Adolescents with anorexia nervosa refuse to keep their weight at or above the minimally healthy weight for their height and age.
What is the most likely reason for an adolescent's anorexia nervosa diagnosis?Anorexia nervosa can develop and persist due to a variety of variables, including family effects, genetics, neurochemicals, and developmental factors.
Is anorexia nervosa a mental illness?In order to control their food intake in relation to their energy needs, people with anorexia nervosa may reduce their food intake, increase their physical activity, or purge their meals through laxatives and vomiting.
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a 27-year-old woman diagnosed with borderline personality disorder displays a labile affect, impulsivity, frequent angry outbursts, and difficulty tolerating her angry feelings without self-injury. a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is:
a 27-year-old woman diagnosed with borderline personality disorder displays a labile affect, impulsivity, frequent angry outbursts, and difficulty tolerating her angry feelings without self-injury. a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is: bulimia and a borderline personality disorder
Safety and close observation are the nurse's top priorities when arranging care for a 27-year-old lady who was admitted to your unit with bulimia and a borderline personality disorder.Bulimia is a type of eating disorder that is linked to mental health issues and is characterized by an abnormal urge to reduce weight and may require treatment in a psychiatric facility.As a result of this information, it is clear that bulimia is an eating disorder that requires care in appropriate professional settings, with borderline personality disorder displays a labile affect, impulsivity, frequent angry outbursts, and difficulty tolerating her angry feelings without self-injury.
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a patient has a high level of mast cell activity, dilation of blood vessels, and acute drop in blood pressure. which condition is most consistent with these symptoms?
Anaphylaxis's pathogenesis The acute and widespread release of mediators from tissue mast cells activity is what causes the majority of anaphylactic reactions.
Which of these cells is a part of the auxiliary immune response?During the initial immune response, B and T cells reproduce to create effector cells and durable memory cells. Memory B and T cells are antigen-specific and can develop a secondary immune response—a quicker and more potent immune response—when they come into contact with the antigen again.
What traits define a secondary immune response?Compared to a main immune response, a secondary immunological response is slower. Compared to a primary immune response, a secondary immunological response is more persistent.
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taking a nutrition class during college has been shown to increase intake of fruits and vegetables. this is an example of which food-intake influence?
Consuming a variety of fruits and vegetables might help reduce the risk of illnesses including some cancers, heart disease, and high blood pressure. Fruits and vegetables can also aid with bone and tooth formation, as well as feeling invigorated.
What nutrients do fruits and vegetables provide? What is the significance of this food group?Fruits and vegetables are high in vitamins, minerals, and phytochemicals. They are also high in fibre. There are numerous fruit and vegetable kinds available, as well as numerous ways to prepare, cook, and serve them. A fruit and vegetable-rich diet can help prevent you against cancer, diabetes, and heart disease.
Time restrictions, unhealthy snacking, convenience high-calorie food, stress, and high pricing of healthy food were all common impediments to good eating.
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you have an odd friend: she is convinced that she can lose weight on a diet consisting entirely of walrus blubber (she read it on wikipedia so it must be true, right?!). aside from the fact that her breath smells like a dead walrus, you are concerned because you have some knowledge of biochemistry and you have seen some glaring problems with her new diet. you suggest to her that if she intends to stay on this diet, she should supplement it with a daily regimen of odd-chain fatty acids which she can purchase at the local health food store. why is this a good suggestion, and what will happen to her if she fails to heed your advice?
Someone is convinced that she can lose weight on a diet of walrus blubber only. Her friend advised that she should supplement it with some fatty acids.
This is a good suggestion because: fatty acids are important as energy storage for our body. If she fails to heed the advice, then: her body will likely have too much collagen and cholesterol, but lack sugar, fatty acid, and other essential vitamin and mineral.What does the importance of fatty acids to our body?A fatty acid is a component of complex lipids, which is either saturated or unsaturated. We need a good amount of fatty acid in our body as energy storage for our body. When someone’s body is short in sugar, fatty acids can be used to fuel the cells. That is why the girl needs to consume another source of fatty acids besides walrus blubber.
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a patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol [proventil], 2 puffs 3 times a day. the nurse should teach the patient to do what?
The nurse should instruct the client on how to take Albuterol should be given first, followed by Fluticasone five minutes later.
Which do you take first, Ventolin or Flovent?The patient is given the asthma medication inhaled Fluticasone (Flovent HFA) and inhaled Albuterol (Ventolin HFA) by the doctor. How will you, the nurse, deliver these medications? A. Administer Fluticasone first, followed by Albuterol five minutes later.
What type of corticosteroid would a nurse directly inhale into a patient?Fluticasone oral inhalation is used to treat asthma symptoms in both adults and children, including breathing difficulties, chest discomfort, coughing, and wheezing. It belongs to the corticosteroid drug family.
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the nurse is eliciting a health history from a client with ulcerative colitis which factor would the nurse considered to be the most likely associated with the clients. colitis
The factors that nurses perceive to be most likely to be related to their patients when treating ulcerative colitis include diarrhea, weight loss, abdominal cramps, anemia, and blood or pus in bowel movements.
Which details are crucial for the nurse to include in the lesson plan for a patient who has been diagnosed with Crohn's disease and admitted to the hospital?Knowing the typical Crohn's Disease signs and symptoms, the many forms of Crohn's Disease, and the medications used to treat the condition is crucial for a nurse caring for a patient with the condition.
When tending to a patient who has undergone abdominal surgery, what should the nurse concentrate on?recognizing bleeding symptoms. A thoracotomy patient who is postoperative is under the nurse's care.
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6. which primary interventions are most appropriate for the client who survived an earthquake and is presenting with sharp abdominal pain; decreased pulse pressure; decreased level of consciousness; cool, clammy skin; and decreased urine output? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Ensuring patent airway
Utilizing a non-rebreather mask
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter.
What is a urinary catheter?
In order to allow urine to drain from the bladder and be collected, a latex, polyurethane, or silicone tube known as a urinary catheter is placed into the bladder through the urethra. Additionally, it can be used to inject liquids for the diagnosis or therapy of bladder problems. Through the use of a flexible tube known as a catheter, urinary catheterization is a procedure used to empty the bladder and collect urine. In hospitals or the community, doctors or nurses typically insert urinary catheters. The catheter itself must be changed out at least every three months. Although a doctor or nurse typically performs this task, you or your caretaker may occasionally be able to learn how to do it.
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A nurse is reviewing the plan of care with a client who has a new prescription for lovastatin. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse a need for further assessment?
a. "I was just diagnosed with hepatitis B."
b. "I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice."
c. "I take metformin for my diabetes."
d. "I am trying to decrease my dietary fat intake."
d. "I am trying to decrease my dietary fat intake."
The client should indicate the nurse by saying: "I am trying to decrease my dietary fat intake."
What is cholesterol ?
A class of drugs known as HMG CoA reductase inhibitors includes lovastatin (statins). It functions by reducing the amount of cholesterol that may accumulate on the artery walls and obstruct blood flow to the heart, brain, and other organs of the body. This is done by delaying the body's creation of cholesterol.
a waxy, fat-like material that is produced in the liver and is present in all of the body's cells, including the blood. In addition to being necessary for the formation of hormones, tissues, cell walls, vitamin D, and bile acid, cholesterol is crucial for optimum health.
You can form fatty deposits in your blood vessels if you have high cholesterol. Over time, these deposits thicken and restrict the amount of blood that can pass through your arteries. These deposits can occasionally suddenly separate and form a clot that results in a heart attack or stroke.
Chronic stress raises stress hormone levels over time, which can result in over time raised blood pressure, blood sugar, cholesterol, and/or triglycerides.
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How many human sperm cells are in the typical race to reach and fertilize a human ovum?.
a nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client with gastrointestinal distress. which assessment(s) should the nurse perform? select all that apply.
Inspection, auscultation, and mild abdominal palpation will all be part of the assessment process for the nurse in order to find any apparent abnormalities as well as bowel sounds and softness/tenderness.
What is gastrointestinal distress?A series of digestive conditions known as gastric distress are characterized by prolonged constipation, bloating, reflux, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, stomach pain, and cramping. These gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms might be brought on by autoimmune illnesses, food allergies, intolerances, or infections.
reflux of acid. Acid reflux, commonly known as gastroesophageal reflux disease, is more likely to cause stomach discomfort.
Bowel inflammation disorders
stomach ulcers
Intolerance to lactose.
Gallstones.
Such issues may be brought on by foodborne bacteria, infections, stress, particular drugs, or long-term illnesses including colitis, Crohn's disease, and IBS. Anyone who experiences frequent stomach issues, however, must deal with difficulties every day and potential humiliation.
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the nurse provides instructions to a client who will be taking cyclosporine oral solution. which action would the nurse tell the client to do?
Each patient is different. We provide medication referencing content solutions that acknowledge these variations and give you the tools you need to create the best evidence-based decisions.
What is the purpose of cyclosporine oral solution?When combined with other medications, cyclosporine helps to prevent the body from rejecting a transplanted organ (eg, kidney, liver, or heart). It is a member of the class of drugs known as immunosuppressive agents.
What ailments is cyclosporine used to treat?Immunosuppressive medication called cyclosporine is used to treat organ rejection after transplant. Additionally, it is used to treat organ rejection after allogeneic kidney, liver, and heart transplants and rheumatoid arthritis when methotrexate has not sufficiently alleviated symptoms.
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the nurse enters the room of a client and, without the use of the stethoscope, can hear the client wheezing. how should the nurse document this finding in the medical record?
Using a stethoscope, the nurse listens to the child's breath sounds as they enter and exit each lung lobe, anterior and posterior.
What are the justifications for a nurse to do a client nursing assessment?The nurse evaluates the client to ascertain whether interventions are successful as part of the nursing process.
1. To gather baseline data; 2. To create a nursing care plan
3. To determine whether actions are effective
continual evaluation
appraisal particular to a system.
physical examination with focus.
Which pain grading systems are employed to assess a client's level of suffering?Verbal rating scales, numerical rating scales, and visual analogue scales are the three methods that are most frequently used to measure the severity of pain. Common terms are used in verbal descriptor scales (VRSs).
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a 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital for altered mental status. he had been in his usual state of good health until this morning when a nurse at the long-term care facility where he lives noticed that he was confused. shortly after being admitted to the hospital, he became combative and had to be restrained. his bed linens have to be changed frequently because of urinary incontinence. which nursing diagnosis best describes this client's condition?
The loss of total body sodium leads to volume depletion, also known as extracellular fluid (ECF) volume contraction. The use of diuretics, excessive perspiration, diarrhoea, burns, and renal failure are among the causes.
What transpires when the extracellular fluid level rises?Water will move from the cell into the extracellular space to balance the osmotic gradient if the ECF osmolarity rises due to a disruption; nonetheless, the total body osmolarity will stay higher than usual, and the cell will contract.
The creatinine urine test quantifies the creatinine content of the urine. A blood test can also be used to measure creatinine.
Inadequate ECF volume primarily impairs cardiovascular function by reducing plasma volume and, in certain circumstances, by resulting in circulatory shock.
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the nurse is taking care of a client who had a laryngectomy yesterday. to assure client safety, the nurse should give hand-off of care reports at which times? select all that apply.
When handing out care reports, the nurse should ensure client safety. Change of nurses and shift when nurse leaves for lunch.
How should the airway be managed in a patient who has had a laryngectomy?A pediatric facemask can be worn over the laryngeal stoma to perform preoxygenation and ventilation, respectively. Other options include covering the stoma with the end of a catheter mount or an inflated laryngeal mask airway.
Where should a laryngectomy patient be ventilated?Naturally, the stoma is the only way to get oxygen to the lungs if the patient had a laryngectomy. Try face-mask oxygenation or ventilation through the upper airways if these approaches don't work.
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the ems brought a 31-year-old motor vehicle accident patient to the emergency department. after a comprehensive history, a comprehensive exam and medical decision making of high complexity; the provider determines the patient has multiple internal injuries and needs immediate surgery. what level ed code is reported?
A 31-year-old patient of a vehicle accident has multiple internal injuries and needs immediate surgery. The level ED code that is reported: is 99285.
What is the level ED code?ED code stands for Emergency Department codes that are classified into 5 levels: 99281, 99282, 99283, 99284, and 99285. These codes determine the complexity and complication a patient has. If a patient is having code 99281, it means they are in a level 1 emergency. Hence, the higher the number, the worse complexity a patient has. The patient in question has multiple internal injuries and needs immediate surgery, so they are classified as code 5 (99285).
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a client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (aldactone). which information is most important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic and should be avoided if your diet contains a lot of potassium because it can cause hyperkalemia.
Which practice needs to be carried out by the nurse before administration?Before administering the drug, the nurse must make sure the patient's identify matches the MAR and the medication label to make sure the right patient is receiving it.
What medications should the client be advised against taking while receiving an opioid analgesic by the nurse?Avoid writing concurrent prescriptions for benzodiazepines, opioids, or other sedative-hypnotic drugs. When giving opioid prescriptions to people who regularly take benzodiazepines or other sedative-hypnotic drugs, proceed with utmost caution.
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a patient with a spinal cord injury is complaining of pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and is very anxious. these manifestations would most likely correlate with which complication?
These symptoms would very certainly be related to pulmonary embolism (PE) (p. 1205).
What is spinal cord injury?Damage to the spinal cord or the nerves at the cauda equina, the end of the spinal canal, can result in a spinal cord injury, which frequently results in permanent alterations to strength, sensation, and other bodily functions below the location of the lesion. It could seem as though every part of your life has been impacted if your spinal cord was suddenly harmed. Your injury may have psychological, emotional, and social repercussions. Many scientists are confident that future research developments will make it possible to repair spinal cord injuries. There are active research projects all throughout the world. Many people with spinal cord injuries may live active, independent lives in the interim because to medical interventions and therapy.
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quizelt if a person presents to the emergency department and collapses outside the er doors, is emtala evoked? a. yes, but only if they are in active labor. b. yes, the 250-yard zone applies in this case. c. no, the patient must be inside the emergency room for emtala to apply. d. no, the emergency department is not considered "on the hospital campus."
The correct option (a) Yes, the 250-yard zone applies in this case
Response Feedback
The 250-yard zone will continue to apply when defining the "hospital campus." Now, however, that sphere does not include non-medical businesses (shops and restaurants located close to the hospital), nor does it include physicians' offices or other medical entities that have a separate Medicare identity.
EMTALA applies to anybody who appears anywhere on the hospital grounds and demands emergency services, or who seems to a reasonably sensible person to be in need of medical treatment. EMTALA is not invoked in other presentations outside of the emergency department.
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which developmental milestone related to feeding would the nurse anticipate for a 36-month-old client? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The nurse expected the 36-month-old child to use a fork for feeding by gripping it in his fist and spilling a few bites when using a spoon.
What developmental milestones should a four-year-old child meet, according to the nurse?Your child's gross motor skills—using their arms and legs to move around and play—and fine motor skills—working on crafts and puzzles—are still growing between the ages of 4 and 5. Playtime helps kids develop their imaginations and is crucial to their development.
What stage of development should my 3-year-old be at?Your child is incredibly mobile, energetic, and learning in very physical ways at this age. At this age, kids are capable of running, kicking, walking, and throwing.
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to prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instruction?
Stay away from alcohol and caffeine. The nurse should encourage the client to stay away from certain foods and beverages to prevent stomach acid from refluxing into the esophagus.
How bad is gastroesophageal disease?
If GERD is left untreated, it can develop into a problem as the stomach acid damages the esophageal lining over time, causing inflammation and discomfort. Adults with untreated, persistent GERD run the danger of permanent esophageal damage.
Why does gastroesophageal develop?
Your LES opens to let food enter your stomach during regular digestion. Then it closes to prevent food and stomach juices that are acidic from returning to your esophagus. When the LES is weak or relaxes when it shouldn't, gastroesophageal reflux results. This enables the contents of the stomach to ascend into the esophagus.
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when caring for a client in the medical clinic who has tried to lose weight multiple times, the client asks the nurse if she should try a high-protein, very low-calorie restricted diet. the nurse encourages her to seek guidance from the health care provider as these diets may cause which complication?
A high-protein, very low-calorie restricted diet may cause dehydration, and gallstones.
Dehydration will have causes that are not thanks to underlying malady. Examples embrace heat, excessive activity, meager fluid consumption, excessive sweating or medication facet effects. As you lose fluid, your blood becomes a lot of focused, creating your circulatory system work tougher to expeditiously pump blood.
Gallstones are hardened deposits of juice which will kind in your bladder. Your bladder may be a tiny, pear-shaped organ on the correct facet of your abdomen, simply below your liver. The bladder holds a juice known as gall that is discharged into your small intestine.
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a client has just been given a diagnosis of cirrhosis of the liver. which statements by the nurse should be avoided because they could impede communication? select all that apply.
Because the nurse could obstruct communication, they should be avoided. There won't be any problems. Be positive. A new day will come tomorrow. The expert is your physician. Be at ease. In a few more days, everything will be fine.
Which character trait aids a nurse in effectively meeting a client's requirements while staying compassionately detached?Intuitive awareness of the client's experiences is referred to as empathy. It enables the nurse to carry out her duties while maintaining emotional neutrality.
What does the nurse want to achieve when working with a patient?The therapeutic nurse-client relationship safeguards the patient's autonomy, privacy, and dignity while allowing for the growth of trust and respect, regardless of the length or nature of the interaction.
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which of the following is not a purpose of the requisition lab slip? a. ensure the physician or other authorized individual has made an independent medical necessity decision with regard to each test the organization will bill b. encourage physicians or other authorized individuals to submit the diagnosis information for all tests ordered c. capture the correct program information d. contain a statement that indicates medicare generally covers all routine screening test
Therefore, the appropriate response is (d) contain a statement indicating that Medicare typically pays all routine screening tests; however, this statement was not intended to be included in the request lab slip.
What is meant by screening test?When a person does not exhibit any symptoms of a condition, a screening test is performed to look for probable health issues or diseases. The objective is early identification, lifestyle modifications, or surveillance to lower the risk of disease or to identify it early enough to receive the best possible care. Carrier screening tests are in two primary categories: molecular (analyzing the DNA-genetic code) and biochemical (measuring enzyme activity). Pap smear, mammography, clinical breast examination, measurement of blood pressure and cholesterol, eye and vision tests, and urinalysis.
What is the purpose of screening?Doctors utilize screenings, which are medical exams, to look for illnesses and other issues before any symptoms or signs appear. Screenings assist in identifying issues early on, possibly when they are simpler to treat. One of the most crucial things you can do for your health is to get the necessary screenings.
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the nurse is preparing to discharge a client who is partially paralyzed after a stroke. which | behaviors would the nurse alert the family of as symptoms of caregiver role strain? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
erratic sleeping habits, decreased weight and appetite, and anxiety when giving the client medication
Why do drugs get prescribed?Chemicals or other substances are called "medicines" when they are used to treat, halt, or prevent disease, lessen symptoms, or aid in the diagnosis of illnesses. A number of diseases can now be cured and lives can be saved thanks to medical advancements. A wide range of sources produce medicines nowadays.
What kinds of drugs are exceptional ones?A specialty drug is a prescription drug that is either an expensive oral medication, a self-administered (non-diabetic) injectable medication, a medication that needs special handling, administration, or monitoring, or a medication that is an expensive injectable or self-administered (diabetic) injectable medication.
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A common radiologic diagnostic manifestation of fibrotic restrictive disease is the appearance of?.
Common radiologic diagnostic manifestation of fibrotic restrictive disease is the appearance of : honeycomb lung.
What happens in fibrotic restrictive disease?Restrictive lung diseases keeps the lungs from expanding fully and therefore limiting how much air a person can breathe in. This term covers several chronic conditions like pulmonary fibrosis and various neuromuscular diseases.
Some of the examples of restrictive lung diseases are asbestosis, sarcoidosis and pulmonary fibrosis. Long-standing pulmonary fibrosis increases your risk of developing lung cancer. When restrictive lung disease is caused by a lung condition, it is difficult to be treated and eventually becomes fatal. Life expectancy depends on various factors and the most significant is how severe the disease is.
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alexandra measured her waist before going shopping for clothes. it measured 36 inches. what is her level of obesity-related health risk based on her waist circumference?
Increased waist circumference is greater than 40 inches.
What is the waist size that increases a woman's risk of disease?Waist Circumference This risk increases for women with waist sizes greater than 35 inches and for males with waist sizes greater than 40 inches. Place a tape measure around your center, slightly above your hipbones, while standing to get an accurate waist measurement.
What is the measurement of my waist in inches?Locate the bottom of your ribs and the top of your hip bone. Breathe normally out. Wrap the measuring tape around your waist, putting it halfway between these two points. Look over your measurements.
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the nurse working with patients with cognitive disorders uses a specialized therapeutic and trust-building technique called reminiscence therapy. this intervention is characterized by which one?
Answer:
Encouraging residents to talk about pleasurable past events.
Explanation:
the nurse is conducting discharge teaching to the caregiver of a 6-month-old child diagnosed with acute otitis media and prescribed amoxicillin and alternating acetaminophen and ibuprofen for fever. which statement by the caregiver establishes a need for additional teaching by the nurse?
Baby aspirin may be used if the fever persists despite taking acetaminophen and ibuprofen alternately. This claim made by the caregiver indicates that the nurse needs to provide further instruction.
What is amoxicillin commonly used for?It is employed to treat bacterial illnesses such abscesses in the teeth and chest infections (including pneumonia). Additionally, it can be used in combination with other antibiotics and medicines to treat stomach ulcers. It is widely used for the treatment of ear infections and chest infections in children. Several bacterial diseases are treated with amoxicillin. Because it is effective against a wide variety of bacterial strains, doctors consider it to be a strong antibiotic.
What is the most common side effect of amoxicillin and is amoxicillin used to treat STDS?Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are the most typical amoxicillin adverse effects. These ought to be disposed of when you've done taking the medication. Contact your healthcare provider right away if you experience any serious side effects, such as extreme diarrhea or signs of an allergic reaction.
For the treatment of some sexually transmitted illnesses, amoxicillin is an antibiotic that is consumed orally (STIs). such as amoxicillin, penicillinV-K, or any antibiotic that is a cephalosporin, such as cefixime (Suprax®), cephalexin (Keflex®), cefaclor (Ceclor®), or another medication in this group. get in touch with your doctor.
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a client has just received stem cell transplantation as treatment for leukemia. what are the post procedural nursing interventions for clients receiving any form of stem cell transplantation?
Healthy stem cells are given to a patient during a technique known as stem cell transplantation (SCT), often known as a bone marrow transplant.
What happens after a leukemia stem cell transplant?Patients undergoing stem cell transplants run the risk of complications. These consist of: Infection: The body's immune system is compromised during leukemia treatment and after a stem cell transplant. A person is more susceptible as a result to severe bacterial, fungal, and viral infections.
What steps take place in the stem cell transplant process?Harvesting is the procedure of gathering stem cells from you or a donor to be used in the transplant. Treatment that gets your body ready for the transplant is called conditioning. the stem cells being transplanted.
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a client presents to the clinic reporting symptoms that suggest diabetes. what criteria would support checking blood levels for the diagnosis of diabetes?
A client presents the criteria would support checking blood levels for the Fasting blood sugar test would support checking blood levels for the diagnosis of diabetes.
Doctor check your blood sugar levels after a night of fasting (not eating). Prediabetes is defined as having a fasting blood sugar level between 100 and 125 mg/dL, diabetes as above 126 mg/dL, and normal blood sugar as less than 99 mg/dL.
Before a fasting blood glucose test, you might need to go without food for eight to ten hours. Before a blood test for iron, you might need to fast for 12 hours.
You should refrain from eating or drinking anything other than water for eight to twelve hours before to the fasting glucose test.
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