The establishment of the nurse-patient relationship requires therapeutic communication techniques to function smoothly. Some are:
A. Active listening
B. Open-ended questions
C. Assertiveness
D. Empathy
E. Reflection of feelings
F. Clarification
What are Therapeutic communication techniques?
Therapeutic communication techniques are strategies that healthcare providers use to appropriately and effectively communicate with their patients. These techniques involve expressing empathy, active listening, and using open-ended questions to better understand the patient’s feelings, needs, and concerns. Therapeutic communication can help build a trusting relationship between the provider and the patient, so that the patient feels comfortable enough to discuss their health issues openly.
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which tasks related to dressing would the nurse expect the 2-year-old child to accomplish? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct
The nurse may expect the 2-year-old child to pull off his socks or maybe put his shoes on. He/she may throw some tantrums too.
Why are 2 year olds so fidgety?There are various causes for children to fidget a lot.
Sometimes it's because you're bored. However, stress, worry, hyperactivity, and concentration issues are frequent causes. ADHD children frequently fidget.
Most 2-year-olds are unable to remain still for very long. Simply said, they must move. Therefore, it is unfair to demand that your child sit through a lengthy movie, a sumptuous lunch, or an entire sermon.
Neurodevelopmental diseases include ADHD, processing difficulties, learning disabilities, and Asperger syndrome all frequently exhibit fidgeting as a symptom (ASD). It happens when your child works on chores that aren't engaging enough to keep his or her attention.
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Explain the perspective of holistic medicine and the importance of preventative medicine. Write at least two sentences.
Holistic medicine is a type of treatment that focuses on the whole person—their mind, body, emotions, and spirit—in order to achieve optimal health and wellness. A holistic physician can treat a patient using any type of healthcare, including conventional medicine and alternative therapies.
A medical facility known as preventive medicine was established by the American Board of Medical Specialties (ABMS) and serves a crucial role by concentrating on the wellbeing of the local populations. The goal of preventive medicine is to promote wellbeing and health as well as to avert illness, disability, and death.
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given the fact that acute pancreatitis can result in severe, life-threatening complications, the nurse should be assessing the client for which complication?
The symptoms of acute pancreatitis might also include disorientation, respiratory failure, or coma but not necessarily stomach pain. Possible findings the nurse should look for include pleural effusion, slight jaundice, tachycardia, and hypotension.
What is acute pancreatitis ?The pancreatic becomes inflamed over a short period of time in acute pancreatitis, a dangerous disorder. A tiny organ behind the stomach and beneath the ribs is the pancreas.
Gallstones or excessive alcohol use are the primary causes of acute pancreatitis, however sometimes no cause may be found.
Upper abdomen pain is one of the indications and symptoms of acute pancreatitis.
radiating back ache from your abdomen
sensitivity to touch in the abdominal region.
Fever.
rapid heartbeat
Nausea.
Vomiting
The pancreas becomes inflamed and enlarged during a brief period of time in acute pancreatitis. The pancreas is a little organ that aids in digestion and is situated behind the stomach. Most people with acute pancreatitis start feeling better within a week or so and don't experience any more complications.
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a client has been diagnosed with aortic stenosis and asks the nurse what this means. the most appropriate response would be:
Answer:
The valve opening is narrowed and produces increased resistance to blood flow out of the left ventricle and into the aorta.
Explanation:
a family is preparing for travel and the parents report that their 5-year-old child has frequent motion sickness. the nurse will tell the parents to ask the provider about which antihistamine to help prevent symptoms? a. desloratadine [clarinex] b. dimenhydrinate [dramamine] c. hydroxyzine [vistaril] d. promethazine [phenergan]
Promethazine would be best suited for the prevention of motion sickness. It can be taken orally and before starting the journey.
Antihistamines are drugs which treat allergic rhinitis, common cold, influenza, and other allergies. Typically, people take antihistamines as an inexpensive, generic (not patented) drug that can be bought without a prescription and provides relief from nasal congestion, sneezing, or hives caused by pollen, dust mites, or animal allergy with few side effects. Antihistamines are usually for short-term treatment. Chronic allergies increase the risk of health problems which antihistamines might not treat, including asthma, sinusitis, and lower respiratory tract infection. Consultation of a medical professional is recommended for those who intend to take antihistamines for longer-term use.
Itching, sneezing, and inflammatory responses are suppressed by antihistamines that act on H1-receptors. In 2014, antihistamines such as desloratadine were found to be effective to complement standardized treatment of acne due to their anti-inflammatory properties and their ability to suppress sebum production.
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an older woman with osteoporosis presents with pain and deformity to her left hip after she shifted her weight onto her other foot. she has most likely experienced a(n)
When her pain persisted, she went to her primary care doctor.
What is the most typical reason for falls among senior people?Risk factors for falling include postural hypotension, issues with balance and gait, and age-related loss of muscle mass (sarcopenia), which causes an excessive drop in blood pressure when you get up from lying down or sitting.
Which of the following conditions frequently affect senior joints?The most prevalent type of arthritis in older persons is osteoarthritis. Additionally, it is among the most typical causes of physical disability in adulthood. When the tissues that cushion the ends of the bones within the joints degenerate over time, it results in osteoarthritis, a degenerative joint condition.
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the nurse is teaching care of the newborn to a group of prospective parents and describes the need for administering antibiotic ointment into the eyes of the newborn. which infectious organism will this treatment prevent from harming the infant?
Nurse is teaching care of newborn and describes the need for administering antibiotic ointment in eyes of the newborn. Infectious organism that this treatment will prevent is gonorrhea.
What is done to prevent gonorrhea in infant?Gonorrhea may infect an infant during delivery as the infant passes through the birth canal. If it is left untreated, infants can develop eye infections.
A sexually transmitted bacterial infection that, if untreated, may cause infertility.
Erythromycin ointment is instilled in the lower conjunctiva of each eye within 2 hours of birth to prevent ophthalmica neonatorum and infection caused by gonorrhea including conjunctivitis which is an infection caused by chlamydia.
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which statement should the nurse convey to the mother of a 3-year-old son who has not achieved urinary continence?
The nurse should inform the mother of a 3-year-old boy who has not gained urine continence that boys sometimes take longer to attain daytime urinary continence.
Which type of incontinence is brought on by a detrusor muscle that is hyperactive and causes uncontrollable bladder contractions?Patients frequently mention triggers for urge incontinence, such as chilly temperatures, running water, or inserting a key into a lock. A urodynamic diagnosis of leakage accompanied by uncontrollable detrusor muscle spasms is called detrusor overactivity incontinence.
Why does incontinence occur?Numerous conditions, such as urinary tract infections, vaginal infections or irritations, or constipation, can cause incontinence. Some medications have the potential to cause momentary bladder control issues. Weak pelvic floor muscles or a weak bladder may be to blame for incontinence that lasts longer.
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a perioperative team is performing time-out prior to a cardiac bypass procedure. list the components of the time-out process. ati
The Universal Protocol has three elements: pre-procedural confirmation, site marking, & time out.
Before making the surgical incision or beginning the process, the whole surgical team checks the patient's identification, the treatment, and the surgical site. A time-out is also a place set aside for team members to raise any issues they may have about the safety of the patient or the treatment.
Best practices advise that the physician who will be doing the surgery should lead the time out, with participation from the whole team who will be attending to the patient throughout the treatment.
Making one person accountable for calling the timeout is an efficient technique to ensure team compliance & maintain planned time-outs. In the majority of ORs, the circulation.
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a full term infant is admitted to the newborn nursery. after careful assessment, the nurse suspects that the infant may have an esophageal atresia. which symptoms are this newborn likely to exhibit?
The nurse thinks the baby might have esophageal atresia. This infant is likely to display symptoms of cyanosis, coughing, and choking.
Can you self diagnose symptoms?Self-diagnosis is not only unpleasant, but it may also be risky. Making quick judgments about the ailment you have could lead to you receiving unfair treatment. People who self-diagnose psychological syndromes risk missing a physical condition that relates to their symptoms by doing so.
What are the types of symptoms?Three basic categories of symptom exist: Resolving signs: Remittance symptoms are those that become better or go away completely. Chronic symptoms are those that last a long time or come back frequently. Symptoms that have previously appeared, gone away, and then come back are referred to as relapsing symptoms.
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if your patient presented with edema in their lower extemity what soft tissue technique would you use
If patient presented with edema in their lower extremity the soft tissue technique of effleurage and kneading should be used.
What causes edema in extremities?Some causes of edema in the extremities include: Any obstruction, including a blood clot in a vein, can stop the flow of blood. Edema develops as a result of fluid leakage into the surrounding tissue as venous pressure rises. Varicose veins: These typically develop as a result of broken valves.
Which drug treats edema the best?Loop diuretics are frequently the first drug of choice when a clinician is treating edema directly. In certain circumstances, a physician might also advise taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medicines (NSAIDs).
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an adult client complains of dark stools for the past 3 days. which lab should the nurse review right away?
Answer:
Dark stool may indicate presence of blood. Therefore, a complete blood count should be assessed to check for blood loss.
Explanation:
teaching to a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. the nurse should
The nurse should avoid the client to intake herbs like Soy isoflavones
Why should you avoid herbs while taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism?Levothyroxine is a type of thyroid medicine that is used to treat conditions like goiter, Hashimoto's disease, and poor thyroid function (hypothyroidism).
The herb most frequently linked to the treatment of hypothyroidism is Fucus vesiculosus, sometimes known as bladderwrack. Due to its high iodine concentration, this kelp and seaweed supplement is frequently used in the treatment of hypothyroidism.
Many patients mix their thyroxine with water that has been infused with herbal extracts. Thyroxine's effectiveness was significantly decreased when combined with herbal brews.
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the medical condition whereby an individual's blood glucose levels are chronically elevated but not high enough to be diagnosed as having diabetes is called group of answer choices
Pre-diabetes, which affects approximately 1 in 6 persons (more than 2 million people) over the age of 25, is a similar disorder. When blood glucose levels are above normal but not high enough to be classified as diabetes, the condition is called pre-diabetes.
What disease is marked by slightly raised blood glucose levels?A higher than usual blood sugar level is referred to as prediabetes. It is not yet regarded to be type 2 diabetes due to its low level. But without a change in lifestyle, prediabetic adults and kids run a serious danger of developing type 2 diabetes.
The term diabetes is most generally used to refer to diabetes mellitus. It occurs when your pancreas doesn't make enough insulin to keep the level of glucose, or sugar, in your blood under control.
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early diagnosis for diabetes mellitus in the older adult is more difficult due to the presentation of nonspecific manifestations of the disease. therefore, how often should the nurse obtain fasting blood glucose levels to determine a diagnosis?
early diagnosis for diabetes mellitus in the older adult is more difficult due to the presentation of nonspecific manifestations of the disease. therefore, how often should the nurse obtain fasting blood glucose levels to determine a diagnosis of plasma glucose level is between 60 and 99 mg/dl.
A typical fasting plasma glucose level is between 60 and 99 mg/dl, while typical fasting blood glucose awareness is between 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L) and 100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L) at different times.Fasting plasma glucose test: Diabetes usually doesn't become apparent until two different tests have two values of 126 or higher. The class system for diabetes mellitus is unique because, with the exception of patients with type 1 diabetes, research suggests that there are significant differences between individuals within each class and that some patients may even migrate between classes. Type 1 diabetes, Type 2 diabetes, gestational diabetes, and diabetes mellitus associated with other diseases are the basic classifications for diabetes.
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vertical banded gastroplasty is a surgical procedure that reduces the volume of the stomach in order to produce weight loss. in a recent study, 82 patients with type 2 diabetes underwent this procedure, and 59 of them experienced a recovery from diabetes. does this study provide convincing evidence that the percentage of those with diabetes who undergo this surgery will recover from diabetes differs from 74%? use the
Yes, this study provides convincing evidence that the percentage of those with diabetes who undergo this surgery will recover from diabetes differs from 74%.
What is the process of vertical banded gastroplasty?
The normal digestive process is not hampered by restrictive gastric procedures like vertical banded gastroplasty, which only serve to limit and decrease food intake. In this technique, a tiny pouch is made along the inner curvature of the stomach by vertically stapling the upper stomach close to the oesophagus.
What are the advantages of reversibility of vertical banded gastroplasty?
The vertical banded gastroplasty operation has a number of advantages, such as a low risk of starvation or dumping syndrome, the preservation of the body's architecture, and the ability to be reversed with subsequent surgery.
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Your neighbor wants to try your isotretinoin. You tell her or him:a. I must not share isotretinoin.b. He or she must see a doctor/prescriber who can prescribe isotretinoin.c. You tell her or him both of these reasons.
A neighbor wants to try your isotretinoin. You tell her or him: c. You tell him these two reasons.
What is isotretinoin?Isotretinoin is a drug for treating acne with mild to moderate severity. Isotretinoin is commonly used to treat blackheads and inflamed acne. This drug is available in gel form. Isotretinoin is a vitamin A derivative (retinoid).
Isotretinoin is a drug that is widely used to treat inflamed pimples and blackheads. However, its use also carries the risk of causing side effects, ranging from allergic reactions, and dry skin, to acne, that appear to get worse so the user needs to see a doctor.
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when analyzing the behaviors of a 23-year-old who meets the criteria for antisocial personality disorder, the nurse recognizes that which nursing diagnosis would be pertinent to his care? 1 point risk for self-mutilation
C. Impaired Social Interactions is the correct answer.
Impulsive, cunning, and dishonest behaviour are all characteristics of an antisocial personality disorder patient. Patients with this illness engage in criminal activity rather regularly. Patients with borderline personality disorder are more appropriately diagnosed with self-mutilation and disturbed identity. Cluster A diseases would be more likely to experience social isolation.
What is Personality Disorder?
If you have a rigid and unhealthy habit of thinking, acting, and behaving, you may have a personality disorder. A personality disorder makes it difficult for the sufferer to perceive and relate to others.
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The loops of henle create a concentration gradient in the interstitial fluid surrounding the loop, with the concentration highest in the _____ and lowest in the _____ of the kidney.
The loops of henle create a concentration gradient in the interstitial fluid surrounding the loop, with the concentration highest in the inner medulla and lowest in the cortex of the kidney.
The nephron's Loop of Henle is a U-shaped tubular structure that is recognised for preserving a concentration gradient there.
The Henle loop is found in the renal medulla of the kidney, beneath the proximal tubule, which is found in the renal cortex.
Due to the strong concentration gradient created by the Henle loop in the inner medulla, water is reabsorbed in the descending tubule. The ascending limb has a modest concentration gradient in the cortex because it is impervious to water but permeable to ions.
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a client with a history of acute coronary syndrome asks why she needs to take aspirin 81 mg every day. the most appropriate response by the nurse would be:
"Aspirin can aid in preventing blood clot formation." Salicylate (acetylsalicylic acid) is indeed the antiplatelet medication of choice for ACS patients to stop platelet aggregation.It is thought that aspirin speeds up reperfusion and lessen the risk of rethrombosis because it works by preventing the formation of prostaglandin thromboxane A2.The third option does not exhibit therapeutic communication, and this amount of aspirin is not suitable for relieving pain.
What three forms for acute coronary syndrome are there?Patients with suspected or confirmed acute myocardial ischemia or infarction are referred to as having acute coronary syndrome (ACS).The three conventional kinds of ACS are unstable angina, ST-elevation myocardial infarction, and non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction.
Is there a cure for acute coronary syndrome?Acute coronary syndrome can be prevented or treated with the appropriate lifestyle modifications and medications, allowing a person to continue a normal life.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is receiving iv vancomycin. the nurse infuses the medication at the prescribed rate to prevent what from occurring?
The nurse infuses the medication to prevent: Red man syndrome.
What is Red man syndrome ?Red man syndrome is a reaction to infusions that is specific to vancomycin . The face, neck, and upper body are frequently covered in an erythematous rash with pruritus. Angioedema and hypotension can happen less frequently.
Following intravenous vancomycin administration, red man syndrome (RMS), a common allergic reaction to vancomycin, often manifests as a rash on the face, neck, and upper body. RMS may occasionally be accompanied by angioedema and hypotension.
Red man syndrome (RMS), formerly known as vancomycin flushing syndrome (VFS), is an anaphylactoid reaction brought on by the quick infusion of the glycopeptide antibiotic vancomycin.
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which action would the nurse take when performing endotracheal tube suctioning on a patient with thick secretion
To avoid hypoxemia, the nurse should give oxygen for 30 seconds after the last suction and before beginning the next.
How is endotracheal suctioning carried out?The suction pressure should be between 120 and 140 mm Hg. To achieve this, unlock the suction control valve (thumb valve), fully depress the valve, and adjust the vacuum regulator. Just enough suction should be applied to efficiently remove secretions. The injury to the tracheal mucosa may increase with high negative pressure levels.
Can an endotracheal tube be suctioned?Intensive care units routinely suction endotracheal tubes (ETTs) to remove mucus and maintain an open airway so that an intubated patient's oxygenation and ventilation can be maximized. Hypoxia may result with ETT suction because of oxygen suction from Alveoli and the lung.
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a patient with breast cancer is receiving trastuzumab in combination with doxorubicin. the nurse would monitor the patient for which complication?
This patient's top concern is "Do not take this medication with grapefruit juice." Trastuzumab and doxorubicin are being given to patients with breast cancer.
Transtuzumab: a chemotherapeutic drug?
Breast cancer that has spread metastatically is treated with trastuzumab. The HER2/neu protein-overexpressed malignancies can be effectively treated with it. is a component of a chemotherapy regimen used as adjuvant therapy for breast cancer with HER2/neu protein positivity and positive lymph nodes.
Why is trastuzumab administered following chemotherapy?
Because this is how it has been examined in clinical trials, trastuzumab is typically administered along with chemotherapy. Additionally, it can be administered in conjunction with other therapies like radiation, hormone therapy, and a different biological therapy known as pertuzumab (Perjeta).
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which respiratory problem is characterized by symptoms including a cough, fever, fatigue, and weight loss?
Answer:
tuberculosis
Explanation:
what action should the nurse implement to decrease the client's risk for hemorrhage after a cesarean section?
PPH is more common in people with placental issues like placenta accreta, placenta previa, placental abruption, and retained placenta. PPH risk is further increased by an overextended uterus.
What nursing technique is frequently applied to preserve uterine tone?Intravenous oxytocin takes effect right away and increases uterine contractions to aid in uterine muscle tone maintenance.
What causes hemorrhage during C section?Excessive haemorrhage associated with caesarean section, commonly defined as blood loss in excess of 1000 ml, is frequently underestimated, but is documented as occurring in more than 5-10% of caesarean sections.
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a client is admitted on the day of surgery for an arthroscopy of the left knee. which nursing activities should be completed prior to administering anesthesia to the client to avoid wrong-site surgery? select all that apply.
The root cause of wrong-site surgery involves a breakdown in communication between the client and family and the health care team.
In the preoperative evaluation, information such as the client's identity, surgery location, and procedure should be verbally appraised and validated with medical records and radiographic diagnostic findings. This information should be gathered into a checklist that the intraoperative team may go through again and again, reducing undue distraction and delay in the operating room.
The operating room nurse is responsible for calling a "time out" so that each surgical team member can double-check the correct site of surgery, verify the site using the operative consent form, and ensure that the surgeon has marked the operative site on the client.
Showing the client an anatomic model will help them understand where the surgery will take place, but it will not prevent anyone from identifying the wrong site on the client.
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respond to the question using the figure below, which depicts the effects of microbiome products on weight gain.if an individual produced a form of interferon-gamma (ifn-gamma) that was not affected by butyrate, what would be the most probable result? choose one:a. inflammation would be reduced in the individual.b. hunger would be promoted in the individual.c. hunger would be reduced in the individual.d. inflammation would be promoted in the individ
If an individual produced a form of interferon-gamma that was not affected by butyrate, the most probable result is Inflammation would be promoted.
What is interferon gamma?
The only type II interferon is the dimerized soluble cytokine known as interferon gamma. Wheelock described the existence of this interferon, which was initially known as immune interferon, as a product of human leukocytes stimulated with phytohemagglutinin. Others have described it as a product of lymphocytes stimulated by antigens. It was also demonstrated that human lymphocytes make it. or mouse peritoneal cells that had been tuberculin-sensitized when they were subjected to the Mantoux test, the ensuing supernatants were found to suppress the proliferation of the vesicular stomatitis virus.
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a client develops an immunodeficiency disorder after receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of lung cancer. the client asks the nurse if he was born with this deficiency. what is the nurse's best response?
The ideal answer from the nurse is, "You have established a secondary immunodeficiency condition as a result of your treatment."
When the immune system becomes ineffective, autoimmune illness develops. 90% fewer T-cells are present. Disorders of the immune system can be either inherited or acquired. You are born with a congenital, or main, disease. A secondary or acquired ailment is one that develops later in life. The following tests taken by a nurse might be used to identify an autoimmune disorder: treatment for antinuclear antibodies (ANA). testing for autoantibodies. White blood cell difference in CBC with complete blood count (CBC with WBC differential). However, a person's Cd4 cell count might drop below 500 and still experience some OIs. The CD4 cell count of HIV-positive individuals increases their risk for OIs whenever it drops below 200. However,the nurse inform a person's Cd4 cell count might drop below 500 and still experience some OIs.
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quizlet cpco which of the following is not a purpose of the requisition lab slip? a. ensure the physician or other authorized individual has made an independent medical necessity decision with regard to each test the organization will bill b. encourage physicians or other authorized individuals to submit the diagnosis information for all tests ordered c. capture the correct program information d. contain a statement that indicates medicare generally covers all routine screening tests
All but the following should be done on requisition lab slips: Include a statement indicating that Medicare typically pays for all routine screening tests.
Design of Requisitions - A lab's requests should:Obtain accurate programme informationCheck that each test for which the organisation will charge has an independent medical necessity determination issued by a doctor or other authorised person.Encourage medical professionals or other appropriate parties to provide the diagnosis details for all test orders.Clearly mention that routine screening tests are typically not covered by Medicare.The OIG Compliance Program Guidance identifies the following as key risk areas for third-party medical billing companies: Signature of the Provider
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a client at a health care facility has died after a prolonged illness. a nurse is assigned to perform postmortem care for the client. which intervention should the nurse perform when providing postmortem care?
The nurse should perform interventions that are respectful and compassionate to the deceased.
What do you mean by Postmortem?
Postmortem is a medical examination of a dead body to determine the cause of death. It is usually performed by a pathologist, who examines the body and its organs to identify any underlying diseases or injuries that may have led to the death of the individual.
The interventions included in the postmortem care assigned to the nurse are: covering the body with a sheet or blanket, closing the eyes and mouth of the deceased, straightening the limbs, and positioning the body in a dignified manner. The nurse should also remove any tubes or equipment that were used while the client was receiving care. The nurse should document the care provided in the client's medical record. The nurse should also ensure that the family is given the opportunity to view the body and to spend time with it, if desired. Lastly, the nurse should document the time of death and any other pertinent information related to the death.
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