In this instance, the nurse is offering primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the development of disease by eliminating all risk factors.
What are some instances of first-line defense?Examples of primary prevention include immunizing infants against communicable diseases, administering folic acid to pregnant women and women who may become pregnant to avoid fetal neural tube abnormalities, and advising people to lead healthy lives to prevent heart disease.
Which nursing interventions best illustrate the health belief model's concept of self-efficacy?By giving the patient verbal feedback, the nurse aids in the development of self-efficacy. This step encourages the patient to sustain good habits and stop bad ones. The patient receives instruction on how to schedule appointments and find health-related information, among other health-related topics.
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which nursing action would be included in the plan of care after herniorrhaphy in a client with a history of lower extremity thrombophlebitis and varicose veins?
A client with a history of thrombophlebitis and varicosities is to have a herniorrhaphy for an incarcerated hernia.
What is the main cause of hernia?Hernia Causes Ultimately, all hernias are caused by a combination of pressure and an opening or weakness of muscle or fascia. The pressure pushes an organ or tissue through the opening or weak spot. Sometimes the muscle weakness is present at birth. But more often, it happens later in life .
Is hernia is a serious problem?An inguinal hernia isn't necessarily dangerous. It doesn't improve on its own, however, and can lead to life-threatening complications. Your doctor is likely to recommend surgery to fix an inguinal hernia that's painful or enlarging. Inguinal hernia repair is a common surgical procedure.
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a nurse is struggling to provide adequate care during an exceptionally busy shift. which action is most likely a violation of occupational safety and health administration (osha) regulations?
The nurse manually lifts a heavy client rather than using a mechanical lift will be most likely a violation of occupational safety and health administration (OSHA) regulations.
What is role of a nurse?Nurses are a patient's first point of contact with their care team, administering treatments and medications while closely monitoring their condition and coordinating responses from the rest of the care team.
Registered nurse anaesthetist with certification. Nurse anaesthetists are highly respected members of the nursing profession, and becoming one requires years of education, training, and experience. These nurses administer anaesthesia to patients in surgical, dental, or ER/OR settings.
Rather than using a mechanical lift, the nurse manually lifts a heavy client. if a nurse is having difficulty providing adequate care during a particularly busy shift.
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a nurse is preparing to administer methylprednisolone 30 mg/kg iv bolus to a school-age child who weighs 47 lb. after reconstitution, how many ml should the nurse administer? (round the answer to the nearest hundredth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)
16ml of bacteriostaric water will be used to reconstitute 1 gramme of methylprednisolone nurse should give 10.22ml of bacteriostatic water 0.63gram of methylprednisolon has reconstituted into 0.63 16 = 10.22ml.
What is a bacteriostatic illustration?
Bacteriostatic antimicrobials include those from the following classes and individual antimicrobials: tetracyclines, macrolides, clindamycin, rifampin, linezolid, and chloramphenicol. However, owing of its negative effects, chloramphenicol has lost favour in recent years in routine clinical use.
What do bacteriostatic and bactericidal mean?
Based on their effects on microbial cells via two basic mechanisms—either bactericidal or bacteriostatic—antibiotics can be categorised into two classes. Drugs that are bacteriostatic prevent bacterial growth whereas bacteriocidal antibiotics destroy germs .
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which symptoms would the nurse include when teaching a client to recognize symptoms of hypoglycemia? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Anxiety, agitation, headache, irritability, disorientation, diaphoresis, chilly skin, tremors, unconsciousness, and seizures are all indications of hypoglycemia, which is diagnosed when blood sugar levels fall below 45 mf/dl.
Blood sugar or glucose levels that are below the normal range are known as hypoglycemia. Diabetes medication frequently has an impact on hypoglycemia. However, persons without diabetes might experience low blood sugar due to other medications and a range of, often rare, diseases. Treating hypoglycemia urgently is necessary. A fasting blood sugar of 70 mmol/l, or 3.9 mmol/l, or less should be seen as a warning sign for hypoglycemia in many people. With the aid of a high-sugar food or beverage or by taking medicine, you must swiftly bring your blood sugar levels back into the normal range. Finding and addressing the source of hypoglycemia is necessary for long-term treatment.
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The complete question is:Which symptoms would the nurse include when teaching a client to recognize symptoms of hypoglycemia? select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
Anxiety
agitation
headache
irritability
disorientation
diaphoresis
seizures
A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 1.5 g IV bolus. The nurse reconstitutes a vial of ampicillin to yield a final concentration of 30 mg/mL. how many mL?
A nurse is about to give a 1.5g IV bolus of ampicillin. A bottle of ampicillin is reconstituted by the nurse to a final concentration of 30mg/ml. The nurse should deliver 50 mL.
Meningitis (infection of the membranes that protect the brain and spinal cord) and infections of the throat, sinuses, lungs, reproductive organs, urinary system, and gastrointestinal tract are all treated with ampicillin. Ampicillin belongs to the penicillin class of medicines. It works by destroying germs.
Colds, flu, and other viral diseases will not respond to antibiotics such as ampicillin. Taking medicines while they are not required raises your chances of developing an illness that is resistant to antibiotic therapy later on. If you are allergic to ampicillin or any comparable antibiotic, including such amoxicillin (Amoxil, Augmentin, Moxatag, and many others), dicloxacillin, nafcillin, even penicillin, you should not take it.
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7. many physiological systems have thresholds or tipping points. in this model, experiment with the initial conditions of oxytocin (ot) to discover the threshold. oxytocin has side effects including, vomiting, therefore, the minimal amount of drug administered to induce labor is desirable. as the attending physician, design an experiment that would test what would be the best dose of oxytocin to induce contractions greater than 30 contractions per minute? run each experiment 5 times (for reliability in the results.) record the contractions per minute in the spreadsheet (described below).
All the steps are mentioned below.
What do you mean by Oxytocin?Oxytocin is a hormone that is produced by the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary gland. It plays a role in a variety of physiological processes, including the regulation of labor and delivery during childbirth, stimulation of milk production in lactating women, and regulation of social behavior and bonding. It is sometimes referred to as the "love hormone" due to its role in promoting social bonding and sexual behavior.
The first step would be to choose a range of doses for oxytocin and administer them to a group of patients in labor. It's important to start with a low dose and gradually increase it, ensuring that the patient's vital signs are monitored throughout the process.
Next, measure the number of contractions per minute for each patient at regular intervals (e.g., every 5 minutes) and record the data in a spreadsheet. The data should include the dose of oxytocin, the time elapsed, and the number of contractions per minute.
By analyzing the data, you can determine the threshold dose of oxytocin needed to induce contractions greater than 30 contractions per minute. It's important to repeat the experiment multiple times (in this case, 5 times) to ensure the reliability of the results.
It's also crucial to adhere to ethical standards and guidelines when conducting such an experiment, and to ensure the safety and well-being of the patients at all times.
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which food selections by a client with celiac disease indicate the nurse's dietary teaching was successful? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Green beans, baked potato. Celiac disease patients must adhere to a gluten-free diet. Fresh fruits and vegetables, including green beans, are acceptable on a gluten-free diet.
An acceptable food on a gluten-free diet is a baked potato. Noodles should not be consumed because they are prepared with gluten-rich flour. Avoid eating the turkey sandwich because the bread contains gluten-rich flour. Whole wheat cereal should be avoided because it contains a lot of gluten. A treatment called common bile duct exploration is performed to determine whether something, such as a stone, is obstructing the bile's path from your liver and gallbladder to your gut. The surgery is carried out while completely unconscious.
The complete question is:
Which food selections by a client with celiac disease indicate that the nurse's dietary teaching is successful? Select all that apply.
1Green beans
2Baked potato
3Noodle pudding
4Turkey sandwich
5Whole wheat cereal
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Attachment is sometimes discussed as existing at the
intersection of two different trait dimensions. Identify
those two traits dimensions and discuss how each of the
four attachment styles incorporates them.
The two trait dimensions at the intersection of which attachment is discussed is the dimension of anxiety and avoidance.
What do you mean by attachment?
Attachment is a strong emotional connection between two people, typically developed through shared experiences and a sense of trust. It can refer to the bond between parent and child, romantic partners, or even close friends. Attachment is an important part of healthy relationships and helps to provide a sense of security, comfort, and belonging.
Each of the four attachment styles incorporates both anxiety and avoidance in different ways. Secure attachment involves low levels of both anxiety and avoidance. Anxious-preoccupied attachment involves high levels of anxiety and low levels of avoidance. Dismissive-avoidant attachment involves low levels of anxiety and high levels of avoidance. Fearful-avoidant attachment involves high levels of both anxiety and avoidance.
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FILL IN THE BLANK jamie alvarez is going to fly in an airplane for the first time. she is afraid she might experience motion sickness, so she has decided to first take the over-the-counter drug dramamine. this is an example of the _____ use of a drug.
Jamie Alvarez will take her maiden flight on an aircraft. She is concerned about motion sickness and has opted to take the over-the-counter medication Dramamine. This is an example of drug preventive usage.
When ones brain fails to process the information from the eyes, ears, and body, motion sickness occurs. Motion can make you feel nauseated, clammy, or sick to your stomach, whether in a car, plane, boat, and amusement park ride. Motion sickness can occur while driving, sailing, or flying. Signals are sent to your brain from motion-sensing elements of your body, such as ones eyes, inner ears, muscles, and joints.
When these components provide contradictory signals, your brain is unsure whether you are fixed or moving. Your brain's perplexed reaction makes you ill. Motion sickness can occur whether travelling by automobile, plane, or boat. When the motion ceases, the motion sickness typically goes away. Fatigue, discomfort, dizziness, and vomiting are some of the symptoms.
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the nurse is helping an adolescent with type 1 diabetes establish a consistent meal pattern. which feedback indicates that further teaching is needed?
The feedback from the client that he avoids complex carbohydrate substitutes indicates that further teaching is needed.
Depending on the amount eaten per serving and the caloric value, complex carbs may be replaced. To encourage adherence to any diet plan, flexibility is required. Consistent portion management is essential for keeping diabetes under control. The adolescent gains the ability to determine the appropriate amount to consume at a glance by weighing and measuring portion sizes over a period of months.
Teenagers should carefully study nutrition labels, paying close attention to the items' carbohydrate and calorie counts. Sorbitol is present in most dietetic meals. When possible, limit the usage of sorbitol because it metabolizes to fructose and subsequently glucose.
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the nurse is evaluating a client's response to receiving an intermittent gravity flow percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (peg) tube feeding. which clinical finding indicates that the client is unable to tolerate a continuation of the feeding?
The feeding comes in quickly, Epigastric area tenderness A increase in the formula level inside the tube denotes a full stomach. intestinal motion is reflected in flatus passage.
Tenderness resembles pain in what way?Painful things hurt because they are painful. When something is delicate, it hurts when it is moved or touched. Abdominal discomfort is a good illustration of how we apply these phrases.
What does point tenderness signify in medical terms?I could have a terrible stomachache.
Tenderness in the abdomen. When pressure is applied to a specific spot of the abdomen, you experience abdominal point tenderness, which causes discomfort (abdomen). You may recognize a certain body by using the three body views (front, back, and side).
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which descriptors for maturity-onset diabetes of the young (mody) would the nurse identify as accurate? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The nurse would identify the Autosomal dominant and a short age of onset or maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY). Option 1 and 2 are correct.
MODY is an autosomal dominant disorder that often manifests before the age of 25, and is distinguished by its early age of onset. While type 2 diabetes is linked to obesity and hypertension, MODY is not. MODY does not develop from a combination of insufficient insulin secretion and resistance; instead, it is defined by a single gene mutation that causes beta cell malfunction and an inability of the pancreas to produce enough levels of insulin, making insulin required. Clients with MODY typically exhibit polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, weight loss, weakness, and weariness rather than fatigue, recurrent infection, and protracted wound healing. Ketoacidosis may also occasionally be present.
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The complete question is:
Which descriptors for maturity-onset diabetes of the young (mody) would the nurse identify as accurate? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
1) Autosomal dominant
2) Having a short age of onset
3) Linked to fat and hypertension
4) Polygenic (>25 genes influence susceptibility)
a patient is being discharge home after having a mastectomy. what discharg einstructions should the nurse teach the patient and family
Options 1, 2, 4 & 5 are correct. The nurse teaches the patient and family the following discharge instructions:
Perform arm exercises as directed.Take medications for pain as soon as pain begins.Call your health care provider if inflammation of the incision or swelling of the incision or the arm occurs. Avoid driving, lifting over than 10 pounds, or reaching over your head until the surgeon gives you clearance.In order to cure or prevent breast cancer, a mastectomy is a surgical surgery that removes the entire breast tissue from a breast. Patients experiencing early-stage breast cancer may benefit from a mastectomy as a treatment option. Breast-conserving surgery (lumpectomy) is another option that removes only the tumor from the breast.
Newer mastectomy treatments can preserve breast flesh, giving the breasts a more feminine appearance. This is also known as more than just a skin-sparing mastectomy. Breast reconstruction surgery, which is used to restore the contour of your breast, can be performed at the same time as ones mastectomy or at a later period.
The complete Question:
A patient is being discharged home after having a mastectomy. What discharge instructions should the nurse teach the patient and family?
Multiple selection question
1. Perform arm exercises as directed.
2. Take medications for pain as soon as pain begins.
3. Wash hands only after touching the incision area or drains.
4. Call your health care provider if inflammation of the incision or swelling of the incision or the arm occurs.
5. Avoid driving, lifting more than 10 pounds, or reaching above your head until given permission by the surgeon.
6. Empty surgical drains once a day and as needed, recording the amount in each drain, the date, and time, and bring to your follow-up appointment.
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a college student fell and sprained his right ankle. the student health health care provider recommends the student use crutches to facilitate healing. what would the nurse teach the student?
Crutches are advised by the student's health care provider in order to promote healing. The arms and the hands should support the body. An injured client who is healing from a broken neck is helped by a nurse using a tilt table.
Which ambulatory assistance might a nurse provide to help a client who is weak on one side of the body?Explained: An client who's had weakness on one side of the body can benefit from the usage of a baton to help him get around. Hand-held ambulatory aids like canes are made of wood or metal. Clients who require significant balance help utilize walkers.
For which of the above patients would a motorized stand assist device be appropriate?the aforementioned patients would be a good candidate to move with the use of a motorized stand-assist device Feedback: Clients who can follow instructions, are agreeable, and can bear weight on at least one leg can use powered stand-assist devices.
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an adult child of a dying client says to the nurse, 'i am so upset because my parent is always angry at me.' which would be the correct response by the nurse?
The correct response by the nurse would be "Your parent is working through acceptance of the situation."
The family member may be able to better appreciate the client's emotions and fury if they are aware of the stages leading up to the acceptance of death. If the client does not express fear for the parent, the parent may not be scared; some clients view death as a reprieve from suffering.
Given that anger is one of the stages of accepting death, it is doubtful that the parent is striving to lessen the family member's need. The nurse makes the presumption that the parent is distressed since the family member won't give physical care at home unless the client specifically requests it.
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which action(s) does the nurse take to care for a client unable to care for dentures? select all that apply.
The action taken by the nurse on a client who cannot care for his dentures is to examine the root canal of the tooth.
What are dentures?The denture is a tool to replace missing teeth and gum tissue around them. The use of dentures can overcome complaints that arise due to missing teeth, such as eating and speaking disorders, and decreased self-confidence.
Installation of dentures has several purposes, namely:
Replace missing teeth due to various causes, such as broken teethImproving chewing and speaking functions in people who have lost teethImprove appearance while increasing self-confidenceProtects remaining teethIf the client is unable to care for his dentures, the nurse will usually examine the root canals to find out if there is decay due to the dentures.
Your question is not complete, maybe the meaning of your question is:
Which action(s) does the nurse take to care for a client unable to care for dentures? select all that apply.
Examine the root canal of the tooth.Examination of teethLearn more about the type of denture prosthesis here :
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rationale for seeking specialization in a ms counseling-related program this section must address: your clear understanding of the clinical program area, with attention to licensure and the role of a licensed counselor. the clear link between the program you selected and your career goals. your substantive, carefully considered reasons for seeking a clinical graduate degree in counseling (beyond merely being a good listener or wanting to help others). support your ideas with relevant information from reliable sources, utilizing correct apa formatting.
Both a Master of Science (MS) and a Master of Arts (MA) are postgraduate degree programs that educate you to work as a therapist in specialties like substance misuse counseling, marital and family therapy, and mental health counseling.
What’s the difference between an MA and MS in Counseling?Both a Master of Science (MS) and a Master of Arts (MA) are postgraduate degree programs that educate you to work as a therapist in specialties like substance misuse counseling, marital and family therapy, and mental health counseling.According to Dr. Karen Miranda, the director of Regis College's graduate counseling programs, "the truth is that there really isn't much of a difference between the two degrees at all." Many students believe that since you use the word "arts," you are drawing from the liberal arts, while they believe that you are pulling more from the sciences when you use the word "science." At least for counseling programs, that is less true at the graduate level, even while it is more true at the undergraduate level.Dr. Miranda claims that regardless of whether you're pursuing an MA or MS degree, the required essentials will be covered in the core curriculum. TThese include theories of counseling, human growth and development, helping relationships, social and cultural foundations, and research methods. The curriculum simply lacks sufficient "open slots" for an MA or MS to make a significant difference.
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a client with arthritis of the hands and fingers is having difficulty using a metered-dose inhaler (mdi). the nurse suggests asking the primary health care provider for which prescription?
A client with arthritis of the hands and fingers is having difficulty using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).
What is a inhaler used for?Inhalers are the primary method of delivery for medications used to treat asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease . However, they can only be effective if they are used properly. Using your inhaler correctly delivers the medication to your lungs, where it can work to control your symptoms.
Is an inhaler good for a cough?Asthma medications prescribed by your allergist will help to relieve the coughing attacks. These include a fast-acting bronchodilator inhaler, which expands the airways in the lungs and offers quick relief, or a corticosteroid inhaler, which relieves inflammation when used daily. Often both types are needed.
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a client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of major depression. during the admission interview, the nurse determines that a major concern is the client's poor nutritional intake. which nursing intervention related to poor nutrition would be the initial choice
The client's changed nutrition as a result of inadequate dietary intake is found to be a key worry by the nurse during the admission interview.
Which traits would a client in seasonal affective disorder be expected to exhibit, according to the nurse?
According to information intended for the general public, those with SAD may experience feelings of sadness, irritability, and frequent crying. They may also feel exhausted and lethargic, struggle to concentrate, sleep more than usual, run out of energy, cut back on their energy levels, withdraw from daily situations, and have a craving for carbohydrates and sugars.
However, there are some male abuse victims as well. The elderly without close relatives or friends, as well as those with disabilities, memory issues, or dementia, are likely targets.
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which of the following are by-products of photoelectric absorption? group of answer choices photoelectron and compton scattered electron low-energy scattered x-ray photon and characteristic photon low-energy scattered x-ray photon and compton scattered electron photoelectron and characteristic photon
A photoelectron and a distinctive photon are the by-products of photoelectric absorption.
An x-ray photon interacts with an atom in a solid during photoelectric absorption and is totally absorbed, transferring all of its energy to an inner-shell electron that is ejected from the atom and given the name photoelectron.
An electron that a substance emits after absorbing a photon of light is known as a photoelectron. The process of a photon being absorbed by a substance and then emitting a photoelectron is known as photoelectric absorption.
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a 5-year-old needs an im injection. the least painful and most effective injection site would be the:
The least painful and most effective site for IM injection would be: ventro-gluteal muscle.
IM injection refers to intramuscular injection. It is the administration of drugs and medications deep into the muscles of the body. This site of injection facilitates the quick absorption of the medication into the specific targeted muscles.
Ventro-gluteal muscle refers to the group of muscles present at the ventro-gluteal site of the body. It is the bony part of that sticks out of the upper thigh near the hip region. This site is free from blood vessels and nerves and has vey thick mass of muscles.
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which countertransference reaction is the nurse most likely to expeince when a patient frequently discusses family disputes and is verballly abusive
Boredom countertransference reaction is the nurse most likely to experience when a patient frequently discusses family disputes and is verbally abusive.
Because of the client's conduct, the nurse is vulnerable to a number of countertransference reactions. If the client repeatedly provides boring information and communicates in an offensive manner, the nurse may grow bored and uninterested in talking to and dealing with the client. When the client confides in the nurse, the nurse may have a rescue reaction (a countertransference reaction).
When treatment goals are not met and the client does not participate in the treatment successfully, the nurse may experience emotions of powerlessness. Overinvolvement is felt by the nurse when the client's behaviour reminds him or her of a close friend or previous client.
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which intervention would be included in the plan of care for a client diagnosed with hyperthyroidism?
Promoting rest is a difficult but crucial chore for a client with hyperthyroidism to minimise metabolic demands. Reduced glucose tolerance and hyperglycemia are symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Since there is no sign that radioactive iodine was administered, the client doesn't produce radiation. The patient's hunger will grow.
The most typical cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves-disease. Since Graves disease has an autoimmune origin, this type of hyperthyroidism usually affects younger people. Toxic multinodular goiter is the most typical cause of hyperthyroidism in the older population. Although Graves disease and toxic multinodular goiter are the most frequent causes of hyperthyroidism, other conditions such thyroid adenomas, de Quervain thyroiditis (subacute thyroiditis), postpartum thyroiditis, and factitious thyroiditis can also result in hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis factitia). Hyperthyroidism linked with incorrect or excessive thyroid hormone use is known as factitious thyroiditis. Thyroxine has the potential to be abused due to a well-liked side effect of weight reduction, so any history of a hyperthyroid patient should include a drug list and an evaluation.
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The complete question is:
Which intervention would be included in the plan of care for a client diagnosed with hyperthyroidism?
Answer: arrange for sufficient rest periods
Explanation:
the nurse is completing a developmental assessment on a 6-month-old infant. which findings indicate the need for additional follow-up? select all that apply.
Sound originating from behind him is ignored by the infant, the infant frequently has his or her eyes crossed, the infant doesn't seem to be bothered by its surroundings shows a need for additional follow up.
Young infants might not respond to loud noises, they might not be able to focus on an object that is close to them, they might not start to babble or make sounds by the age of four months, they might not turn to look for sounds at that age, and they might cross their eyes frequently by the time they are six months old.
Putting two-word phrases together is not a necessary aspect of language development at this stage.
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the nurse is caring for a patient with arousal disorder. on observation, the nurse finds the calf and shoulder muscles of the patient to be weakened and paralyzed. which qestion by the nurse is appropriate during the assessment
Do you often act out your dreams? would be the perfect question to ask a patient whose calf and shoulder muscles are weak and immobilized during observation.
Why is the aforementioned reaction suitable?Regarding how dreams affect the patient's mental state, questions are asked during the assessment interview. Those who suffer from this disease frequently act out their dreams. The assessment does not ask questions concerning unexpected waking, morning mental condition, or unusual behavior while you were sleeping.
For a patient who reports disturbed sleep quantity and quality, which nursing diagnostic is most suitable?The interruption of sleep quantity and quality to the point where it compromises performance is known as insomnia. The physical and emotional health of a patient can suffer from not getting enough sleep.
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The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:
The nurse is caring for a patient with arousal disorder. On observation the nurse finds the calf and shoulder muscles of the patient to be weakened and paralyzed. Which question by the nurse is appropriate during the assessment?
A)"Do you ever wake up suddenly after a dream?"
B)"How do you feel after waking up in the morning?"
C)"Do you have a tendency to act out your dreams?"
D)"Have you ever done unusual activity during sleep?"
a client who recently experienced a brain attack (cerebrovascular accident [cva]) and has limited mobility reports constipation. which is most important for the nurse to determine when collecting information about the constipation?
A customer who just had a brain attack (cerebrovascular accident [cva]) and has restricted movement reports constipation; the length of time this condition has existed.
Why do brain assaults occur?A stroke, often known as a brain attack, is brought on by a clogged or ruptured artery. A stroke, commonly referred to as a brain attack, occurs when a blood vessel in the brain bursts or when something prevents blood from reaching a specific area of the brain.
Who experiences a stroke?The chance of having another stroke is significantly raised for the 70% of survivors who make a full recovery. People who have diabetes, high blood sugar, high cholesterol, high blood pressure, or any of these conditions are at risk.
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a 10-year-old boy accidentally spilled a cup of hot water onto his chest as he was taking the cup out of a microwave oven. you see him on the day of injury and assess his burns as 3% tbsa. on post-burn day 3, you re-evaluate his wound. on physical exam, his entire wound has completely unroofed a blister revealing the wound bed as pink, quickly blanching, moist, and quite painful. the depth of his wound is:
There at level of the innervates membrane, the airway is at its narrowest in youngsters. Due to this, cricothyroidotomy is contraindicated in children under the age of two, and emergency surgical airway access often entails needle jet ventilation and ultimately thoracentesis.
Cricothyroid: Adductor or not?They can be functionally separated into sphincters (transverse arytenoid, ” element, lateral cricoarytenoid, and transverse arytenoid), adductors (lateral cricoarytenoid and transverse arytenoid), persecutors (posterior cricoarytenoid), cricothyroid muscles, and vocal cord tensors and relaxors (thyroarytenoid, vocalis).
Semons law: what is it?According to Semon's Law, the abductors lose function before the adductors in a recurrent laryngeal nerve lesion that develops. Accordingly, the adductors will bring the chord to the midline in a partial paralysis, whereas in a complete paraplegia it falls away to the paramedian position.
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a toddler with a repaired myelomeningocele has urinary incontinence and some flaccidity of the lower extremities. which education would the nurse provide the parent?
The child will most often need to spend about 2 weeks in the hospital after surgery. He/she may need physical, occupational, and speech therapy. And may need to see a team of medical experts in spina bifida, often after discharge from the hospital.
Meningocele repair, known as (myelomeningocele repair) is surgery to repair birth defects of the spine and spinal membranes. Meningocele and myelomeningocele are types of spina bifida. If the myelomeningocele is not covered by skin or a membrane when the child is born, surgery will be done within 24 to 48 hours after birth.
Thirty to 40 percent of children with myelomeningocele develop some degree of renal dysfunction. Treatment to reduce bladder pressures and minimize urine stasis typically prevents or attenuates this complication. Ability to walk and control bowel and bladder function depends where the birth defect was on the spine. Defects lower down on the spinal cord may have a better outcome.
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which nursing interventions would provide safe oxygen therapy? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Nursing interventions would be beneficial for providing safe oxygen therapy:
Checking the tubes for kinks Posting "no smoking" signs in the client's roomABOUT OXYGEN THERAPYOxygen is a gas that is vital to human life. It is one of the gases that is found in the air we breathe. If you have a chronic lung disease, you may need additional (supplemental) oxygen for your organs to function normally.
Here are some conditions that may require supplemental oxygen, either temporarily or long-term:
COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)Pulmonary fibrosisPneumoniaA severe asthma attackCystic fibrosisSleep apneaAlthough oxygen therapy may be common in the hospital, it can also be used at home. There are several devices used to deliver oxygen at home. Your healthcare provider will help you choose the equipment that works best for you. Oxygen is usually delivered through nasal prongs (an oxygen cannula) or a face mask. Oxygen equipment can attach to other medical equipment such as CPAP machines and ventilators.
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what term best denotes a record that is composed of electronically stored information from numerous clinical systems (lab, radiology, pharmacy, nursing, and such) along with paper documents?
A record that is made up of electronically stored data from various clinical systems is best described as a hybrid health record.
What phrase describes health-related data on a person that complies with national standards the best?A PHR is defined as "an electronic record of health-related information about an individual that complies with nationally accepted interoperability standards and that can be accessed from many sources while being managed, shared, and controlled by the individual.
What is the name for the handling of corporate information strategically?governance of information. What phrase describes the strategic management of enterprise information, including the standards, guidelines, and practices for its use, access, and control. causing no harm
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