People in the following groups should receive the vaccine because they are at an increased risk of contracting HAV: individuals who are homeless. individuals who share a home with an infectious person in hepatitis A.
Which of the following is the best sign of a recent hepatitis A virus infection?Almost all acute hepatitis A patients show detectable IgM anti-HAV. The presence of IgM anti-HAV in serum during the acute or early convalescent phase of infection confirms an acute HAV infection.
Can drinking cause hepatitis A?Hepatitis refers to liver inflammation. The liver is a crucial organ that filters blood, processes nutrients, and fights infections. The liver's function can be affected by inflammation or injury.
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which of the following is not a purpose of the requisition lab slip? a. ensure the physician or other authorized individual has made an independent medical necessity decision with regard to each test the organization will bill b. encourage physicians or other authorized individuals to submit the diagnosis information for all tests ordered c. capture the correct program information d. contain a statement that indicates medicare generally covers all routine screening test
Therefore, the appropriate response is (d) contain a statement indicating that Medicare typically pays all routine screening tests; however, this statement was not intended to be included in the request lab slip.
What is meant by screening test?When a person does not exhibit any symptoms of a condition, a screening test is performed to look for probable health issues or diseases. The objective is early identification, lifestyle modifications, or surveillance to lower the risk of disease or to identify it early enough to receive the best possible care. Carrier screening tests are in two primary categories: molecular (analyzing the DNA-genetic code) and biochemical (measuring enzyme activity). Pap smear, mammography, clinical breast examination, measurement of blood pressure and cholesterol, eye and vision tests, and urinalysis.
What is the purpose of screening?Doctors utilize screenings, which are medical exams, to look for illnesses and other issues before any symptoms or signs appear. Screenings assist in identifying issues early on, possibly when they are simpler to treat. One of the most crucial things you can do for your health is to get the necessary screenings.
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a 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital for altered mental status. he had been in his usual state of good health until this morning when a nurse at the long-term care facility where he lives noticed that he was confused. shortly after being admitted to the hospital, he became combative and had to be restrained. his bed linens have to be changed frequently because of urinary incontinence. which nursing diagnosis best describes this client's condition?
The loss of total body sodium leads to volume depletion, also known as extracellular fluid (ECF) volume contraction. The use of diuretics, excessive perspiration, diarrhoea, burns, and renal failure are among the causes.
What transpires when the extracellular fluid level rises?Water will move from the cell into the extracellular space to balance the osmotic gradient if the ECF osmolarity rises due to a disruption; nonetheless, the total body osmolarity will stay higher than usual, and the cell will contract.
The creatinine urine test quantifies the creatinine content of the urine. A blood test can also be used to measure creatinine.
Inadequate ECF volume primarily impairs cardiovascular function by reducing plasma volume and, in certain circumstances, by resulting in circulatory shock.
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the nurse is assessing a 3-day-postoperative client and the incision site. the nurse notes a moderate pinkish exudate on the dressing. this drainage is called .
Serosanguineous drainage is a somewhat pinkish exudate that appears on the dressing.
Which dressing would you apply to a wound with mild exudates?Use foam dressings, alginate dressings, or hydroactive dressings. Add a non-adherent, highly absorbent dressing on top. A foam dressing can also be combined with an alternate alginate dressing. AIM: Eliminate infection, lessen odor, absorb exudate, and safeguard.
What kind of exudates are signs of an infection?Exudate that turns thick and milky or that turns yellow, tan, gray, green, or brown is usually always an indication of infection. White blood cells, dead bacteria, wound debris, and inflammatory cells are all present in this discharge.
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when caring for a client in the medical clinic who has tried to lose weight multiple times, the client asks the nurse if she should try a high-protein, very low-calorie restricted diet. the nurse encourages her to seek guidance from the health care provider as these diets may cause which complication?
A high-protein, very low-calorie restricted diet may cause dehydration, and gallstones.
Dehydration will have causes that are not thanks to underlying malady. Examples embrace heat, excessive activity, meager fluid consumption, excessive sweating or medication facet effects. As you lose fluid, your blood becomes a lot of focused, creating your circulatory system work tougher to expeditiously pump blood.
Gallstones are hardened deposits of juice which will kind in your bladder. Your bladder may be a tiny, pear-shaped organ on the correct facet of your abdomen, simply below your liver. The bladder holds a juice known as gall that is discharged into your small intestine.
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the nurse enters the room of a client and, without the use of the stethoscope, can hear the client wheezing. how should the nurse document this finding in the medical record?
Using a stethoscope, the nurse listens to the child's breath sounds as they enter and exit each lung lobe, anterior and posterior.
What are the justifications for a nurse to do a client nursing assessment?The nurse evaluates the client to ascertain whether interventions are successful as part of the nursing process.
1. To gather baseline data; 2. To create a nursing care plan
3. To determine whether actions are effective
continual evaluation
appraisal particular to a system.
physical examination with focus.
Which pain grading systems are employed to assess a client's level of suffering?Verbal rating scales, numerical rating scales, and visual analogue scales are the three methods that are most frequently used to measure the severity of pain. Common terms are used in verbal descriptor scales (VRSs).
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a nurse asks a coworker about the condition of the nurse's next-door neighbor, who has been admitted to the unit. if the coworker shares the neighbor's client information with the nurse, the coworker could be held liable for committing which act?
If the coworker shares the neighbor's client information with the nurse, the coworker could be held liable for committing unauthorized disclosure of confidential information.
Explain the act of unauthorized disclosure of confidential information.
Unauthorized disclosure of confidential medical information is a serious violation of patient privacy and can lead to serious legal and financial consequences. Depending on the circumstances, such a violation can result in civil or criminal penalties, including fines, imprisonment, or both. In addition to potential legal repercussions, unauthorized disclosure of confidential medical information can also have a negative impact on a person's reputation and cause emotional distress.
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the nurse is monitoring a client who appears to be hallucinating. the client displays paranoid speech content, seems agitated, and gestures at a figure on the television. which nursing interventions are appropriate? select all that apply.
Reiterate that there is no danger to the client. Recognize the hallucinations presence. Use a soft voice and basic instructions. False perceptions of sensory events are hallucinations and pshycosis.
Some hallucinations, like those brought on by dozing off or waking up, are typical. Others, however, can be a symptom of a more severe condition like schizophrenia, dementia, or a disorder related to pshycosis. False perceptions of things or occasions involving your senses sight, hearing, smell, touch, and taste are known as hallucinations. Although hallucinations appear real, they are not.
Hallucinations are brought on by chemical interactions and/or abnormalities in the brain. Although hallucinations are frequently a sign of a psychosis related disorder, particularly schizophrenia, they can also be brought on by substance abuse, some transitory ailments, and neurological issues. Although hallucinations are frequently a sign of a psychosis related disorder, particularly schizophrenia, they can also be brought on by substance abuse, some transitory ailments, and neurological issues.
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a home care nurse is caring for a client with complaints of epigastric discomfort who is scheduled for a barium swallow. which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the test?
I won't eat or drink anything for six to eight hours before the exam. Epigastric discomfort is the term used to describe pain that is felt in the upper abdomen, just behind the ribs.
How does abdominal discomfort feel?
Epigastric pain is a type of discomfort that only affects the upper abdomen in the area directly behind the ribs. People who have this kind of pain frequently have it during or immediately after eating, or if they lie down too soon after eating. It is a typical sign of heartburn or gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
When is abdominal pain severe?
Antacids, either over-the-counter or prescribed, may be effective in easing chronic acid reflux and epigastric pain brought on by stomach acid. The occasional epigastric pain is typically nothing to worry about, however
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the advanced practice nurse is caring for a patient with chronic low back pain. in the provision of care for this patient, the apn wants to determine the best evidence based practice regardign these guidelines. what is the best database for the nruse to access?
The best database for the nurse to access is The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ).
Clinical guidelines and evidence summaries are available from the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ). Studies in medicine, nursing, dentistry, psychiatry, veterinary medicine, and allied health are included in MEDLINE. Biomedical and pharmacological studies are included in EMBASE. PsycINFO covers psychology and allied medical specialties.
The mission of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) is to produce evidence to improve the safety, caliber, accessibility, equity, and affordability of health care and to collaborate with other partners and the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to ensure that the evidence is utilized.
The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality is operated by the United States Department of Health and Human Services.
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7) what is the difference between point sources of nutrient pollution and non-point sources? provide an example of each.
Point source pollution refers to the pollution that occurs from a single identifiable source while non-point source pollution refers to the pollution that occurs via many diffuse sources.
Point source examples include discharge outlets like a sewage pipe or a smokestack. In contrast, nonpoint source pollution originates over a broad area. A parking lot or farm field surface runoff.
Pollution is defined the addition of any substance (solid, liquid, or gas) or any form of energy (such as heat, sound, or radioactivity) to the environment at a rate faster than it can be dispersed, diluted, decomposed, recycled, or stored in some harmless form. The major kinds of pollution, usually classified by environment, are air pollution, water pollution, and land pollution. Modern society is also concerned about specific types of pollutants, such as noise pollution, light pollution, and plastic pollution. Pollution of all kinds can have negative effects on the environment and wildlife and often impacts human health and well-being.
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who is charged with the implementation of clia? a. the attorney general (ag) b. health and human services (hhs) c. the centers for medicare and medicaid services (cms) d. the office of the inspector general (oig)
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is in charge of carrying out CLIA, which includes laboratory registration, fee collection, surveys, and surveyor instructions.
What is a Medicare-eligible service?Medicare is a type of government-sponsored health insurance that: those 65 and above. folks with impairments who are younger. End-stage renal disease sufferers (permanent kidney failure requiring dialysis or a transplant, sometimes called ESRD)
What often isn't a Medicare benefit?The majority of health insurance programs and Medicare do not cover long-term care. Non-skilled personal care includes assistance with activities of daily life including dressing, eating, getting into or out of a chair or bed, moving around, and using the restroom.
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alexandra measured her waist before going shopping for clothes. it measured 36 inches. what is her level of obesity-related health risk based on her waist circumference?
Increased waist circumference is greater than 40 inches.
What is the waist size that increases a woman's risk of disease?Waist Circumference This risk increases for women with waist sizes greater than 35 inches and for males with waist sizes greater than 40 inches. Place a tape measure around your center, slightly above your hipbones, while standing to get an accurate waist measurement.
What is the measurement of my waist in inches?Locate the bottom of your ribs and the top of your hip bone. Breathe normally out. Wrap the measuring tape around your waist, putting it halfway between these two points. Look over your measurements.
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the nurse suspects that a newborn infant who presents with bilateral flank masses, impaired lung development, and oliguria may be suffering from which disorder?
The nurse suspects that a newborn infant who presents with bilateral flank masses, impaired lung development, and oliguria may be suffering from Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPD).
What is Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPD)?One in 20,000 children have autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD), an uncommon hereditary condition. 8. Kidney cysts that are fluid-filled in an infant or fetus with ARPKD might expand or make the kidneys overly big. Even when still in the pregnancy, ARPKD can lead to impaired kidney function in children.Hence, The nurse suspects that a newborn infant who presents with bilateral flank masses, impaired lung development, and oliguria may be suffering from Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPD).
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the nurse is eliciting a health history from a client with ulcerative colitis which factor would the nurse considered to be the most likely associated with the clients. colitis
The factors that nurses perceive to be most likely to be related to their patients when treating ulcerative colitis include diarrhea, weight loss, abdominal cramps, anemia, and blood or pus in bowel movements.
Which details are crucial for the nurse to include in the lesson plan for a patient who has been diagnosed with Crohn's disease and admitted to the hospital?Knowing the typical Crohn's Disease signs and symptoms, the many forms of Crohn's Disease, and the medications used to treat the condition is crucial for a nurse caring for a patient with the condition.
When tending to a patient who has undergone abdominal surgery, what should the nurse concentrate on?recognizing bleeding symptoms. A thoracotomy patient who is postoperative is under the nurse's care.
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the nurse is taking care of a client who had a laryngectomy yesterday. to assure client safety, the nurse should give hand-off of care reports at which times? select all that apply.
When handing out care reports, the nurse should ensure client safety. Change of nurses and shift when nurse leaves for lunch.
How should the airway be managed in a patient who has had a laryngectomy?A pediatric facemask can be worn over the laryngeal stoma to perform preoxygenation and ventilation, respectively. Other options include covering the stoma with the end of a catheter mount or an inflated laryngeal mask airway.
Where should a laryngectomy patient be ventilated?Naturally, the stoma is the only way to get oxygen to the lungs if the patient had a laryngectomy. Try face-mask oxygenation or ventilation through the upper airways if these approaches don't work.
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6. which primary interventions are most appropriate for the client who survived an earthquake and is presenting with sharp abdominal pain; decreased pulse pressure; decreased level of consciousness; cool, clammy skin; and decreased urine output? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Ensuring patent airway
Utilizing a non-rebreather mask
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter.
What is a urinary catheter?
In order to allow urine to drain from the bladder and be collected, a latex, polyurethane, or silicone tube known as a urinary catheter is placed into the bladder through the urethra. Additionally, it can be used to inject liquids for the diagnosis or therapy of bladder problems. Through the use of a flexible tube known as a catheter, urinary catheterization is a procedure used to empty the bladder and collect urine. In hospitals or the community, doctors or nurses typically insert urinary catheters. The catheter itself must be changed out at least every three months. Although a doctor or nurse typically performs this task, you or your caretaker may occasionally be able to learn how to do it.
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the nurse working with patients with cognitive disorders uses a specialized therapeutic and trust-building technique called reminiscence therapy. this intervention is characterized by which one?
Answer:
Encouraging residents to talk about pleasurable past events.
Explanation:
a client presents to the clinic reporting symptoms that suggest diabetes. what criteria would support checking blood levels for the diagnosis of diabetes?
A client presents the criteria would support checking blood levels for the Fasting blood sugar test would support checking blood levels for the diagnosis of diabetes.
Doctor check your blood sugar levels after a night of fasting (not eating). Prediabetes is defined as having a fasting blood sugar level between 100 and 125 mg/dL, diabetes as above 126 mg/dL, and normal blood sugar as less than 99 mg/dL.
Before a fasting blood glucose test, you might need to go without food for eight to ten hours. Before a blood test for iron, you might need to fast for 12 hours.
You should refrain from eating or drinking anything other than water for eight to twelve hours before to the fasting glucose test.
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the nurse assesses a client admitted to the labor and delivery unit and obtains the following data: dark red vaginal bleeding, uterus slightly tense between contractions, bp 110/68, fhr 110 beats/minute, cervix 1 cm dilated and uneffaced. based on these assessment findings, what intervention should the nurse implement?
Intervention should the nurse implement is to monitor IV site for bleeding
What is nursing intervention for labor and delivery ?Offering emotional support and promoting the expression of feelings verbally are the two most crucial nursing interventions for lowering anxiety. Encourage and facilitate frequent bed position changes for women. Respect the woman's wishes and give her family member access if they so desire.
Monitoring bleeding from peripheral sites (C) is the priority intervention. This client is presenting with signs of placentalabruption. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a complication of placental abruptio, characterized by abnormalbleeding. Invasive vaginal procedures (A and B) or (D) can increase the abruption and bleeding, so these interventions arecontraindicated.
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the nurse is caring for a client in the compensation stage of shock. one of the body's mechanisms of compensation in this stage of shock is the action of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. what does this system do?
Renin-angiotensin-aldosteron system (RAAS) make vasoconstriction and reabsorption of water and sodium in compensation stage of shock.
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosteron System (RAAS)Shock is a condition where there is an imbalance between the supply and demand of oxygen in the body. In the initial phase, the state of shock can be compensated by the body (compensation stage) such as by increasing the pulse, redistributing blood to vital organs, and so on so that blood pressure can still be measured normally. One of the systems that play a role in maintaining blood pressure is the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS).
When hypovolemia (decreased intravascular volume) or hypotension (low blood pressure) occurs, the baroreceptors detect it. It also occurs hypoperfusion to the renal tissue. This causes it to be detected in the baroreceptors on the afferent arterioles.
Signals from these baroreceptors will increase renin, so that angiotensinogen changes to angiotensin I. Then angiotensin I will change to angiotensin II by the angiotensin converting enzyme.
This will result in:
Vasoconstricts the afferent arterioles and causes reabsorption of water from the renal tubules into the vasaIncreased reabsorption of sodium ions from the renal tubules into the vasaVasoconstriction of systemic arteriesThese three mechanisms will cause an increase in blood pressure.
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which are important points for the nurse to consider when working with clients with disruptive behavior disorders and their families? select all that apply.
Points for the nurse to consider when working with clients with disruptive behavior disorders and their families are: remember to focus on the client's strength and assets and their problems, avoid "blaming" attitude toward clients or families and focus on positive actions to improve behaviors.
What is a disruptive behavior disorder?It is believed that there is not one single root cause for disruptive behavior disorders but are thought to be the result of genetic, physical, and environmental risk factors working simultaneously.
Common types of disruptive behavior disorder are oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder.
To fix disruptive behavior: acknowledge the feelings of the individual, address the disruption individually and immediately.
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a patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol [proventil], 2 puffs 3 times a day. the nurse should teach the patient to do what?
The nurse should instruct the client on how to take Albuterol should be given first, followed by Fluticasone five minutes later.
Which do you take first, Ventolin or Flovent?The patient is given the asthma medication inhaled Fluticasone (Flovent HFA) and inhaled Albuterol (Ventolin HFA) by the doctor. How will you, the nurse, deliver these medications? A. Administer Fluticasone first, followed by Albuterol five minutes later.
What type of corticosteroid would a nurse directly inhale into a patient?Fluticasone oral inhalation is used to treat asthma symptoms in both adults and children, including breathing difficulties, chest discomfort, coughing, and wheezing. It belongs to the corticosteroid drug family.
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a client who has aids is being treated in the hospital and admits to having periods of extreme anxiety. what would be the most appropriate nursing intervention?
As long as the physician's diarrhea is not brought on by an infectious microorganism, regularly administering antidiarrheal medications may be more advantageous than using them just when necessary.
The term "microorganisms" is confusing.A microorganism, often known as a microorganism, is technically a tiny organism. This science of microorganism is referred to as "microbiology." Microorganisms include fungi, protists, bacterial, and archaea.. Prions and viruses are not considered microbes because they are considered non-living in general.
What exactly are microbes and how do you perform?Everywhere in the environment, microorganisms play a crucial part in a variety of natural processes. Among many other things, they run the fundamental drug cycles required for the plants to get the nutrients they need from the response of organic materials in the soil.
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taking a nutrition class during college has been shown to increase intake of fruits and vegetables. this is an example of which food-intake influence?
Consuming a variety of fruits and vegetables might help reduce the risk of illnesses including some cancers, heart disease, and high blood pressure. Fruits and vegetables can also aid with bone and tooth formation, as well as feeling invigorated.
What nutrients do fruits and vegetables provide? What is the significance of this food group?Fruits and vegetables are high in vitamins, minerals, and phytochemicals. They are also high in fibre. There are numerous fruit and vegetable kinds available, as well as numerous ways to prepare, cook, and serve them. A fruit and vegetable-rich diet can help prevent you against cancer, diabetes, and heart disease.
Time restrictions, unhealthy snacking, convenience high-calorie food, stress, and high pricing of healthy food were all common impediments to good eating.
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an adult client with low functioning down syndrom (trisomy 21) appears in the emergency department via ambulance after an accident. which assessment method would be the best instrument to use when determining the client's level of pain
The greatest tool to utilize in assessing a client's pain level is really the Wong-Baker Face images Pain Rating Scale evaluation method.
Why was emergency Cancelled?Despite receiving high ratings, the show was suspended in 1977 after the sixth season due to concerns about the actor Robert Fuller's health. The series returned in 1978 and 1979 with six movie specials, which are referred to as "Season Seven."
Why is emergency important?A calamity may be managed if you are prepared for it by having the necessary knowledge and attitude. Every year, hundreds of first responders suffer workplace injuries. Numerous deaths occur. If you are gravely hurt yourself, you cannot take care of your community.
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a patient with a spinal cord injury is complaining of pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and is very anxious. these manifestations would most likely correlate with which complication?
These symptoms would very certainly be related to pulmonary embolism (PE) (p. 1205).
What is spinal cord injury?Damage to the spinal cord or the nerves at the cauda equina, the end of the spinal canal, can result in a spinal cord injury, which frequently results in permanent alterations to strength, sensation, and other bodily functions below the location of the lesion. It could seem as though every part of your life has been impacted if your spinal cord was suddenly harmed. Your injury may have psychological, emotional, and social repercussions. Many scientists are confident that future research developments will make it possible to repair spinal cord injuries. There are active research projects all throughout the world. Many people with spinal cord injuries may live active, independent lives in the interim because to medical interventions and therapy.
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a 27-year-old woman diagnosed with borderline personality disorder displays a labile affect, impulsivity, frequent angry outbursts, and difficulty tolerating her angry feelings without self-injury. a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is:
a 27-year-old woman diagnosed with borderline personality disorder displays a labile affect, impulsivity, frequent angry outbursts, and difficulty tolerating her angry feelings without self-injury. a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is: bulimia and a borderline personality disorder
Safety and close observation are the nurse's top priorities when arranging care for a 27-year-old lady who was admitted to your unit with bulimia and a borderline personality disorder.Bulimia is a type of eating disorder that is linked to mental health issues and is characterized by an abnormal urge to reduce weight and may require treatment in a psychiatric facility.As a result of this information, it is clear that bulimia is an eating disorder that requires care in appropriate professional settings, with borderline personality disorder displays a labile affect, impulsivity, frequent angry outbursts, and difficulty tolerating her angry feelings without self-injury.
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the obstetrical nurse is caring for a client who has been treated for gestational diabetes. when teaching the client about the causes of gestational diabetes, the nurse should include which risk factor in the teaching?
Nurses who teach clients about the causes of gestational diabetes, also nurses, must include risk factors in teaching about excessive weight gain that can occur during pregnancy, increased risk of cesarean sections, and the risk of developing type 2 diabetes in the future.
What is gestational diabetes?Gestational diabetes is diabetes that occurs during pregnancy, in women who previously did not have diabetes only experienced by pregnant women. Generally, this disorder occurs at gestational age in the second trimester, between weeks 24 to 28.
The cause of gestational diabetes is because the placenta produces more hormones, such as the hormone estrogen, and HPL (human placental lactogen), including a hormone that makes the body immune to insulin, a hormone that lowers blood sugar levels. As a result, blood sugar levels increase and cause gestational diabetes.
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a 40-week gestation primigravida client is being induced with an oxytocin (pitocin) secondary infusion and complains of pain in her lower back. which intervention should the nurse implement?
A 40-week pregnant primigravida patient who is having an oxytocin (Pitocin) secondary infusion is complaining of lower back pain.
During the fourth stage of labor, which nursing intervention is most important?Identification and prevention of hemorrhage during the fourth stage of childbirth are top nursing priorities. 24. The nurse will make an effort to encourage cervical effacement and increase contractions in a patient whose status is uncertain.
Which course of action should the nurse take for a client at 36 weeks?Which nursing intervention is most crucial to carry out for a patient who is admitted with vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks gestation? Observe the uterine contractions. Place a client's bottom on disposable pads.
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a nurse is teaching parents strategies to encourage healthy eating behaviors in children. what points would be important to include
The most beneficial advice to give parents of a 7-month-old girl on good eating patterns is to introduce new foods gradually over time.
Why is healthy eating important?
For optimal nutrition and health, a nutritious diet is necessary. You are protected from many lengthy, noncommunicable illnesses like cancer, diabetes, and heart disease. A healthy diet must include a variety of foods and be low in salt, sugar, trans fats, and trans fats made in factories.
Why is altering one's eating habits important?
You can get all the energy you need to stay active all day long from a diet that is balanced. You need certain nutrients for growth and repair, which will keep you strong and healthy and assist you in avoiding diseases like its some cancers which are linked to diet.
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