avoid exposure to se- xually transmitted diseases from the task given above is abstain from sexual activity.
The correct answer choice is option d.
How to prevent se- xually transmitted diseasesSe-xually transmitted diseases are those diseases which one can be infected with through sex. However, there are several ways in which one can prevent contacting this disease; among which include the following:
Abstaining from se- xual activitiesUse of protective measures such as con- domsAvoid contacts with the Sharp objects used by infected person's.In conclusion, it can be deduced from the explanations given above that se- xually transmitted diseases is a deadly disease.
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3.if not genetic, is there another explanation for the prevalence of myocardial infarctions and high cholesterol in this pedigree? please explain.
The most straightforward way to explain how cholesterol and myocardial infarction are related is that a low-cholesterol diet will lower cholesterol. Plaque finds cholesterol to be particularly alluring.
What is the primary reason for myocardial infarctions?
When there is insufficient blood supply to a portion of the heart muscle, a myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, occurs. The longer it goes without treatment to improve blood flow, the more damage is done to the heart muscle. Heart attacks are primarily brought on by coronary artery disease (CAD).
How are myocardial infarctions and heart attacks different?
According to reports, a blockage that prevents oxygen-rich blood from reaching the heart causes myocardial infarction (MI), also referred to as a heart attack.
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a couple, concerned because the woman has not been able to conceive, is referred to a healthcare provider for a fertility workup and a hysterosalpingography is scheduled. which complaint would indicate to the nurse that the woman's fallopian tubes are patent?
A subdiaphragmatic collection with peritoneal dye/gas causes discomfort if the tubes are patent (open), which refers the pain to the shoulder (C).
How uncomfortable is peritoneal dialysis?Are PD therapies painful? Since PD doesn't request any blood, there are no needle sticks. Simply put, fluid enter your abdomen through the catheter, stays like that for a bit, and afterwards empties back out. This process is typically painless.
The peritoneal contains what organs?The ligaments, mesentery, and omentum are all located within the peritoneal cavity. The stomach, spleen, liver, jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and the first and fourth portions of the duodenum are among the intraperitoneal organs.
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Which type of psychotherapy has been found to help improve a variety of symptoms and protect against loss of gray matter in the brain of those with schizophrenia?.
According to the findings of a two-year randomized controlled trial, cognitive enhancement therapy prevents gray matter loss in early schizophrenia.
How does a psychotherapist actually help people?For the treatment of mental diseases and emotional disorders, a psychotherapist employs talk therapy. Psychotherapists might be psychiatrists, psychologists, counselors, or social workers depending on their educational background and area of specialization. They are capable of assisting lone people, pairs, groups, or families.
What kind of psychotherapy is a good example of?The use of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), which enables you to identify unhelpful, harmful beliefs and behaviors and replace them with helpful, constructive ones, has been shown to be an effective psychotherapy technique despite the fact that there are numerous different types of therapies available.
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a client with urinary incontinence is prescribed incontinence briefs. which factors should be included in the client education the nurse provides?
Exercise your pelvic floor. bladder exercise. instruction in proper toilet behavior. prescription drugs, like a brief course of laxatives, are used to alleviate constipation. assistance like diapers for incontinence.
What may be contributing variables for temporary incontinence of the urinary tract?This paper discusses 10 typical reversible causes of acute or transitory UI, including genitourinary syndrome of menopause, urinary tract infection, stool impaction or constipation, limited dexterity or movement, irritants, medications, polyuria, urine retention, and delirium/mental state.
What treatment options are available for a patient with incontinence?Anticholinergics. These drugs may help with urge incontinence and can calm an overactive bladder. Examples include darifenacin (Enablex), oxybutynin (Ditropan XL), tolterodine (Detrol), and fesoterodine.
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a nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for amniocentesis. what will the nurse teach the client about this procedure?
Amniocentesis is arranged for a patient. Before the surgery, the nurse performs Please remind the client to void.
How is an amniocentesis carried out?Your doctor will pass a tiny, hollow needle through your abdominal wall and into your uterus with the guidance of ultrasound. The needle will be taken out when a little volume of amniotic fluid is extracted into a syringe.
What amniocentesis parameter does the nurse check?To ensure that the fetus is alive before the amniocentesis is performed and that no fetal distress has been induced by the procedure, the fetal heart rate is monitored both before and after the amniocentesis.
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a patient with severe environmental allergies is scheduled for the first in a planned series of immunotherapy injections. what should be included in teaching the patient about the injection?
The patient will remain in the clinic for 30 minutes to be observed after the injection. For a patient with severe environmental allergies, the first of a planned series of immunotherapy injections is scheduled.
What does immunotherapy do in practice?
Immunology, a type of cancer therapy, supports your immune system's capacity to fight cancer. The immune system in your body helps to protect you against infections and diseases. Its constituent parts include organs, white blood cells, and lymph system elements. Immunotherapy is part of biological treatment.
What proportion of immunotherapy patients make it out alive?
Immunotherapy is helping patients get better outcomes with advanced kidney, lung, bladder, and other tumors that usually have a poor diagnosis. response rate usual for people with cancer
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at a hospital, 40% of the nurses work in labor and delivery. if 20 nurses work in labor and delivery. how many nurses work at a hospital?
A hospital employs 50 nurses, of whom 40 work in labor and delivery. if there are 20 nurses that assist with delivery. "OF" is always a multiplier.
Exactly who are nurses?
The term of nurse implies that the holder possesses the knowledge, expertise, capability, and competency necessary to deliver a particular caliber of care. Nursing requires rigorous study and clinical competence in disciplines like patient assessment, biology, pathophysiology, and pharmacology.
What is the highest title for a nurse?
Understanding the Nursing Hierarchy. Nursing director (CNO): At the summit of the pyramid is the CNO, sometimes known as the chief nursing executive (CNE). This administrative role typically reports to the hospital or agency's CEO.
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hillcrest health system includes an acute care hospital, a nursing facility, and primary care clinics. all records are stored in the him department, thus making the file area very active. for scheduled visits to primary care providers, records must be requisitioned 24 hours in advance. this is a(n) requisition.
This is a requisition for test or laboratory
What is a requisition ?Requisitions are requests for products or services made by employees to the person or division within an organisation that is in charge of purchasing. If the request is granted, the requesting party will send a purchase order (PO) for the requested products or services to a supplier.
Your doctor or the local physician uses requisition forms, also known as referral forms, to express precisely the type of examination you need for a medical assessment. These forms give our technologists instructions by indicating the locations of diagnostic imaging that are required, such as your left shoulder or right ankle.
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harmacologic therapy frequently is used to dissolve small gallstones. it takes about how many months of medication with udca or cdca for stones to dissolve?
It takes 6 to 12 for gallstones to get dissolved.
What are gallstones and how does it gets dissolved ?Bile that has been stored in the gallbladder solidifies into a substance like stone to create gallstones. Gallstones can be brought on by an excess of cholesterol, bile salts, or bilirubin (a bile pigment).
Cholelithiasis is the medical term for the presence of gallstones within the gallbladder itself.
Small, radiolucent gallstones predominantly made of cholesterol have been broken down with ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA [URSO, Actigall]) and chenodeoxycholic acid (chenodiol or CDCA [Chenix]).
Many patients need six to twelve months of therapy to dissolve stones, and throughout this time, the patient must be watched for the recurrence of symptoms or the development of side effects (such as GI issues, pruritus, or headaches).
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the nurse is conducting a health assessment for a school-age child who is new to the pediatric practice. which questions would the nurse ask the child and parents related to growth? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
"When did your child cut his or her first tooth? How tall was your child when they were a year old How much did your childweight when they were six months, a year, a year, and five years old?
How is weight defined?It represents how much gravity is pulling on a body. W = mg is the weight formula. Given that weight is a force, it has the same SI unit as a force, which is the Newton (N).
What is a good example of weight?The newton, a unit of force in the International System of Units (SI), is used to quantify weight. For instance, an object with a mass from one kilogram weighs around 9.8 newtons on the surface of the Earth and about one-sixth as much on the Moon.
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the nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client receiving a high-protein diet while recovering from an acute episode of colitis. which would the nurse include in the rationale for this diet?
Reason: Protein is necessary for the development and maintenance of intestinal tissues..
Is tissue in the intestines?There are four layers of specialized tissue that make up the gastrointestinal tract's wall. The following come from the gut's lumen, or inner cavity: Mucosa. Submucosa.
What organs and tissues make up the intestines?A thin, straightforward columnar epithelial layer is present in the stomach and intestines for secretion and absorption. A substantial layer of loose connective tissue called the submucosa surrounds the mucosa. Additionally, there are nerves, lymphatic, and blood vessels in this stratum. This layer could have embedded glands.
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how would teh nurse respond to the parents of anewborn with phenyleketonuria who ask how long will our hcild have ot b eon this diet
The duration of the this low phenylketonuria diet varies according to the development and cure of phenylketonuria in a new born that is in an Infant.
What do you mean by phenylketonuria (PKU) ?Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inborn error of metabolism in body which generally results in decreased metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine (C9H11NO2).
Phenylketonuria, generally known as PKU, is a rare hereditary condition that results in an accumulation of the amino acid phenylalanine in the body. The phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) gene is altered in PKU. The enzyme required to degrade phenylalanine is produced in part because to this gene.To know more about Phenylketonuria (PKU) visit
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describe possible evidence you could collect to help you determine if these cases are connected, to identify the source of the infection, and to answer your questions from step 10.
The following are crucial elements of source of the infection: (1) define the case(s); (2) validate the validity of the cases; 3) determine the illness background rate; 4) identify cases, determine the extent of any outbreak, and make a decision; 5) Look at the descriptive epidemiological characteristics of the cases; 6)
How can infectious diseases be distinguished?By finding a bacteria, virus, fungus, protozoan, or helminth in a patient with a clinical condition that is compatible, infectious disorders can be identified.
What are the three primary ways to recognize infectious agents?Three groups of approaches are used to identify microorganisms: direct detection techniques, in vitro cultivation systems, and indirect detection based on serological techniques that gauge the host immune response to a potential infectious pathogen.
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the primary health care provider prescribes adalimumab. the nurse would prepare to administer this drug by which route?
The nurse would prepare to administer adalimumab drug via subcutaneous injection.
What is subcutaneous administration?Subcutaneous is a synonym for skin-deep. The subcutis, the layer of skin immediately under the dermis and epidermis, generally known as the cutis, is injected subcutaneously as a bolus. A small needle is used in this sort of injection to deliver a medicine into the tissue layer that lies between the skin and the muscle. Drugs that can be supplied in small amounts are among the medications that can be injected subcutaneously.
A subcutaneous injection is used to provide the disease-modifying antirheumatic medication (DMARD), adalimumab. It is used to treat arthritis.
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a nurse is assessing a client with possible osteoarthritis. what is the most significant risk factor for primary osteoarthritis?
When a nurse evaluates a client who may have osteoarthritis, age is the most important significant predictor for primary osteoarthritis.
What characterizes an excellent nurse?The characteristics that make us unique on an individual basis and benefit you as a nurse are fairness, compassion, empathy, and emotional stability. Your communication abilities are strong. You are excellent at communicating with patients and coworkers, even when they are going through difficult circumstances.
Is a nurse a doctor?The simple answer is that a DNP nursing may use the title "doctor," although some jurisdictions have laws governing it. For instance, nursing staff, community health workers, and other professionals are prohibited from using the title "doctor" in Arizona or Delaware unless they immediately define their position.
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an older adult client with a recent diagnosis of diabetes states feeling exasperated and overwhelmed by the regimen of glucose testing, dietary modifications and medications. the nurse will assess for further signs of what concern?
The nurse will evaluate the patient's emotional and psychological requirements. Depression, poor eating habits, and anxiety of hyper- or hypoglycemia are some of the psychological and mental issues.
The patient may be afraid of overdose, insulin beginning, hypoglycemia unpleasant symptoms & late consequences, needles or injections, compulsive behaviour, or hypoglycemia. In severe circumstances, patients with these disorders may forget to monitor their blood sugar levels or provide their insulin dose.
Diabetes patients frequently experience anxiety due to injection anxiety, which is particularly prevalent in those who have never received insulin. Extreme self-injection phobia has been linked to psychiatric comorbidity, low general wellbeing, high levels of diabetes-related discomfort, and poor adherence to diabetes treatment regimens.
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which interventions would a nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient diagnosed with a sexual dysfunction? select all that apply
The nurse should explain that sexual disorders such as paraphilic disorder, which causes people to engage in improper sexual conduct, differ from sexual dysfunction, which impairs normal sexual responses.
What is the root of sexual dysfunction?Erectile dysfunction can be brought on by physical conditions like diabetes, obesity, smoking, high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and heart disease. On the other side, mental health issues including melancholy, anxiety, stress, marital issues, and others can also affect how you feel about yourself sexually.
How does sexual dysfunction make you feel?Involuntary painful muscle spasms (spasms) around the vagina, pain during sex, lack of interest in (or desire for) sex, and issues with arousal or orgasm are all examples of sexual dysfunction. These issues must make the lady feel uncomfortable for a sexual dysfunction disorder to be diagnosed.
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a community health nurse is assigned to work in a different area of the city. which assessment techniques could be used to develop an overview of the community? select all that apply.
A demographic data review and survey of windshields. The nurse is working with a community of solution.
Data on the neighborhood are obtained via demographic data and windshield surveys. Nurse could talk to locals about their opinions or experiences with this community; but, physical exam of a representative sample of the population would not provide her with information about the group as a whole. Nurse could also want to consult with local healthcare professionals, but reading their information would be against HIPAA regulations and would assume that the records correctly reflect the general public's health concerns. The very young and the extremely elderly, those with chronic diseases, pregnant women, people with low socioeconomic data , and survivors of abuse or trauma are among the vulnerable populations.
(A community health nurse is assigned to work in a different area of the city. Which of the following assessment techniques would she likely use to develop an overview of the community? Choose all that apply.
1)Windshield survey
2)Review of demographic data
3)Physical assessment of a sample of the inhabitants
4)Review of the records of area providers)
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the nurse is preparing the nursing care plan for a newborn who was born via a cesarean delivery. which diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?
Every newborn contact must have their respiratory health evaluated as the top priority in infant care.
What instructions should the nurse provide the mother when showing her how to care for the umbilical cord of her child?Keep the area dry and spotless. Keep the diaper folded down to the stump on your child. If that is unsuccessful, you should first cut out a little portion of the diaper's top so that the chord will remain exposed to air.
What should the nurse look for while examining the newborn's umbilical cord?One larger vein and two smaller arteries should be present when the nurse examines the vessels in the umbilical cord.
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which description would the nurse provide the parents of an infant who are asking about what a patent ductus arteriosis is
The nurse provide the parents of an infant who are asking about patent ductus arteriosus is that patent ductus arteriosus is a major opening between the two major blood vessels coming from heart.
What is patent ductus arteriosus?Patent ductus arteriosus is a major opening between the two major blood vessels coming from heart. Such small opening is no harmful but a large one can create following symptoms:
Poor eating Failure to thrive BreathlessnessBlood vessels:The blood circulatory path through out our body is termed as blood vessels. These are of three types :
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a client at 12 weeks' gestation reports nausea, breast tenderness, and fatigue. which problem is a priority when the client's partner is tired of the constant complaining?
Trimester is another word you'll hear a lot of during your pregnancy. Trimesters are used to categorize pregnancies; the first trimester lasts from week one to week twelve. From week 13 through the end of week 26, the second trimester is comprised.
What occurs at 12 weeks of pregnancy?Your infant measures about 6 cm. The fetus is now fully grown, with all of the organs, muscles, limbs, and bones in place, having nearly doubled in size over the previous four weeks.
What are the main reasons for nausea and vomiting in the first trimester of pregnancy?Although the reason for nausea and vomiting during pregnancy is uncertain, it may be related to an increase in the concentration of human chorionic gonadotrophin.
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when administering measles, mumps, rubella (mmr) and pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (pcv13) to a patient at their 15-month appointment, what must be considered regarding vaccine spacing?
MMR and PCV14 may be administered simultaneously or at any interval between doses must be considered.
What is measles?
Measles is a viral infection. It is serious for small children but is preventable by a vaccine easily.
It is an airborne disease that spreads through respiratory droplets produced from coughing or sneezing. Symptoms of measles don’t appear till 10 to 14 days after exposure.
Symptoms include a runny nose, cough, inflamed eyes, fever, sore throat and res, blotchy skin rash.
There is essentially no cure to get rid of an established measles infection, but vitamins and over-the-counter fever reducers can help with symptoms.
MMR and PCV14 may be administered simultaneously or at any interval between doses must be considered.
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Option C is correct i.e., MMR and PCV14 may be administered simultaneously or at any interval between doses.
General Principles for Vaccine Scheduling:
The type of vaccination, the recipient's age, and their immunological condition are only a few of the variables that affect how well a vaccine works. Age-specific risks for disease, age-specific risks for complications, age-specific responses to vaccination, and potential immune response interference by passively transferred maternal antibodies all affect recommendations for the age at which vaccines should be given. Members in the youngest age range at risk for contracting the disease for which vaccine efficacy and safety have been shown are typically advised to get vaccinated.
Here is the link for the table for minimum ages and intervals between vaccine doses,
https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/hcp/acip-recs/general-recs/timing.html
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198. the adaptation of muscular endurance generally requires how much rest between sets of exercise?
Adaptation of muscular endurance generally requires 30-second rest between sets of exercise.
How much rest is required between exercise for muscular endurance?The National Strength and Conditioning Association recommends 30-second rest intervals between the sets for the improvement of muscular endurance.
The best rest period is 2-5 minutes between sets, to increase strength and power. To increase muscle growth, best rest period is 30-90 seconds between sets. To increase muscular endurance, rest period of 30 seconds between sets is best.
It's recommended to take rest for 72 hours before working out the same muscle group again. This gives the body time it needs for muscle recovery and growth without risking injury from overtraining.
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a client hospitalized with a myocardial infarction (mi) who has a blood glucose level ranging from 12-28 mmol/l (216-504 mg/dl) asks the nurse why the readings are so high even though there are no added sweets on the diet tray. what is the best response by the nurse?
"The MI has boosted your body's levels of stress, and strain causes extra glucose to also be released through your body," the nurse responds best.
What does glucose do in the body?This term "sugar," which refers to glucose, refers to the main sugar found in blood. It originates from the food you eat and is the main energy source for your body. Your bloodstream supplies glucose to all of the tissues throughout the body, which they then use as fuel.
What is normal glucose level?A rise in blood sugar of less than 100 mg/dL (5.6 molar ratio) is considered normal. A fasting blood sugar level of between 100 and 126 micrograms (5.6 to 6.9 mmol/L) was deemed to be dyslipidemic. Diabetes is present if
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which measures can be taken to prevent wrong-site, wrong-client, wrong-procedure surgical errors? select all that apply.
The measures can be taken to prevent wrong-site, wrong-client, wrong-procedure surgical errors are Mark the surgical site.
What are surgical errors?Surgical errors are those mistakes done while performing surgery, these are;
unnecessary surgeries which are inoperative.Using too much anesthetic drug.Cut on other organ by mistakeno proper usage of instrument.Choosing wrong site for surgerySelection of wrong patient for prescribed surgeryPerforming wrong procedure of surgery.Measures:The measures can be taken to prevent wrong-site, wrong-client, wrong-procedure surgical errors are :
Mark the surgical site.Take or use a preoperative checklistPre operated time out needs to be performed.To know more about surgical errors visit
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supplements of the antioxidant nutrients appear to prevent or slow the progression of cataracts. a. true b. false
Is the skeletal system interdependent on the integumentary system?
A. Yes, the skeletal system is interdependent of the integumentary system. The main objective is the bones rely on the skin for the synthesis of vitamin D3. Without vitamin D3 (a steroid that is converted to calcitriol), a normal calcium metabolism wouldn’t be maintained). Calcium is one of the hearts of bone structure; with a lack of calcium, the bones would become very brittle and lead to cases such as osteoporosis and multiple fractures.
B. No, because the skeletal system consists of both fused and individual bones supported and supplemented by ligaments, tendons, muscles, and cartilage. It serves as a scaffold that supports organs, anchors muscles, and protects organs such as the brain, lungs, and heart. And the integumentary system is the organ system that protects the body from damage, comprising the skin and its appendages (including hair, scales, feathers, and nails). So, therefore, we need the integumentary system to protect the skeletal system at all times, when we move our skin moves.
C. Yes, the skeletal system is interdependent on the integumentary system. One function of the integumentary system is to synthesize vitamin D3. The skeletal system depends on the synthesis of vitamin D for bone growth and bone remodeling by the osteoblast and osteoclast. Vitamin D is needed to absorb calcium into the circulatory system from the digestive system.
(HELP NEEDED ASAP. I REALLY APPRECIATE IT)
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Yes, the skeletal system is interdependent on the integumentary system. One function of the integumentary system is to synthesize vitamin D3. The correct option is C.
What is the skeletal system?The skeletal system includes the bones of the body. It acts as a framework for muscles to bind to. When the muscles contract, they pull on the skeleton's bones, which function as levers to create movement. It safeguards our interior organs.
The skull guards the brain, whereas the thorax (sternum, ribs, and spine) guards the heart, lungs, and other viscera (organs within the thorax). The skeleton's bones are a source of both red blood cells (which transport oxygen) and white blood cells (which combat infection), which are generated in the bone marrow.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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a 56-year-old woman with severe varicose veins has opted for venous ablation, and the nurse is providing patient education before the scheduled procedure. what instructions should the nurse provide to this patient?
"We'll help you get walking as soon as your sedation has worn off, and you'll continue to gradually increase your activity level," is the advice the nurse should give to this patient.
What are varicose veins?Twisted, swollen veins are known as varicose veins. Varicose veins can develop in any superficial vein, or vein that is close to the skin's surface. Varicose veins most commonly affect the leg veins. This is due to the added pressure that standing and walking place on the lower body's veins.
What is venous ablation?Endo-venous ablation burns and seals varicose veins with energy. It is used by doctors to treat symptoms like pain, edoema, and irritation. Ablation is risk-free, less intrusive than surgery, and almost scar-scarless.
What are some typical applications for the technique?This treatment may be used by doctors for cosmetic reasons. However, it is more frequently employed to relieve signs and symptoms like:
Throbbing or agonizing painLeg tiredness and heavinessRashes or blisters on the skin (ulcers)Color of the skinUncomfortable vein enlargement (phlebitis)To learn more about varicose veins visit:
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