The nurse would report the following assessment finding to the primary healthcare provider (PHCP) before initiating thrombolytic therapy in a client with pulmonary embolism:
Any signs of contraindications or high risk for bleeding, such as recent surgery, trauma, or active bleeding disorders. Thrombolytic therapy carries a significant risk of causing or exacerbating bleeding, and it is crucial to identify any factors that may increase this risk before initiating treatment.
Reporting the presence of these contraindications or bleeding risk factors to the PHCP helps in making an informed decision about the appropriateness and safety of thrombolytic therapy. Close monitoring of vital signs, laboratory values, and any changes in bleeding status is necessary throughout the treatment process.
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the rdn is collaborating with the client to identify goals of the intervention and expected outcomes, writing a nutrition prescription, and defining time and frequency of care including intensity, duration and follow up. the rdn is in what step or phase of the nutrition care process?
the rdn is collaborating with the client to identify goals of the intervention, so the step or phase of the nutrition the rdn is in is Planning Phase (option A).
The Registered Dietitian Nutritionist (RDN) is currently in the Planning-Phase of the Nutrition Care Process. In this phase, the RDN collaborates with the client to identify goals of the intervention and expected outcomes. This involves discussing the client's dietary needs, preferences, and health concerns, and then developing a nutrition prescription that aligns with the client's specific requirements. The RDN also determines the appropriate time and frequency of care, considering factors such as the intensity and duration of the intervention, as well as the need for follow-up appointments to monitor progress and make any necessary adjustments. The Planning Phase is a crucial step in designing a tailored nutrition intervention for the client and sets the foundation for the subsequent phases of implementation and monitoring/evaluation.
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complete question:
The RDN is collaborating with the client to identify goals of the intervention and expected outcomes, writing a nutrition prescription, and defining time and frequency of care including intensity, duration and follow up. The RDN is in what step or phase of the Nutrition Care Process?
A. Planning Phase B. Data Collection C. Implementing Phase D. Monitoring and Evaluation
a 36-year-old woman presents to the ed with sudden onset of left-sided chest pain and mild shortness of breath that began the night before. she was able to fall asleep without difficulty but woke up in the morning with persistent pain that is worsened upon taking a deep breath. she walked up the stairs at home and became very short of breath, which made her come to the ed. two weeks ago, she took a 7-hour flight from europe and since then has left-sided calf pain and swelling. what is the most common ecg finding for this patient's presentation?
The most common ECG finding for this patient's presentation is the presence of sinus tachycardia.
Sinus tachycardia is characterized by a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute originating from the sinus node. In this case, the patient's symptoms, including sudden-onset left-sided chest pain, mild shortness of breath, and worsened pain upon deep breath, along with the history of a recent long-haul flight and left-sided calf pain and swelling, raise suspicion for a pulmonary embolism (PE).
Sinus tachycardia is often seen in patients with PE as a compensatory response to decreased oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. However, further diagnostic testing, such as a CT pulmonary angiogram or ventilation-perfusion scan, would be necessary to confirm the diagnosis of PE.
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the nurse is assisting in caring for a client with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (mods). the nurse understands that which intervention is most important in the care of clients with this syndrome?
The nurse understands that the most important intervention in the care of clients with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is providing supportive care and managing the underlying cause.
MODS is a severe condition characterized by the dysfunction of multiple organs, often resulting from a systemic inflammatory response. The nurse's priority is to stabilize the client's condition and provide appropriate interventions to support failing organs.
This may include administering medications, such as vasopressors or antibiotics, maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance, ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation, monitoring vital signs and organ function, and coordinating interdisciplinary care. By addressing the underlying cause and providing comprehensive supportive care, the nurse aims to prevent further organ damage and optimize the client's chances of recovery.
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which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a client with renal calculi? decreased cardiac output functional urinary incontinence risk for infection ineffective tissue perfusion (renal)
Threat of infection A client with renal calculi is a good candidate for a nursing diagnosis. For patients with urolithiasis (renal calculi), the following four nurse care plans (NCP) and nursing diagnoses are provided: Chronic Pain. Hence (c) is the correct option.
Urinary Elimination Impairment. Lack of Fluid Volume Risk. A number of medical diagnoses linked to heart failure and acute myocardial infarction include the nursing diagnosis of reduced cardiac output as one of their component parts. Even though medical therapies are a crucial component of the care of critically sick patients, the decision to begin such therapies is frequently made by nurses. A common nursing diagnostic called impaired urinary elimination describes a patient's inability to adequately evacuate urine.
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Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a client with renal calculi?
A. Ineffective tissue perfusion (renal)
B. Functional urinary incontinence
C. Risk for infection
D. Decreased cardiac output
the nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank for administration to a client with anemia. the nurse has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse. just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse would assess which priority item?
The nurse has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse, just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse assesses Vital signs, option A.
A blood transfusion is the intravenous injection of blood products into a person's circulation. Transfusions are used to replace blood components that have been lost in various medical conditions. While whole blood was used in early transfusions, plasma, platelets, red blood cells, white blood cells, and other blood components are typically used in modern medicine.
Red platelets (RBC) contain hemoglobin, and supply the cells of the body with oxygen. White blood cells are a part of the immune system and fight infections, but they are rarely used in transfusions. Plasma is the "yellowish" fluid piece of blood, which goes about as a cradle, and contains proteins and significant substances required for the body's general wellbeing. The body is prevented from bleeding because platelets are involved in blood clotting. Before these parts were known, specialists accepted that blood was homogeneous. Many patients died as a result of being given blood that wasn't compatible with them because of this scientific misunderstanding.
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Complete question:
The nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank and has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse. Just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse assesses which priority item?
a. Vital signs
b. Skin color
c. Urine output
D. Latest hematocrit level
what is the recommended first iv/io dose of admiodarone for patients in cardiac arrest with vf/pvt that is unresponsive to defibrilation
The recommended first intravenous (IV) or intraosseous (IO) dose of amiodarone for patients in cardiac arrest with ventricular fibrillation (VF).
Pulseless ventricular tachycardia (PVT) that is unresponsive to defibrillation is typically 300 mg. This initial dose is given as a rapid IV or IO bolus. If needed, a second dose of 150 mg can be administered after the first dose.
However, it is important to follow specific guidelines and protocols established by the healthcare facility and consult with medical professionals to ensure the appropriate dosage and administration based on the individual patient's condition and response to treatment.
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Complete Question:
What is the recommended first intravenous (IV) or intraosseous (IO) dose of amiodarone for patients in cardiac arrest with ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (PVT) that is unresponsive to defibrillation?
the nurse is caring for a client who has overdosed on phenobarbital. the nurse anticipates which assessment finding with this client?
In a client who has overdosed on phenobarbital, the nurse anticipates various assessment findings, including:
CNS depression: The client may exhibit drowsiness, lethargy, confusion, or even coma due to the sedative effects of phenobarbital.Respiratory depression: Phenobarbital overdose can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to shallow or slow breathing.Hypotension: The client may have low blood pressure due to the medication's effect on the cardiovascular system.Bradycardia: Phenobarbital can slow down the heart rate, resulting in a decreased pulse rate.Hypothermia: The client may have a lower body temperature due to the CNS depressant effects of the medication.It is crucial for the nurse to promptly recognize these assessment findings, initiate appropriate interventions such as airway support and monitoring vital signs, and notify the healthcare provider for further management and treatment of phenobarbital overdose.
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the nurse is careful to apply only the prescribed amount of ointment to the skin of a 2-month-old infant. how is infant skin different from adult skin?
When applying ointment to an infant's skin, it is important to use only the prescribed amount and to be careful not to get the ointment in the infant's eyes or mouth.
Infant skin is different from adult skin in several ways. Some of the key differences include:
Thicker skin: Infant skin is thicker and more robust than adult skin, which helps to protect the delicate tissues of the body from injury and infection.
Higher water content: Infant skin has a higher water content than adult skin, which helps to keep the skin hydrated and soft.
More sensitive: Infant skin is more sensitive than adult skin, which means it is more prone to irritation and damage.
Easier to damage: Because infant skin is thinner and more delicate than adult skin, it is easier to damage or irritate. This makes it important to be extra careful when caring for an infant's skin.
Different skin care needs: Infant skin has different skin care needs than adult skin. For example, it is important to use gentle, fragrance-free products that are free from harsh chemicals when caring for an infant's skin.
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the maternity nurse is describing the ovarian cycle to a group of nursing students and asks a nursing student to identify the phases of the cycle. which phases stated by the nursing student indicate a need for further teaching in this area? select all that apply.
phases stated by the nursing student indicate a need for further teaching in this area are: Secretory phase , Proliferative phase (Option 3,4)
The correct phases of the ovarian cycle are as follows:
Follicular phase: This includes the proliferative phase, during which the ovarian follicles develop and mature.
Ovulatory phase: This is the phase when the mature follicle ruptures, releasing the egg.
Luteal phase: This follows ovulation and is characterized by the development of the corpus luteum, which produces hormones to prepare the uterus for possible implantation.
The secretory phase is actually a part of the menstrual cycle, not the ovarian cycle. It refers to the phase of the menstrual cycle when the endometrium thickens in preparation for potential implantation of a fertilized egg.
The proliferative phase, on the other hand, is a phase of the ovarian cycle. It is the early part of the follicular phase, during which the ovarian follicles start to grow and develop in response to hormonal signals.
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complete question:
The maternity nurse is describing the ovarian cycle to a group of nursing students and ask a nursing to identify the phases of the cycle. Which phases stated by the nursing student indicate a need for FURTHER teaching in this area? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
1. Luteal phase
2. Ovulatory phase
3. Secretory phase
4. Proliferative phase
5. Preovulatory phase
a nurse is monitoring a client on sulfonamide therapy. which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is developing thrombocytopenia?
Thrombocytopenia refers to a decrease in the number of platelets in the blood, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding.
If a nurse is monitoring a client on sulfonamide therapy and suspects the development of thrombocytopenia, they would be vigilant for certain findings. These may include spontaneous or excessive bruising, petechiae (small, pinpoint-sized red or purple spots on the skin), prolonged bleeding from minor cuts or injuries, bleeding gums, blood in the urine or stool, and the presence of unexplained nosebleeds.
Additionally, the nurse would monitor the client for signs of bleeding internally, such as a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, or signs of organ damage related to hemorrhage. Prompt recognition and reporting of these signs are crucial to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications associated with thrombocytopenia.
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a nurse is preparing a client for bronchoscopy. which instruction should the nurse give to the client?
Before a bronchoscopy, the nurse should provide the following instructions to the client: Fasting: The client should not eat or drink anything for a certain number of hours before the procedure, as advised by the healthcare provider.
Medications: The client should inform the nurse about any medications they are taking, including over-the-counter medications, herbal supplements, and vitamins, and whether they should be taken before or after the procedure.
Allergies: The client should inform the nurse about any allergies they have, including allergies to medications, anesthesia, or latex.
Prepare for the procedure: The client should wash their hands thoroughly with soap and water, and remove any jewelry, makeup, or other items that may interfere with the procedure.
Arrive on time: The client should arrive at the hospital or clinic on time for the procedure, as the nurse will need to prepare them for the procedure.
What to expect during the procedure: The nurse should explain to the client what to expect during the bronchoscopy, including the type of anesthesia used, the duration of the procedure, and any potential risks or complications.
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a patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (als) is being prepared for discharge. what teaching would be essential for the family to receive before taking the patient home? select all that apply.
A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is being prepared for discharge, and the family should receive essential teaching points before taking the patient home. These include:
A. Proper positioning and turning techniques to prevent pressure ulcers, as immobility can increase the risk of skin breakdown.
B. Safe swallowing techniques and strategies to prevent aspiration, as ALS can affect the muscles involved in swallowing.
C. Assistance with daily activities of living, such as bathing and dressing, as ALS progressively impairs motor function.
D. Administration of medications to manage symptoms and slow disease progression, as specific medications may be prescribed for ALS.
E. Importance of regular physical exercise and mobility exercises to maintain muscle strength, as physical activity can help delay muscle weakness.
F. Recognizing and managing respiratory distress and the use of respiratory support devices, as ALS eventually affects the respiratory muscles.
By providing this education, the family can support the patient's well-being and ensure appropriate care at home.
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Complete Question:
A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is being prepared for discharge. Which of the following teaching points would be essential for the family to receive before taking the patient home? Select all that apply.
A. Proper positioning and turning techniques to prevent pressure ulcers
B. Safe swallowing techniques and strategies to prevent aspiration
C. Assistance with daily activities of living, such as bathing and dressing
D. Administration of medications to manage symptoms and slow disease progression
E. Importance of regular physical exercise and mobility exercises to maintain muscle strength
F. Recognizing and managing respiratory distress and the use of respiratory support devices
a client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with an upper gastrointestinal (gi) bleed. the nurse would expect which condition to be the primary cause?
A client admitted to the medical-surgical unit with an upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed is likely to have a condition known as peptic ulcer disease or gastric ulcers as the primary cause.
Peptic ulcers are sores that develop in the lining of the stomach or small intestine and are caused by a combination of factors, including the use of certain medications (such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or NSAIDs), chronic stress, and a bacterium called Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori). Symptoms of a peptic ulcer may include abdominal pain, particularly in the upper abdomen, nausea, and vomiting. In some cases, the ulcer may bleed, causing the client to experience blood in their stool or vomit.
The nurse would expect to assess the client for signs and symptoms of peptic ulcer disease, such as abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse would also expect to monitor the client's vital signs, blood pressure, and fluid status, and administer medications as ordered to manage the client's pain and prevent further bleeding.
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the patient in the clinic presents with a history of gi bleed, a hemoglobin of 7.8 mg/dl along with heart palpitations and hr of 102 bpm. which additional manifestations should the nurse anticipate in this patient?
The additional manifestations should the nurse anticipate in this patient Dyspnea, option C.
An uncomfortable sensation of not being able to breathe adequately is known as shortness of breath (SOB), which is also referred to medically as dyspnea (in AmE) or dyspnoea (in BrE). The American Thoracic Culture characterizes it as "an emotional encounter of breathing uneasiness that comprises of subjectively particular impressions that change in power", and suggests assessing dyspnea by evaluating the force of its unmistakable sensations, the level of pain and distress included, and its weight or effect on the patient's exercises of day to day living. The tripod position is frequently assumed to be a sign because distinct sensations include effort or work to breathe, chest tightness or pain, and "air hunger" (the feeling of not having enough oxygen).
DiagnosisPro, an online medical expert system, listed 497 distinct causes in October 2010. The most common cardiovascular causes are acute myocardial infarction and congestive heart failure, while common pulmonary causes include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, pneumothorax, pulmonary edema, and pneumonia On a pathophysiological basis, the causes can be divided into the following categories: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e 1) an expanded attention to typical breathing, for example, during a mental breakdown, (2) an expansion in crafted by breathing and (3) an irregularity in the ventilatory or respiratory framework.
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Complete question:
The patient in the clinic presents with a history of GI bleed, a hemoglobin of 7.8 mg/dL along with heart palpitations and HR of 102 bpm. Which additional manifestations should the nurse anticipate in this patient?
a Diarrhea
b Jaundice
c Dyspnea
d Sensitivity to cold
the nurse is educating unlicensed nursing assistive personnel (nap) about recording output for a client. what fluids should the nurse include in the output for accuracy? select all that apply.
When educating unlicensed nursing assistive personnel (NAP) about recording output for a client, the nurse should emphasize the importance of including the following fluids in the output measurement for accuracy:
A. Urine output: This includes any voided urine or urine collected through a catheter.
B. Gastric drainage: This refers to any fluids drained from the stomach, such as through a nasogastric tube or gastric tube.
C. Emesis (vomitus): This includes any vomited material that is expelled by the client.
D. Wound drainage: This pertains to any fluid or exudate draining from a wound or surgical site.
E. Drainage from surgical drains: This involves any fluid collected from surgical drains, such as Jackson-Pratt or Hemovac drains.
F. Diarrhea: This refers to loose or watery stool that is passed by the client.
Accurately measuring and recording these fluids helps assess the client's fluid balance, organ function, and response to treatment. It allows for early identification of potential issues or complications, ensuring appropriate interventions and care planning.
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Complete Question:
The nurse is educating unlicensed nursing assistive personnel (NAP) about recording output for a client. Which of the following fluids should the nurse include in the output measurement for accuracy? Select all that apply.
A. Urine output
B. Gastric drainage
C. Emesis (vomitus)
D. Wound drainage
E. Drainage from surgical drains
F. Diarrhea
your pharmacist is quizzing you on dosage forms and asks you which penicillin antibiotic is available in a parenteral dosage form? what do you tell her?
If a pharmacist is quizzing me on dosage forms and asks me which penicillin antibiotic is available in a parenteral dosage form, I would tell her that penicillin G is the only penicillin antibiotic that is available in a parenteral dosage form.
Penicillin G is a commonly used antibiotic that is administered intravenously or intramuscularly for the treatment of a variety of bacterial infections. It is often used in situations where oral administration is not feasible, such as in patients with severe infections or allergies to oral medications. Other penicillin antibiotics, such as penicillin V, amoxicillin, and ampicillin, are available in oral dosage forms.
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the nurse is monitoring the intravenous (iv) infusion of an antineoplastic medication. during the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. on inspection of the site, the nurse notes redness and swelling and that the infusion of the medication has slowed in rate. the nurse suspects extravasation and would take which actions? select all that apply.
When suspecting extravasation during the intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic medication, the nurse would take the following actions:
Stop the infusion: The nurse should immediately stop the infusion of the medication to prevent further leakage into the surrounding tissue.Disconnect the IV line: Disconnecting the IV line from the catheter will help prevent further infiltration of the medication.Aspirate residual medication: The nurse may aspirate any remaining medication from the catheter if it can be done without causing further tissue damage.Notify the healthcare provider: Inform the healthcare provider immediately about the situation, providing them with details of the client's symptoms, the appearance of the site, and the slowed infusion rate.Elevate the affected limb: Raising the affected limb above heart level may help reduce swelling and limit the spread of the extravasated medication.Apply cold compresses: Applying cold compresses to the site may help alleviate pain and reduce swelling.Document the incident: It is crucial to document the occurrence, including the client's symptoms, actions taken, and notifications made. Accurate documentation will assist in monitoring the client's progress and guide further interventions.Remember, this information is not a substitute for professional medical advice. In a real-life situation, it is important to consult with healthcare professionals and follow institutional protocols for managing extravasation.
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ceftazidime 750 mg IV every 12 hours is prescribed for a client with an infection. The directions on the label of the 750mg vial instructs the nurse to reconstitute with 100ml sterile water. The reconstituted medication provides how many mg/ml? 0.75
The reconstituted medication provides 7.5mg/ml.
Ceftazidime 750 mg IV every 12 hours is prescribed for a client with an infection. The directions on the label of the 750mg vial instructs the nurse to reconstitute with 100ml sterile water. The reconstituted medication provides how many mg/ml?
The formula to calculate the concentration of a solution is as follows: Concentration = (Amount of solute ÷ Volume of solvent) Reconstituted Ceftazidime = 750mg. The diluent is 100ml sterile water. By substituting these values in the above formula, we get the following result: Concentration = (Amount of solute ÷ Volume of solvent)= (750mg ÷ 100ml)= 7.5mg/ml Therefore, the reconstituted medication provides 7.5mg/ml.
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the patient with a chronic aneurysm presents to the clinic with back pain. what objective assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?
When a patient with a chronic aneurysm presents to the clinic with back pain, the objective assessment finding that is most concerning to the nurse is the presence of a pulsatile or throbbing mass on palpation.
This finding suggests possible rupture or enlargement of the aneurysm. A pulsatile mass indicates that the arterial wall is expanding and contracting, which can be a sign of imminent rupture. Other concerning signs may include severe tenderness, signs of hypovolemic shock (such as low blood pressure and tachycardia), or signs of neurological compromise if the aneurysm is pressing on surrounding structures.
Immediate medical intervention and further diagnostic imaging are typically warranted to evaluate the extent of the aneurysm and plan appropriate management.
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true or false most water soluble vitamins such as thiamin can be stored and therefore it may take years before an individual experiences
Most water-soluble vitamins, including thiamin, cannot be stored in large amounts in the body. False
These vitamins are not readily stored in significant quantities, and any excess is typically excreted through urine. Therefore, regular intake of water-soluble vitamins is necessary to maintain adequate levels in the body.
Deficiencies in these vitamins can occur relatively quickly, within weeks or months, if the dietary intake is insufficient or if there are other factors that affect absorption or utilization. Unlike fat-soluble vitamins, which can be stored in the body for longer periods, water-soluble vitamins require consistent intake to prevent deficiencies.
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Complete Question:
Most water-soluble vitamins, such as thiamin, can be stored, and therefore it may take years before an individual experiences deficiencies in these vitamins?True or false
the nurse is caring for a client on hemodialysis who is following the food choice list regarding dietary restrictions. which client choice reflects an understanding of the healthiest food to consume?
The nurse is caring for a client on hemodialysis who is following a food choice list to adhere to dietary restrictions.
To determine the client's understanding of the healthiest food to consume, the nurse should assess the client's food choices. An appropriate choice would be selecting foods low in sodium, potassium, and phosphorus. For instance, if the client chooses grilled chicken breast, steamed broccoli, and a small side salad without added salt or high-potassium ingredients, it reflects an understanding of the dietary restrictions.
This meal choice is low in sodium, potassium, and phosphorus, which are typically restricted for clients on hemodialysis. By making appropriate food choices, the client can better manage their condition and maintain optimal health while on hemodialysis.
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a patient is demonstrating signs of increasing intracranial pressure (icp). which nursing actions are indicated to decrease icp? select all that apply.
It is important to note that the specific nursing actions that are indicated will depend on the individual patient's condition and the underlying cause of their increased ICP.
There are several nursing actions that may be indicated to decrease intracranial pressure (ICP) in a patient:
Administer diuretics: Diuretics can help reduce the amount of fluid in the body, which can help lower ICP.
Position the patient: Changing the patient's position can help relieve pressure on the brain and decrease ICP. For example, the patient may be placed on their side or in a semi-reclined position.
Administer medications: Some medications, such as corticosteroids and barbiturates, may be used to decrease ICP in certain cases.
Monitor the patient's condition closely: Regular monitoring of the patient's neurological status and blood pressure can help identify any changes that may indicate a need for adjustments to the patient's care plan.
Administer mannitol: Mannitol is a medication that can help decrease ICP by increasing urine output and reducing the amount of fluid in the brain.
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Correct Question:
A patient is demonstrating signs of increasing intracranial pressure (icp). which nursing actions are indicated to decrease icp?
the pharmacology instructor is teaching about sulfonamides and informs the students that these drugs are used to control infections caused by which bacteria?
Sulfonamides are a class of antibiotics that are used to control infections caused by bacteria. They work by inhibiting the growth and reproduction of bacteria by targeting an enzyme called dihydropteroate synthetase, which is necessary for the bacteria to produce folic acid.
Sulfonamides were one of the first classes of antibiotics to be developed and were introduced in the 1930s. They are still used today to treat a variety of bacterial infections, including urinary tract infections, respiratory tract infections, and certain types of meningitis.
However, it is important to note that sulfonamides are not effective against bacteria that have developed resistance to this class of antibiotics. In addition, sulfonamides can cause side effects, such as nausea, vomiting, and skin rash, and should be used with caution in patients with certain medical conditions, such as kidney or liver disease.
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which person presenting for treatment in an emergency department in the united states is most likely to have typhoid fever? the person who has:
The person most likely to have typhoid fever when presenting for treatment in an emergency department is someone who has recently traveled to a region where typhoid fever is endemic or prevalent.
Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella Typhi, which is primarily transmitted through contaminated food and water in areas with poor sanitation. Individuals who have visited countries with inadequate hygiene and sanitation practices, particularly in regions of Asia, Africa, and Latin America, are at higher risk of acquiring typhoid fever.
Therefore, a person who has a recent travel history to an endemic area and presents with symptoms like high fever, abdominal pain, and gastrointestinal disturbances should be considered a potential typhoid fever case and receive appropriate diagnostic testing and treatment.
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the nurse is collecting data from a client suspected of having ovarian cancer. which question would the nurse ask the client to elicit information specifically related to this disorder?
Have any of your lymph nodes swollen? is the nurse question the patient to get details about this disease specifically. Nursing interventions that prevent vasodilation, lessen anxiety, and maintain skin integrity and hydration all help to lessen the discomfort of pruritus.
Apply the prescribed antipyretic and let your main healthcare practitioner know about the modification. In order to care for a patient with cancer, nurses must fulfil a vast array of duties. Assessment, assistance for therapies (such as chemotherapy, radiation, etc.), pain management, boosting nutrition, and emotional support are all included in nursing care plans for cancer patients. Data collection on the respiratory system is of the utmost importance because it is a major cause of death in cervical cord injury.
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a patient arrives at the hospital with a history of long-term exposure to caustic fumes. assessment reveals a forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity (fev1/fvc) ratio of 65% and a functional oxygen saturation of 88%. the patient smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and reports a recent increase in sputum production and a change in color from clear to green. in which order should the nurse initiate the collaborative care actions?
In this scenario, the nurse should initiate collaborative care actions in the following order:
Ensure patient safety: As the patient has a history of long-term exposure to caustic fumes and is experiencing respiratory symptoms, the nurse's first priority is to ensure the patient's immediate safety by providing a suitable environment with proper ventilation and removing any potential sources of exposure.Provide oxygen therapy: With a functional oxygen saturation of 88%, the patient is experiencing low oxygen levels. Administering supplemental oxygen is essential to improve oxygenation and address hypoxemia.Assess and address smoking cessation: Since the patient is a smoker, it is crucial to address smoking cessation as it significantly contributes to respiratory symptoms and decreases lung function. The nurse can provide education, counseling, and referral to smoking cessation programs or resources.Obtain sputum culture and initiate appropriate antibiotic therapy: The recent increase in sputum production and change in color to green may indicate a respiratory infection. Obtaining a sputum culture will help identify the causative organism and guide the selection of appropriate antibiotic therapy.By following this order, the nurse ensures immediate safety, addresses oxygenation needs, tackles smoking cessation, and addresses any potential respiratory infection, thus providing comprehensive and appropriate collaborative care for the patient.
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EHR systems are becoming extremely popular due to their benefits and advantages. These advantages include better quality of care, more accurate patient info, interoperability, increased efficiency, increased revenue, scalability, accessibility, customization, security, and support.
Based on the above advantages I noted; can you elaborate on one and why you think it is a good advantage for patient care?
EHR systems' accessibility to precise patient data significantly improves patient treatment. It improves decision making for healthcare professionals, lowers medical errors, and facilitates fast and effective therapeutic actions.
Advantages of EHR systems to patientsThe accessibility of more precise patient data is one benefit of electronic health record (EHR) systems that considerably enhances patient care.
All patient data is kept in one place and made available to authorized healthcare practitioners using EHR systems. This implies that when making treatment decisions for a patient, doctors, nurses, and experts involved in their care can quickly and simply obtain the most current and comprehensive information. They have real time access to test findings, imaging reports, prescription histories, and other important information.
EHR systems frequently come with clinical reminders and decision support tools that can assist healthcare professionals in adhering to evidence-based recommendations and best practices.
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the nurse is preparing to hang the first bag of parenteral nutrition (pn) solution via the central line of an assigned client. the nurse would plan to obtain which most essential piece of equipment before hanging the solution?
Before hanging the solution, the nurse would make plans to get the Glucometer, a crucial piece of equipment. Controlling infection is among the most crucial aspects of TPN infusion.
TPN must be supplied via an EID (IV pump) and specific IV filter tubing is needed for the amino acids and lipid emulsion to lessen the chance of particles getting into the patient. Due to its bigger size and superficial position, the basilic vein is preferred. The catheter passes through the basilic and travels through the axillary and subclavian veins before landing in the superior vena cava. When TPN is given for a few weeks to months, PICC lines could be used.
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an older client with a history of hyperparathyroidism and severe osteoporosis is hospitalized. the nurse caring for the client plans to address which problem first?
When caring for an older client with a history of hyperparathyroidism and severe osteoporosis, the nurse should prioritize addressing the problem of increased risk for pathological fractures.
Severe osteoporosis, coupled with the effects of hyperparathyroidism, can significantly weaken the client's bones, making them susceptible to fractures. Pathological fractures can lead to immobility, pain, and potential complications.
By addressing this problem first, the nurse aims to prevent further bone damage and promote the client's mobility and overall well-being. This may involve implementing measures such as fall precautions, proper body mechanics, assisting with mobility, and providing education on fracture prevention and safety measures.
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a patient with neurogenic shock has a sustained heart rate of 38 beats per minute. based on this observation, for what should the nurse prepare the patient?
Based on the observation of a sustained heart rate of 38 beats per minute in a patient with neurogenic shock, the nurse should prepare the patient for the possibility of cardiac arrest.
Neurogenic shock is a type of shock that is caused by a problem with the autonomic nervous system, which can result in a slow and irregular heart rate. If the heart rate remains slow for an extended period of time, it can lead to cardiac arrest, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. To prepare for the possibility of cardiac arrest, the nurse should:
Administer oxygen: Oxygen can help maintain the patient's oxygen saturation and improve their chances of survival in the event of cardiac arrest.
Monitor the patient's vital signs: The nurse should continue to monitor the patient's vital signs, including their heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate, and report any changes to the healthcare team.
Be prepared to administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR): If the patient's heart stops, the nurse should be prepared to administer CPR, which involves chest compressions and artificial ventilation to try to restore the patient's heartbeat.
Notify the healthcare team: The nurse should notify the healthcare team immediately if the patient experiences cardiac arrest or any other medical emergency.
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A sustained heart rate of 38 beats per minute for a patient with neurogenic shock may indicate that the patient is bradycardic, the nurse should prepare the patient for the possibility of a cardiac arrest.
A sustained heart rate of 38 beats per minute for a patient with neurogenic shock may indicate that the patient is bradycardic. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate below 60 beats per minute.
When a patient is bradycardic, the nurse should prepare the patient for the possibility of a cardiac arrest.
An observation is a formal way of watching and listening to patients and their care, which is essential to assess the patient's condition. Patients in the neurogenic shock have a low cardiac output resulting in the patient experiencing hypotension. This type of shock results from damage to the nervous system, and it can occur due to spinal cord injury.
Hence, a sustained heart rate of 38 beats per minute for a patient with neurogenic shock may indicate that the patient is bradycardic, the nurse should prepare the patient for the possibility of a cardiac arrest.
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