The nurse recognizes that providing emotional support is a crucial psychosocial intervention.
Which medical history increases the risk of uterine rupture in maternity patients?The risk of uterine rupture is increased by congenital uterine anomalies, multiparity, prior uterine myomectomy, the number and type of prior cesarean deliveries, fetal macrosomia, labor induction, uterine instrumentation, and uterine trauma, whereas prior successful vaginal delivery and a protracted labor decrease the risk.
What one of the following actions helps to lessen breast tenderness?
On your breasts, apply hot or cold compresses. Wear a solid support bra that, if feasible, has been professionally fitted. When exercising, especially if your breasts may be more sensitive, wear a sports bra.
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why does it hurt when i take a deep breath on my left side?
an awake, alert client is admitted to the critical care unit following a fall down a flight of stairs. the provider suspects a basilar skull fracture. which assessment findings should the nurse anticipate?
Raccoon eyes, and rhinorrhea are the findings to be assessed by the nurse in basilar fracture of a skull.
what is a basilar fracture of the skull?The prevalence of these fractures is higher in new-borns and older infants. Crack in the basilar skull. It involves a break in the bone at the base of the skull and is the most severe kind of skull fracture. Patients who suffer from this kind of fracture typically have bruises behind their ears and around their eyes. Patients may exhibit mental changes, nausea, and vomiting. Injuries to cranial nerves III, IV, and VI may result in oculomotor impairments. Due to compression of or damage to cranial nerve VII, patients may also exhibit face drooping, tinnitus or hearing loss are signs of injury to cranial nerve VIII. Clinical signs that are consistent with a basal skull fracture are typically brought on by bleeding, CSF leaks into one or more of these foramen or into the sinuses, or nerve injury in the bone canal. The blood arteries that nourish the brain can be injured as a result of basilar skull fractures. We refer to these as cerebrovascular injuries. A cerebrovascular injury poses a serious threat to people who have basilar skull fractures. Injuries of this nature can result in demise or irreversible brain damage. Treatment is not usually necessary for basal skull fractures. These fractures usually mend by themselves. In particular, leaks associated with skull fractures close to the eyes and nasal cavities may necessitate surgery to stop the leakage.
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the spouse of a client who has recently been diagnosed with early-stage alzheimer's disease asks the nurse to recommend websites that may supplement the spouse's learning about this diagnosis. how should the nurse respond to the spouse's request?
The nurse responds to the spouse's request by identifying and recommending some credible websites appropriate to the spouse's learning needs.
Which of the following is true for educating clients before discharge?The education of the client is centered on the demands of the home. A client can able to recognize, describe to others and explain the knowledge obtained during the health education session at the healthcare institution, the nurse observes.
What is a sign of Alzheimer's in its early stages?One of the initial symptoms of the condition is frequent memory issues. The early stages of Alzheimer's may also be indicated by a decline in non-memory components of cognition, such as difficulty using the correct word, difficulty comprehending visual imagery and spatial relationships, and impaired reasoning or judgment.
What comes first in the patient education process?The patient's present understanding of their disease and their knowledge needs are evaluated in the first stage. Some patients require additional time to become accustomed to new information, learn new skills, or alter their short- or long-term lifestyles.
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FILL IN THE BLANK in the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than______beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than_____ beats/min.
In the adult, Bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than 6o beats/min, and Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than 100 beats/min.
Bradycardia is a condition in which the heart beats slower than normal. The normal heart rate in an adult at rest is 60-100 bpm. However, the heart rate of people with bradycardia is below 60 bpm. Bradycardia occurs due to interference with the electrical impulses that control the tempo of the heartbeat. Some of the causes are electrolyte imbalance in the body, hypertension, myocarditis, and hypothyroidism.
While the condition of the heart that beats more than 100 bpm is called tachycardia. This condition can occur in response to normal conditions, disease, or heart rhythm disturbances (arrhythmias). Tachycardia generally does not cause symptoms or complications. However, this condition can interfere with heart function if left untreated. As a result, sufferers can experience heart failure, stroke, sudden heart attack, and even death.
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the nurse is caring for a patient with arousal disorder. on observation, the nurse finds the calf and shoulder muscles of the patient to be weakened and paralyzed. which qestion by the nurse is appropriate during the assessment
Do you often act out your dreams? would be the perfect question to ask a patient whose calf and shoulder muscles are weak and immobilized during observation.
Why is the aforementioned reaction suitable?Regarding how dreams affect the patient's mental state, questions are asked during the assessment interview. Those who suffer from this disease frequently act out their dreams. The assessment does not ask questions concerning unexpected waking, morning mental condition, or unusual behavior while you were sleeping.
For a patient who reports disturbed sleep quantity and quality, which nursing diagnostic is most suitable?The interruption of sleep quantity and quality to the point where it compromises performance is known as insomnia. The physical and emotional health of a patient can suffer from not getting enough sleep.
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The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:
The nurse is caring for a patient with arousal disorder. On observation the nurse finds the calf and shoulder muscles of the patient to be weakened and paralyzed. Which question by the nurse is appropriate during the assessment?
A)"Do you ever wake up suddenly after a dream?"
B)"How do you feel after waking up in the morning?"
C)"Do you have a tendency to act out your dreams?"
D)"Have you ever done unusual activity during sleep?"
a client with a suspected kidney disorder reports flank pain. which nursing interventions would be conducted while performing flank assessment? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
One of our clients complains of flank pain and is thought to have kidney disease. While conducting a flank evaluation, nursing interventions should be made. Place a flat hand on the CVA after asking the patient to sit down.
What conditions are regarded as renal disorders?The kidneys are harmed in CKD and are unable to filter blood as effectively as they should. This results in extra fluid and blood waste remaining in the body, which can lead to various health issues like stroke and heart disease.
How can you tell if there is a problem with your kidneys?It may indicate kidney illness if you experience the need to urine more frequently, especially at night. The need to urinate may become more intense when the kidney filters are compromised. This can occasionally also be a symptom of the a urinary infection or, in men, an enlarged prostate. Your urine has blood in it.
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the nurse is assigned to provide care for a newly admitted client. the nurse performs a physical assessment, reviews the admission form, and examines the primary health care provider's prescriptions. which tasks would the nurse identify as the priorities in this client's plan of care?
A nurse is accountable for the nursing acts and care they provide if they accept an assignment.
Is Costco the best place for prescriptions?In a time when the price of prescription drugs is soaring, Costco frequently offers affordable drug prices. A wholesale club may be a fantastic place to start if you want to lower the cost of the prescription medications, and you don't always have to pay a yearly joining fee to save money.
What is the cheapest way to get prescriptions?Working With Your Pharmacist is only one of 10 resources that can assist you save about prescription drugs. Get to know RXAssist and NeedyMeds. Analyze generic medications. Bulk Purchases: Obtain a prescription good for 90 days. For discounts, contact the drug manufacturer directly. Free Prescription Savings, please.
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a scientific experiment testing a new drug used two groups, one getting the drug and one getting a sugar pill. if the group getting the drug did much better than the group with the sugar pill:
If the group getting the drug did much better than the group with the sugar pill then it would indicate that the drug was more effective than the sugar pill.
Which client is most likely to profit from the placebo effect?3 People who are highly motivated and anticipate that the treatment will be effective may be more prone to experience a placebo effect. Even a patient's response might be affected by the prescribing doctor's enthusiasm for the course of therapy.
Does Sugar pill pose a problem?A hugely popular independent makeup line that is cruelty-free and offers lots of vegan options is called Sugar pill. They are also accredited by Leaping Bunny. They meet all the criteria I have for a wonderful brand: independent, cruelty-free, vegan, vibrant, and fun products.
What is contained in sugar pills?Contrary to popular belief, placebo tablets contain more than just sugar. While most pills still have sugar as their major component, some also have iron supplements to assist replenish the iron lost during the withdrawal hemorrhage (aka period). Others have trace levels of vitamins that are good for the health of women.
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a 30 year-old woman has presented to her family doctor complaining of three distressing episodes over the last several months in which she got extremely dizzy, had loud ringing in her ears and felt like her ears were full of fluid. she states that her hearing diminishes and she feels nauseous during these episodes. what diagnosis is the physician most likely to first suspect?
The medical professional most likely to initially anticipate a meniere's disease diagnosis, an inner ear illness that affects hearing as well as balance.
What comes first prognosis or diagnosis?The diagnosis is the identification of a condition based on a physical examination. Following comes the prognosis, which is a prediction of how the disease will progress, the course of treatment, or the result. It's a clever technique that a diagnostic comes first and it does so chronologically before a prognosis.
What is the first of the diagnosis process?Usually therapist begins by observing a patient's attitude, skin, posture, amount of distress, and other indicators that may help to clarify the health issue (Davies and Rees, 2010). These findings can also be taken into account if indeed the clinician has previously treated the patient.
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Which of the following are reliable sources for high quality, evidence-based preventive care recommendations? Select all that apply.A. Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)C. Choosing Wisely CampaignD. Prevention websiteE. U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)
The following organizations are trustworthy sources for sound, scientifically supported advice on preventive care: Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), and U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF).
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's (CDC), the Community Guide to Community Preventive Services: Evidence-Based Approaches, Programs, and Resources. United States Preventative Services Task Force (USPSTF) Guidelines, The AHRQ is the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality.
Here are some trustworthy resources for recommendations on high-quality, scientifically-supported preventive care:-
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)Prevention websiteE. U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)The mission of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) is to generate data to improve the safety, caliber, accessibility, equity, and affordability of healthcare, and to collaborate with other partners and the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to ensure that the data are understood and applied.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is a government organization that promotes and supports health awareness, disease prevention, and emergency preparedness initiatives in the US with the aim of enhancing general public health.
National experts in disease prevention and evidence-based medicine make up the independent, voluntary U.S. Preventive Services Task Force.
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a client with a closed head injury is receiving phenytoin, an anticonvulsant medication. which would indicate that the client is experiencing side effects related to this medication? select all that apply
a client with a closed head injury is receiving phenytoin, an anticonvulsant medication. Constipation, bleeding gums, hyperglycemia and decreased platelets would indicate that the client is experiencing side effects related to this medication.
What is an anticonvulsant medication?Anticonvulsants, commonly referred to as antiepileptic medications or antiseizure medications, are a broad class of pharmacological medicines used to treat epileptic seizures. Anticonvulsants are generally safe when properly managed. Some anticonvulsants, nevertheless, should not be used by specific populations of persons. Before taking an anticonvulsant, a person should inform their doctor if they have a history of any of the following: possible medication allergies. When using seizure medications for the first few weeks, frequent side effects that may manifest include fatigue, stomach upset or pain, dizziness, or impaired vision.
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a client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of major depression. during the admission interview, the nurse determines that a major concern is the client's poor nutritional intake. which nursing intervention related to poor nutrition would be the initial choice
The client's changed nutrition as a result of inadequate dietary intake is found to be a key worry by the nurse during the admission interview.
Which traits would a client in seasonal affective disorder be expected to exhibit, according to the nurse?
According to information intended for the general public, those with SAD may experience feelings of sadness, irritability, and frequent crying. They may also feel exhausted and lethargic, struggle to concentrate, sleep more than usual, run out of energy, cut back on their energy levels, withdraw from daily situations, and have a craving for carbohydrates and sugars.
However, there are some male abuse victims as well. The elderly without close relatives or friends, as well as those with disabilities, memory issues, or dementia, are likely targets.
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what is the most important action the nurse can take to ensure that a midstream urine specimen does not become contaminated?
Ensure that the patient's perineum has been cleansed before the specimen is obtained.
Urologic illnesses and ailments include, among other things, urinary tract infections, kidney stones, bladder control issues, and prostate issues. Some urologic disorders do not affect a person for a long time, while others are permanent. Nephrologists often examine and treat kidney disorders, whereas urologists deal with issues in other organs. Gynecologists can help women with incontinence issues.
Other bodily system diseases can also have an impact on urogenital function. It has been demonstrated, for example, that protein produced by the kidneys in diabetes mellitus sensitises the kidney to the harmful effects of hypertension. Diabetes can also have a direct influence on urination owing to peripheral neuropathies, which occur in certain diabetics who are poorly managed.
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which worker(s) would the nurse consider to be at high risk of developing dermatitis? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct
The nurse believes that people who work in dry cleaning and dyeing have a high risk of developing dermatitis. So, option A and B are correct.
The primary risk factor for getting atopic dermatitis is having eczema, allergies, hay fever, or asthma in the past. If you have family members who are affected by these diseases, your risk is also raised. A irritant could be chemical, biological, mechanical, or physical. More than 20 hand washes per day or having wet hands for more than two hours at a time both increase the risk of developing irritating dermatitis.
Even a mild cleaner might dry your skin out and irritate it if your skin is very sensitive to it or if you use it frequently enough. Dermatologists refer to the rash that develops on sensitive skin after coming into contact with cleaning agents as contact dermatitis. It is red, puffy, and irritating. Dermatitis is a result of the immune system being activated, genetics, and environmental stimuli combined. defense system. Your immune system could occasionally overreact. If you have atopic dermatitis, your immune system reacts to allergens or irritants that seem small.
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The above question is incomplete. Check below the complete question -
Which workers would the nurse consider to be at high risk of developing dermatitis? Select all that apply.
A) Dry cleaners
B) Dye workers
C) Sewage cleaner
D) Construction labor
which countertransference reaction is the nurse most likely to expeince when a patient frequently discusses family disputes and is verballly abusive
Boredom countertransference reaction is the nurse most likely to experience when a patient frequently discusses family disputes and is verbally abusive.
Because of the client's conduct, the nurse is vulnerable to a number of countertransference reactions. If the client repeatedly provides boring information and communicates in an offensive manner, the nurse may grow bored and uninterested in talking to and dealing with the client. When the client confides in the nurse, the nurse may have a rescue reaction (a countertransference reaction).
When treatment goals are not met and the client does not participate in the treatment successfully, the nurse may experience emotions of powerlessness. Overinvolvement is felt by the nurse when the client's behaviour reminds him or her of a close friend or previous client.
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the nursing team, consisting of one nurse, one lpn/lvn, and one unlicensed assistive personnel (uap), receives a report from the previous shift. at the completion of the report, it is most important for the nurse to take which action?
Typically, easy, routine activities like making empty beds, monitoring patient ambulation, assisting with cleanliness, and feeding meals can be delegated. Working closely with the UAP or providing the care yourself is preferable if the patient is very obese, recovering from surgery, or weak.
How to delegate to UAPs?To support you in providing care for your patients, you undoubtedly rely on unlicensed assistive people (UAPs). Although you may have given some of your patients' care to a UAP, as an RN or LPN, you are still ultimately in charge of them.There are a few rules you need to be aware of in order to delegate properly, legally, and efficiently. Check the five items below to be sure you're fulfilling your obligations before delegating tasks to UAPs.State laws The extent of your own practice should be clear to you. Any choices you make about assigning tasks to others will be legally supported by the regulations that regulate your profession as a licensed nurse. For more information on the legislation that apply to nursing practice where you work, get in touch with the state board of nursing.Generally speaking, it is against the law to assign advanced education-required tasks to a UAP. Likewise, tasks requiring a decision based on data analysis are outside the UAP's purview. Tasks, not mental processes, should be prioritized when assigning work to a UAP.Laws and regulations. Go over the documented delegation rules in your facility and contrast them with the nursing practice act's legal requirements. They ought to agree, but if you notice a difference, get more information. The nursing practice act takes precedence over employer policy, so keep that in mind to protect your license.UAPs. Discover the personalities of your UAPs. You may delegate in a secure and productive manner by being familiar with each person's capabilities.Patients. The condition of your patient, not the task itself, may determine whether or not a task can be appropriately assigned. A UAP might be asked to assist a stable, ambulatory patient to the restroom, for instance. It would not be suitable for you to ask him to assist an unstable patient by himself.In charge-taking and delegation. What inspires the UAPs that you are in charge of? The best technique is to evaluate how well they adhere to the current standards of care.To Learn more About UAP Refer To:
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which symptom in a women who is using oral contraceptives should be reported to the physician immediately
Oral contraceptives raise clotting factors, putting a woman at risk having thrombophlebitis. The symptoms of thrombophlebitis are leg discomfort & edema.
Thrombophlebitis is now an inflammatory condition in which a blood clot forms and blocks one or more veins, most often in the legs. The afflicted vein might be on the skin's surface (superficial thrombophlebitis) and deep inside a muscle (deep vein thrombosis, or DVT). Trauma, surgery, and extended inactivity are all causes of thrombophlebitis. The most critical need for women using oral contraceptives would be that they remember to take them on a daily basis at around the same time.
When doses are often missed, oral contraceptives aren't an effective method of pregnancy control. Combination oral contraceptives should never be given to women over the age of 35 who also smoke due to an increased risk of blood clots, or to women with high blood pressure, cardiovascular disease, migraines with auras, liver problems, extremely high cholesterol, a background of blood clots, a history of stroke, as well as breast cancer.
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a nursing student is outlining the steps for examining a 4-year-old sick child. which statement made by the student indicates inadequate learning?
The statement made by the student that indicates inadequate learning is "I should make judgments when a parent shares the details of a child's illness."
Pediatrics is the medical specialty concerned with the medical treatment of newborns, children, adolescents, and young adults. Paediatrics includes many of the youth in the United Kingdom till the age of 18. A paediatrician is a physician who specialises in the care of newborns, children, adolescents, and young adults. Pediatric treatment begins at birth and continues until a kid reaches the age of 21 or older. Pediatricians prevent, identify, and treat physical, behavioural, and developmental problems in children.
As a result, paediatric patients have a greater volume of distribution than adults, which directly affects the dosage of hydrophilic drugs such as beta-lactam antibiotics like ampicillin. Plasma proteins are also lower in infants and neonates.
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which descriptors for maturity-onset diabetes of the young (mody) would the nurse identify as accurate? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The nurse would identify the Autosomal dominant and a short age of onset or maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY). Option 1 and 2 are correct.
MODY is an autosomal dominant disorder that often manifests before the age of 25, and is distinguished by its early age of onset. While type 2 diabetes is linked to obesity and hypertension, MODY is not. MODY does not develop from a combination of insufficient insulin secretion and resistance; instead, it is defined by a single gene mutation that causes beta cell malfunction and an inability of the pancreas to produce enough levels of insulin, making insulin required. Clients with MODY typically exhibit polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, weight loss, weakness, and weariness rather than fatigue, recurrent infection, and protracted wound healing. Ketoacidosis may also occasionally be present.
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The complete question is:
Which descriptors for maturity-onset diabetes of the young (mody) would the nurse identify as accurate? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
1) Autosomal dominant
2) Having a short age of onset
3) Linked to fat and hypertension
4) Polygenic (>25 genes influence susceptibility)
which intervention would be included in the plan of care for a client diagnosed with hyperthyroidism?
Promoting rest is a difficult but crucial chore for a client with hyperthyroidism to minimise metabolic demands. Reduced glucose tolerance and hyperglycemia are symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Since there is no sign that radioactive iodine was administered, the client doesn't produce radiation. The patient's hunger will grow.
The most typical cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves-disease. Since Graves disease has an autoimmune origin, this type of hyperthyroidism usually affects younger people. Toxic multinodular goiter is the most typical cause of hyperthyroidism in the older population. Although Graves disease and toxic multinodular goiter are the most frequent causes of hyperthyroidism, other conditions such thyroid adenomas, de Quervain thyroiditis (subacute thyroiditis), postpartum thyroiditis, and factitious thyroiditis can also result in hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis factitia). Hyperthyroidism linked with incorrect or excessive thyroid hormone use is known as factitious thyroiditis. Thyroxine has the potential to be abused due to a well-liked side effect of weight reduction, so any history of a hyperthyroid patient should include a drug list and an evaluation.
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The complete question is:
Which intervention would be included in the plan of care for a client diagnosed with hyperthyroidism?
Answer: arrange for sufficient rest periods
Explanation:
what is the most significant side effect of synthetic thyroid replacement medications? decreased blood glucose risk of falls cardiac dysrhythmia tremors
Cardiac dysrhythmia is the main side effect of synthetic thyroid replacement therapy.
Agranulocytosis, which happens in 0.1 to 0.5% of patients, is the most harmful side effect. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor administration can now successfully treat this life-threatening condition. The most prevalent type of arrhythmia in hyperthyroid patients is sinus tachycardia because thyroid hormone directly stimulates the sinus node pacemaker. Heart disease and heart failure risk can increase as a result of hypothyroidism. This is primarily because individuals with hypothyroidism frequently experience elevated levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, also known as "bad" cholesterol.
An abnormal or irregular heartbeat is known as a cardiac dysrhythmia (arrhythmia). A dysrhythmia can cause your heart to beat too quickly or too slowly. Another possibility is that your heart's rhythm is disturbed, giving you the impression that a beat has skipped. Risky conditions include ventricular fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, and asystole or prolonged pauses. Arrhythmias brought on by extremely low magnesium or potassium levels, as well as those brought on by inherited conditions like QT prolongation, are all very serious.
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a nurse is struggling to provide adequate care during an exceptionally busy shift. which action is most likely a violation of occupational safety and health administration (osha) regulations?
The nurse manually lifts a heavy client rather than using a mechanical lift will be most likely a violation of occupational safety and health administration (OSHA) regulations.
What is role of a nurse?Nurses are a patient's first point of contact with their care team, administering treatments and medications while closely monitoring their condition and coordinating responses from the rest of the care team.
Registered nurse anaesthetist with certification. Nurse anaesthetists are highly respected members of the nursing profession, and becoming one requires years of education, training, and experience. These nurses administer anaesthesia to patients in surgical, dental, or ER/OR settings.
Rather than using a mechanical lift, the nurse manually lifts a heavy client. if a nurse is having difficulty providing adequate care during a particularly busy shift.
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rationale for seeking specialization in a ms counseling-related program this section must address: your clear understanding of the clinical program area, with attention to licensure and the role of a licensed counselor. the clear link between the program you selected and your career goals. your substantive, carefully considered reasons for seeking a clinical graduate degree in counseling (beyond merely being a good listener or wanting to help others). support your ideas with relevant information from reliable sources, utilizing correct apa formatting.
Both a Master of Science (MS) and a Master of Arts (MA) are postgraduate degree programs that educate you to work as a therapist in specialties like substance misuse counseling, marital and family therapy, and mental health counseling.
What’s the difference between an MA and MS in Counseling?Both a Master of Science (MS) and a Master of Arts (MA) are postgraduate degree programs that educate you to work as a therapist in specialties like substance misuse counseling, marital and family therapy, and mental health counseling.According to Dr. Karen Miranda, the director of Regis College's graduate counseling programs, "the truth is that there really isn't much of a difference between the two degrees at all." Many students believe that since you use the word "arts," you are drawing from the liberal arts, while they believe that you are pulling more from the sciences when you use the word "science." At least for counseling programs, that is less true at the graduate level, even while it is more true at the undergraduate level.Dr. Miranda claims that regardless of whether you're pursuing an MA or MS degree, the required essentials will be covered in the core curriculum. TThese include theories of counseling, human growth and development, helping relationships, social and cultural foundations, and research methods. The curriculum simply lacks sufficient "open slots" for an MA or MS to make a significant difference.
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which standard is important for the nurse to use in critical thinking? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Specific and relevant are the standards which are important for the nurse to use in critical thinking.
Analyzing the information at hand—facts, proof, experiences, and arguments—in order to make a decision is known as critical thinking. The definitions regarding what it implies to examine or assess verifiable facts in a rational, critical, and unbiased way vary widely, and the subject is challenging.
A nurse's specific responsibilities include managing patients' physical requirements, curing illness, and healing medical disorders. Nurses must watch and supervise the patient while documenting any pertinent data to support therapy decision-making.The nursing code of ethics aids carers in maintaining a secure pleasant atmosphere and taking into account patients' demands from various angles.
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which standard is important for the nurse to use in critical thinking? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Specific
Fairness
Relevant
Confidence
Independence
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sickle-cell anemia is associated with a mutation in the gene encoding the beta subunit of hemoglobin that results in a change from glutamic acid to valine at position 6. all other amino acids are identical to a normal hemoglobin molecule. based on the information above, which of the following mutations is the most likely cause of sickle-cell anemia?
Sickle-cell anemia is associated with A single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit.
What effects does sickle cell anemia have on a person?Organs impacted by sickle cells that prevent blood flow are deprived of both blood and oxygen. Blood oxygen levels are also abnormally low in sickle cell anaemia. This deficiency in oxygen-rich blood can be lethal and harm nerves and organs like the kidneys, liver, and spleen. Sickle cell is an inherited condition brought on by a gene deficiency. Only when two genes—one from the mother and one from the father—are inherited together will a person be born with sickle cell disease. A healthy individual who carries the disease in the form of just one gene is referred to as a "carrier."
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a nurse is preparing to administer methylprednisolone 30 mg/kg iv bolus to a school-age child who weighs 47 lb. after reconstitution, how many ml should the nurse administer? (round the answer to the nearest hundredth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)
16ml of bacteriostaric water will be used to reconstitute 1 gramme of methylprednisolone nurse should give 10.22ml of bacteriostatic water 0.63gram of methylprednisolon has reconstituted into 0.63 16 = 10.22ml.
What is a bacteriostatic illustration?
Bacteriostatic antimicrobials include those from the following classes and individual antimicrobials: tetracyclines, macrolides, clindamycin, rifampin, linezolid, and chloramphenicol. However, owing of its negative effects, chloramphenicol has lost favour in recent years in routine clinical use.
What do bacteriostatic and bactericidal mean?
Based on their effects on microbial cells via two basic mechanisms—either bactericidal or bacteriostatic—antibiotics can be categorised into two classes. Drugs that are bacteriostatic prevent bacterial growth whereas bacteriocidal antibiotics destroy germs .
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the nurse cares for a client two hours after a percutaneous liver biopsy. which finding requires an immediate intervention by the nurse?
The nurse cares for a client two hours after a percutaneous liver biopsy and an immediate intervention by the nurse is to place the client in supine position.
In a percutaneous liver biopsy, a needle is inserted through the skin and eventually into the liver tissue to collect a sample for use in staging, diagnosing, and/or developing therapies for a variety of liver disorders. The process was primary reported in 1923.
In contrast to the prone position, which is face down, the supine posture involves reclining horizontally with both the face and torso facing upward. It connects directly to the peritoneal, thoracic, and cardiac areas as well as the head, neck, and extremities when employed in surgical procedures.
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which intervention would the plan of care include during the acute phase of a child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?
Interventions in the acute phase care plan for children with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome are diuretic treatment and albumin infusion.
What is nephrotic syndrome?Nephrotic syndrome is a clinical condition that includes massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and edema. This gives rise to a set of clinical symptoms and is associated with inflammation in the renal glomerulus. Nephrotic syndrome is a disorder of the kidneys, especially due to glomerular damage.
Management of nephrotic syndrome in children is :
Corticosteroids.Diuretic drugs.Penicillin.Diet changes.Albumin infusion.In some cases, especially for children, if therapy is carried out quickly, improvement in this disease can occur. The possibility of recovery depends on the severity of the kidney disorder that occurs.
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Which intervention would the plan of care include during the acute phase of a child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?
Diuretic treatment and albumin infusion.Administration of pain medicationLearn more about the diagnostic features of nephrotic syndrome here :
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while assessing the nails of a client with diabetes, the nurse finds the skin on the client's hands and feet are dry due to infection. which rationale would the nurse associate with this dryness?
After a 10-minute soak in warm water, clip your nails. Usually, nails should be filed after soaking in warm water for ten minutes. It is not advised for diabetics since soaking the nails would result in dry, cracked hands and feet. Infection risk has increased.
What is diabetes?Blood sugar, or unexpectedly high blood glucose levels, can lead to the onset of diabetes. Blood glucose, which is our body's primary energy source is supplied by the food we eat. The pancreas releases the hormone insulin, which facilitates the uptake of glucose from food into our cells for cellular energy. Our bodies occasionally create little to no insulin or only use it inefficiently. As a result, glucose does not enter your cells and instead remains in your circulation.
Having too much glucose in your blood over time might lead to health issues. Although diabetes cannot be cured, there are steps you can take to manage it and keep your health.
Types 1 and 2 of diabetes are the most prevalent varieties.
Condition 1
The inability to produce insulin is a complication of type 1 diabetes. The pancreatic cells that produce insulin are attacked by and killed by your immune system. Any age can experience type 1 diabetes, however, children and young adults are the most common age groups when it is found. Insulin must be given daily to people with type 1 diabetes to maintain their health.
Condition 2
Your body does not produce enough insulin or utilize it as efficiently if you have type 2 diabetes. Type 2 diabetes can strike at any age, including in young children. A person is more prone to get this type of diabetes if they are older or in their middle years.
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______ are at the top of the Mediterranean Diet Pyramid, which indicates they should be eaten least frequently.
The Mediterranean Diet Pyramid is topped by meats and sweets, indicating that these foods should be consumed infrequently.
How do diet and dieting differ from one another?Diets typically follow a set of guidelines that specify what, when, and how to consume in addition to being more structured in nature. However, when it comes to dieting, some of the restrictions may be relaxed or relaxed while others are maintained or strengthened.
Which regular diet is the healthiest?The Mediterranean diet is considered one of the best diets by health experts, including the American Heart Association (AHA). such as plant-based diets and the Mediterranean diet, which place a strong emphasis on vegetables.
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