The most severe side effects include bradycardia, hypotension, bronchoconstriction, and indications of progressive heart failure. Selective beta blockers like metoprolol also have other side effects.
When using ACE inhibitors, what should you keep an eye on?Blood tests will be necessary to check your potassium levels and kidney function as soon as you start taking an ACE inhibitor. Keep a written record of your blood pressure and heart rate (pulse) if you use an ACE inhibitor. Take your pulse every day to monitor your heart rate.
Stay with the patient if the ADR is significant, and have a coworker contact the prescriber. Keep track of the patient's clinical state, your interventions, and their reactions. Inform your supervisor, the pharmacist, and the risk management if the ADR when the patient is stable.
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which assessment should the nurse complete immediately after hearing the client choked while eating? the caregiver's knowledge about feeding a person who is dysphagic. auscultate the client's lungs for adventitious breath sounds. assess the client's loc with the mini-mental status exam. determine the client's ability to swallow liquids.
A nurse should conduct the following evaluation on a patient who choked while eating: Check the client's lungs for adventitious breath sounds using auscultation.
What does the phrase "no accidental breath sounds" mean?The medical professional using a stethoscope may hear regular breathing sounds, reduced or missing breathing sounds, and aberrant breathing sounds. Reduced or absent sounds could indicate: Air or fluid within or surrounding the lungs (such as pneumonia, heart failure, and pleural effusion) increased chest wall thickness.
Why was it crucial to listen for unauthorized breath sounds?Asthma, chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD), and influenza are only a few of the disorders that can benefit from automatic identification or classification of acoustic anomalies.
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a patient will be ready to be discharged from the hospital soon, and the patient’s family members are concerned about whether the patient is able to walk safely outside alone. which tool are test would be best to assess this?
Patient is ready to be discharged from the hospital and the patient’s family are concerned whether the patient is able to walk safely outside alone. Tool that would be best to assess this is : Get Up and Go Test.
What is the Get Up and Go test ?The "get-up and go test" requires patients to stand up from the chair, walk a short distance, turn around, return, and then sit down again.
Begin this test by having the patient sit back in a standard arm chair and identify a line 3 meters, or 10 feet away on the floor. Begin timing on the word “Go”. Stop the timing after patient sits back down and lastly record time.
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the nurse is performing an initial admission assessment from a client. what subjective data gathered from the client will the nurse document? select all that apply.
Personal data examples includes vital signs, the findings of a medical examination, or laboratory results.
What do you mean by assessment?Intended to fulfill as the scientific basis for making judgments about children' learning and growth. It involves identifying, choosing, designing, compiling, analyzing, and interpreting the information in order to enhance the students' development and learning.
What is assessment and example?A testing and analysis is what is meant by an assessment. A Scholastic Aptitude Test is an illustration of a test (SAT). YourDictionary. comparable definitions A statement of a property's value, frequently made for tax purposes, is referred to as an assessment. The process of collecting and analyzing specific data for an evaluation is called assessment.
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the mother of a preterm newborn is comparing the appearance of her preterm baby to the nearby full-term babies. she asks why her baby's skin appears so different. what is the best response for the nurse to provide?
The best response for the nurse is : The skin of a preterm newborn is more transparent because there is less subcutaneous fat present.
How does a newborn's skin look like ?A healthy newborn exhibits deep red or purple skin upon birth, as well as bluish hands and feet.
Before the newborn draws its first breath, their skin turns darker (when they make that first vigorous cry). Vernix, a thick, waxy material coating the skin
Within the first few weeks of life, a newborn's appearance, including their skin, can alter significantly.
The color of your baby's hair may change, and they may develop a lighter or darker complexion. The newborn's skin may start flaking or peeling before you leave the hospital or a few days after you get home.
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an older woman with osteoporosis presents with pain and deformity to her left hip after she shifted her weight onto her other foot. she has most likely experienced a(n)
After shifting her weight to the other foot, one older woman having osteoporosis appears with pain or deformity in her left hip. She's probably suffered a pathologic fracture.
What causes pathologic fractures most frequently?Tumors are commonly the cause of pathologic fractures. It's possible for tumors to develop in the vertebrae or for cancer to have spread there from another part of the body. The term "metastasis" describes how cancer spreads.
Which conditions lead to pathological fractures?Only a select few illnesses, such as osteoarthritis, osteomalacia, Paget's disease, osteitis, osteogenesis imperfecta, innocuous bone tumors and tumors, secondary malignant bone tumors, and primary malignant bone tumors, are frequently to blame for pathological fractures.
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a nurse is planning a teaching session for a group of clients diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. what points should the nurse include to help the clients control symptom flare-ups?
Irritable bowel syndrome has been diagnosed in the client, so the nurse advises avoiding meals that overstimulate the gut, such as large meals or high-fat foods, to help control flare-ups.
What is irritable bowel syndrome?The condition known as irritable bowel syndrome affects the gastrointestinal tract, which is typically comprised of the stomach and intestines (IBS). Possible symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and constipation. There could be cramping as well.
Only a small portion of people with IBS have severe symptoms. Some people can manage their symptoms by changing their diet, lifestyle, and stress levels. More severe symptoms may be managed with medication and counselling.
IBS has no effect on gut tissue and doesn't increase your chance of colorectal cancer.
What are the causes of irritable bowel syndrome?IBS's precise cause is unknown. There seem to be a number of elements involved, including:
1. Muscle spasms in the intestines The interior of your intestines is lined with layers of muscle that contract as they move food through your digestive system. Stronger and longer than usual contractions might cause gas, bloating, and diarrhoea. Weak contractions could prevent food from passing and lead to dry, hard stools.
2. The nervous system. Problems with the nerves in your digestive system may be the cause of your discomfort if your abdomen expands due to gas or faeces. If brain and gut signals are not correctly synchronised, your body may overreact to typical changes in the digestive process. Constipation, diarrhoea, or pain could come next.
3. A terrible illness. IBS may manifest after a severe case of diarrhoea brought on by a virus or bacteria. Gastroenteritis is the term for it. An excessive amount of bacteria in the intestines may be related to IBS (bacterial overgrowth).
4. Early life stress. Stressful experiences, especially when they were young, are associated with more severe IBS symptoms.
5. The fifth alteration in gut microbes. Examples include changes to the viruses, fungi, and bacteria that are typically present in the intestines and crucial for preserving health. IBS sufferers may have different microorganisms than those without the condition, according to research.
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the nurse teaches a patient diagnosed with chronic stable angina about the pharmacologic action of nitroglycerin. the nurse would include what accurate statement?
Answer:
"Nitroglycerin opens the arteries to allow more oxygen to be delivered to the heart muscle." Nitroglycerin causes "vasodilation" of the coronary arteries resulting in improved perfusion (blood flow) and delivery of oxygenated blood to the heart muscle.
Explanation:
Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that relaxes the smooth muscle of the arteries and veins, which increases blood flow to the heart muscle. Nitroglycerin does not increase blood pressure. Nitroglycerin does not reduce vasospasms of the heart's arteries. Nitroglycerin does not decrease the amount of oxygen required by the heart muscle.
a nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed prednisone. what education should the nurse provide to the client?
Do not cross your legs. Eat foods low in calcium, take prednisone with meals. Reduce the prednisone dosage before finishing. Tell the client to use the arm rests to help them stand up from a chair.
What precautions should the nurse take when administering chemotherapy?The sort of pharmacy used by pharmacists and nurses to create chemotherapy medications must adhere to specific rules. Additionally, the nurses and other medical professionals who administer your chemotherapy and assist with your aftercare wear protective gear, such as two sets of special gloves, a gown, and occasionally goggles or a face shield.
What is vincristine toxicity?Vincristine's dose-limiting toxicity, which is mostly sensory and manifests as painful dysesthesias, ataxia, foot drop, and cranial nerve palsy (affecting extraocular and laryngeal muscles). [20] A dosage threshold of 2 to 6 mg/m2 is required for the onset of sensory symptoms in neurotoxicity.
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A client has a continuous IV infusion of dopamine and an IV of normal saline at 50ml/hour. The nurse noes that the client's urinary output has been 20ml/hour for the last two hours. Which intervention should the nurse initiate?
A. stop the infusion of dopamine
B. change the normal saline to a keep open rate
C. replace the urinary catheter
D. notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output.
The correct answer is notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output.
Explanation:Dopamine primarily stimulates the adrenergic system, increasing cardiac output and, thus, urine output. Oliguria is defined as a urine output of less than 20 ml/hour and should be reported to the healthcare provider (D) in order to modify the dopamine dosage. The dose may need to be changed, depending on how quickly it is currently being administered. If the dose is reduced, it should be tapered down gradually rather than being stopped all at once (A). It may be necessary to increase fluid intake rather than (B). There is no need to change the urine catheter because it is draining (C).
What is dopamine?One kind of neurotransmitter is dopamine. It is produced by your body, and your neurological system uses it to communicate between your nerve cells. It is referred to as a chemical messenger for this reason.
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a client with a complex cardiac history has been prescribed digoxin 0.0625 mg po. the drug is available as 125 mcg tablets. how many of the tablets will the nurse administer?
The nurse administer 0.5 tablets to the clients with a complex cardiac history has been prescribed digoxin 0.0625 mg po. The drug is available as 125 mcg tablets
What does the term "drug" mean?Any chemical (apart from nourishment) that is prescribed to treat, prevent, or relieve the symptoms of an illness or other abnormal state is referred to as a drug. Drugs may alter mood, consciousness, thinking, feelings, or behavior in addition to having an impact on the way the brain and other parts of the body function.
Is sweetener a drug?Although sugar is a legal chemical, there are far more commonalities between it and illegal narcotics than we might like to imagine.
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a client seeks medical attention to learn why an infection has been resistant to antibiotic therapy. which laboratory test will the nurse anticipate being used first to determine if the client has a primary immune deficiency disease (pidd)?
A blood test is the main laboratory test used to determine the primary immune deficiency disease (PIDD).
What are primary immune deficiency diseases?
Primary immune deficiency diseases (PIDDs) are uncommon, immune system-damaging hereditary illnesses. People with PIDDs may be vulnerable to persistent, crippling infections like the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), which raises the chance of developing cancer if they lack a functioning immune response.
How do nurses care for patients with PPID?
The identification of individuals with primary immunodeficiency illnesses is greatly helped by nurses. Nurses must deal with patients who still need primary care after a PIDD diagnosis because of the consequences of this diagnosis. Registered nurses (RNs) supervise and perform medical treatments, as well as provide emotional support to patients' families and inform the public about different health issues.The majority of registered nurses collaborate with doctors and other medical professionals in a variety of settings. Hence, the nurse should take a blood test to determine the primary immune deficiency disease.
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a client who experienced a large upper gastrointestinal (gi) bleed due to gastritis has had the bleeding controlled and is now stable. for the next several hours, the nurse caring for this client should assess for what signs and symptoms of recurrence?
Tachycardia, hypotension, and trouble breathing are indications of recurrence that the nurse treating for all of this client should examine.
What program is ideal for nursing?Undoubtedly, the B.sc. Nursing program is superior to general midwives if a person wishes to have a distinguished career in the field of healthcare (GNM). The value of a B.sc. Nursing degree exceeds that of a General Nursing (GNM) programme in terms of job growth, further education, and remuneration.
Can nurses perform surgery?They are already in charge of many aspects of preoperative planning, particularly postoperative care in surgery. Additionally, a lot of surgical nurses working opt to specialize in a certain field, including obstetrics, children's surgery, or heart surgery.
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the nurse is planning care for a patient with a t3 spinal cord injury. the nurse includes which intervention in the plan to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia?
As the nurse plans the patient's treatment for a t3 spinal cord injury, she must include an intervention to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia helping the patient establish a daily bowel habit to prevent constipation.
What causes autonomic hyperreflexia?Spinal cord damage is the most common trigger of autonomic dysreflexia (AD). People with AD have excessive nervous system responses to stimulus that doesn't harm healthy people.
Autonomic hyperreflexia: where is it?This occurs when your nervous system, which regulates automatic functions like breathing and digestion, overreacts to doing something below the injured spinal cord. It is also known as hyperreflexia. More than half of those who have an upper back spinal cord injury do so.
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how should a nurse prepare to administer a measles, mumps, rubella (mmr) vaccination to a 6 year old child? 1. 3 ml syringe with 23 gauge, 1" needle for im injection 2. use a 25 gauge, ¾" needle for subcutaneous (sub-q) injection. 3. prime intranasal spray for administration. 4. tuberculin (tb) syringe with 28 gauge, 3/8" needle for intradermal injection.
Subcutaneous (Sub-Q) injection requires a 25-gauge, 3/4-inch needle.
What exactly is the MMR vaccine?
The MMR vaccination, sometimes known as MMR, protects against measles, mumps, and rubella. Children typically receive the first dosage between the ages of 9 and 15 months, followed by the second dose between the ages of 15 and 6 years, with a minimum of four weeks in between each dose.
How is MMR provided?
MMR injections are subcutaneous. Subcutaneous injections are provided on the lipid layer under the skin. Use a 23–25 gauge needle to provide subcutaneous injections; the needle length for babies (1–12 months) is 5/8", and for children (12 months and older), it ranges from 5/8"–3/4". Two doses of a single injection of the MMR vaccination are administered into the upper arm or thigh muscle. To guarantee complete protection, the vaccination must be administered twice.
Hence, a 25-gauge, 3/4-inch needle is used sub-Q.
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you are dispatched to a 60-year-old man reporting chest pain and shortness of breath. the patient has angina and is taking nitroglycerin, furosemide, and atorvastatin. you hear crackles when listening to his breath sounds. the patient’s difficulty breathing and crackles are due to blood backing up in which part of the body?
Blood is backing up in the patient's lungs, which is why they are having trouble breathing and making crackling noises.
Patient: Does it have two meanings?Both the terms "patience" and "patients" have quite distinct meanings while sharing a similar sound. The capacity to wait or suffer adversity for a protracted period of time without being upset is referred to as "patience." The plural of the noun "patient," which refers to a person who receives medical attention, is "patients.
What is your patience like?But it goes much beyond that. The capacity to wait without being impatient, agitated, or furious is known as patience. It occurs when you maintain composure rather than snapping and whining. When you take a few deep breaths and look within after something doesn't turn out the way you had intended, you are being patient.
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several hours after administering insulin to a pediatric client, the nurse assesses the response to the insulin. which client response is indicative of a hypoglycemic reaction?
Client responses that are suggestive of a hypoglycemia response include confusion, tremors, and diaphoresis.
The "fight-or-flight" hormone, epinephrine (adrenaline), is released when blood glucose levels are low. The hypoglycemia symptoms, such as racing heart, perspiration, tingling, confusion, anxiety, tremors, and diaphoresis can be brought on by epinephrine.
The levels of hypoglycemia are as follows:
Hypoglycemia at level 1 (mild) occurs when blood sugar levels are 54 mg/dL or higher but less than 70 mg/dL.
Hypoglycemia at level 2 (moderate) occurs when blood sugar levels are below 54 mg/dL.
A person with Level 3 (severe) hypoglycemia is unable to function owing to mental or physical changes brought on by low blood sugar levels.
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an emergency room nurse is ordered to administer nitroglycerin to a client being treated for acute pulmonary hypertension. which means of drug administration would the nurse use to achieve rapid results in this emergency situation?
The nurse would use IV infusion to achieve rapid results in this emergency situation
Blood flows through the lungs less easily when blood vessels there are thickened, restricted, obstructed, or damaged. Pulmonary hypertension, a disorder caused by an increase in blood pressure in the lungs, results as a result.
In interstitial lung disease and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the most prevalent cause of pulmonary hypertension, hypoxia-induced vasoconstriction and capillary obliteration occur. Hypoxia and uncompensated hypercarbia can raise pulmonary blood pressure during COPD acute exacerbations.
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what are some strategies that caregivers may use to reduce the development of dental caries and other related dental problems during childhood?
Caregivers force their children to brush their teeth twice a day to avoid dental problems.
What is dental caries?Tooth decay (dental caries) is damage to teeth that occurs when the bacteria in the mouth produce acids that attack the tooth's surface and enamel. This causes small holes in the teeth called cavities. If left untreated, cavities can cause pain, infection, and even tooth loss. Symptoms include toothache and tooth sensitivity. An infected tooth can form an abscess or pocket of pus, causing pain, facial swelling, and fever.
What are the causes for tooth decay?When dental caries come into contact with sugars and starches in food and drink, they form acids. This acid attacks tooth enamel and can cause mineral loss. This can occur if the food or drink contains sugar or starch. As these "acid attack" cycles are repeated, the enamel continues to lose minerals. Over time, tooth enamel weakens and breaks down, leading to tooth decay.
Caregivers force their children to brush their teeth twice a day to avoid dental problems.
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a client who visits a health care facility for a routine assessment reports to the nurse being unable to control urinary elimination. this has resulted in the client soiling clothes and has led to a lot of embarrassment. which nursing intervention will be appropriate to use with this client?
Functional incontinence was an intervention used by the nurse.
What is functional incontinence?
The inability to use a toilet or get there in time to urinate is referred to a functional incontinence. The most common cause of functional incontinence is obstruction of the toilet route.
What causes functional incontinence?
If the kidneys stop working and urine ceases, the chemicals that are ready to be eliminated will not be removed and will instead return to the body. If left untreated, this obstruction can result in additional health issues and be fatal. Due to the client's inability to access the bathroom, functional incontinence develops. The nurse is informed by a patient who attends a medical facility for a normal evaluation that the patient is unable to regulate urine elimination. A nurse can diagnose functional incontinence in a variety of ways, including urine leaking during daily activities and an unexpected urge to urinate.
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the nurse is creating a plan of care for a newborn infant with spina bifida (myelomeningocele type). the nurse includes assessment measures in the plan to monitor for increased intracranial pressure. which assessment technique should be performed that will best detect the presence of an increase in intracranial pressure?
The assessment technique that will most reliably reveal the presence of just an increased in intracranial pressure is looking for bulging in the anterior fontanel.
Describe spina bifida.Such a defect has an impact on the neural tube (NTD). If the trophoblast does not completely shut, spina bifida can develop anywhere along the spine. It occurs when an unborn child's spinal cord does not properly develop or close while still inside the pregnancy. On occasion, the skin directly above the spinal malformation will show signs. Examples include tissue protruding from the spinal cord, an abnormal hair growth, or a birthmark. When treatment is necessary, the defect is repaired via surgery. Other treatments emphasize issue prevention.
What is the prognosis for spina bifida and what's its primary cause?Medical specialists do not know what causes spina bifida. A number of nutritional, cultural, and environmental risk factors, such as a lineage of neural tube defects and a deficiency in folate, are thought to contribute to its development (vitamin B-9).
Medical professionals estimate that 90% of those with SB will live into their third decade. However, this number has increased over period as healthcare technology has developed, extending the expectancy of those infants with spina bifida.
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a client has been transferred from the emergency room to the cardiac unit with a diagnosis of anterior wall mi with elevation of st segment (stemi). which initial action by the nurse takes priority?
Giving the patient a 325-mg aspirin to chew. The nurse's greatest concern in this case is getting the patient to swallow a 325-mg aspirin.
Is aspirin healthier than ibuprofen for you?For persistent problems such arthritis, cramps, and back pain, ibuprofen is preferable over aspirin. This is due to the fact that the danger of gastrointestinal disorders rises with the length of treatment and that aspirin use already carries a substantial risk of GI side effects.
What class of medication is aspirin?One of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications is ibuprofen, an acyl salicylate (acetylsalicylic acid) (NSAIDs). These medications demonstrate a wide variety of pharmaceutical effects, including painkiller, febrifuge, and antiplatelet characteristics, and they lessen the inflammation's signs and symptoms.
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Chest pain, an increased ST segment on the ECG, elevated levels of cardiac cell components (such as troponin and creatinine kinase), perspiration, weakness, and a sense of impending doom are common symptoms of STEMI in patients.
The ST segment elevation in MI: why?A complete thrombotic blockage of a coronary artery causes a section of the myocardium to suddenly lose its coronary blood supply, which leads to the development of ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) (DeWood et al., 1980). STEMI is mostly caused by plaque rupture, followed by platelet and fibrin deposition.
Which medical intervention is best for people who have an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction?Most STEMI patients are treated with an anticoagulant and a P2Y12 inhibitor. Anticoagulation and other antiplatelet medications are also frequently used.
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the registered nurse (rn) notifies the spouse of a client who was admitted to hospice with shallow respirations, of a change in the client's condition. over the past hour, the client's respiratory pattern has changed to a cheyne stokes pattern.after receiving this information, the client's spouse begins vacuuming around the bed. which stage of grief is the spouse displaying during the visit?
By denying that the client's passing is imminent, the spouse is displaying the first stage of denial in Kubler-Ross's grief .
In her 1969 book "On Death and Dying," Kübler-Ross—a Swiss American psychiatrist and pioneer of studies on the dying—proposed the "Five Stages of Grief," a patient-focused death-adjustment pattern. Denial, anger, bargaining, despair, and acceptance are those stages.
The Kubler-Ross theory's initial stages cover denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
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which condition is consistent with a clients report of posterior leg pain while walking that worsens upojn rest
a young adult client's acne has responded well to treatment with tetracycline. however, the client has now returned to the clinic 6 weeks later with signs and symptoms of oral candidiasis. the nurse should recognize that this client's current health problem is likely attributable to which occurrence?
Oral thrush or oral candidiasis can occur as a side effect of tetracycline antibiotics.
What is tetracycline?Tetracycline is an antibiotic used to treat a variety of conditions, including acne. In fact, tetracycline, along with its close relatives minocycline and doxycycline, are the most commonly prescribed oral antibiotics for acne. Tetracycline is used topically to treat acne. Other antibiotics are more commonly used in cream form to treat acne.
What is oral thrush?Oral thrush, also known as oral candidiasis, A condition in which Candida albicans accumulates in the mucous membranes of the mouth. Oral candidiasis usually causes creamy white lesions on the inside of the tongue or cheeks. Oral candidiasis can spread to the palate, gums, tonsils, or back of the throat.
Oral thrush or oral candidiasis can occur as a side effect of tetracycline antibiotics.
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you are the night shift nurse caring for a newly admitted patient who appears to be confused. the family asks to see the patient's medical record. which action would the nurse take?
Night shift nurse is taking care of a newly admitted patient who appears to be confused. If family asks to see the patient's medical record, then nurse would : discuss the issues that concern the family with them.
What is the reason for a nurse to protect privacy of patient?Family members do not have the right to receive private personal health information without the consent of the patient. Confidentiality protects information of patient once it has been disclosed in health care settings.
The American Nurses Association believes that protection of privacy and confidentiality is important in maintaining the trust between health care providers and patients.
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which education would the nurse provide parents about the side effects of the haemophilus influenzae (hib) vaccine?
Parents would receive information from the nurse concerning low-grade fever adverse effects of the Haemophilus influenzae Hib vaccine.
What illness does Haemophilus influenzae bring on?Pneumonia (inflammation of the membranes encasing the vertebral cord and brain), bacteremia (blood infection), and pneumonia are only a few of the illnesses caused by Hib (infection of the lungs). Any illness caused by the H. influenzae is referred to as "Haemophilus influenzae sickness." There are some of these illnesses that are mild, like ear infections, while there are others that are quite deadly, like bloodstream infections.
What is the severity of Haemophilus influenzae?Certain H. displays the result infections can cause long-term issues or even death, even when properly treated. For instance, bloodstream infections can cause limb loss. Hearing loss or brain damage may result from meningitis.
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many patients self-medicate with antacids. which patients should be counseled to not take calcium carbonate antacids without discussing it with their provider or a pharmacist first
People with kidney stones should not take calcium carbonate antacids without a doctor's approval.
What is an antacid and how it works?Antacids are medications used to treat symptoms caused by excess stomach acid, such as heartburn, stomach upset, and indigestion. An antacid that works by reducing the amount of stomach acid or neutralizing it. They do this because the chemical in antacids is a base (lye), which is the opposite of an acid. The reaction between an acid and a base is called neutralization. This neutralization makes the contents of the stomach less corrosive. This can help reduce the pain associated with ulcers and the burning sensation associated with acid reflux. It can be taken as Liquid or chewable tablets forms.
What symptoms are relieved by antacids?Burning sensation in the chest or abdomen, especially after meals or at night.A sour taste in the mouth.Feeling full or full.Mild pain in chest and abdomen.To know more about kidney stone, check out:
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an older client is admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea. the registered nurse (rn) is completing an assessment and notes the client has dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor. which assessment data should the rn gather to determine if the client has a fluid volume deficit?
Orthostatic hypotension
When an elderly client has experienced severe diarrhea,
orthostatic hypotension may be an indication of a fluid volume deficiency.
Orthostatic hypotension, also known as postural hypotension, is a type of low blood pressure that occurs after sitting or lying down and occurs while standing. Orthostatic hypotension can make you feel woozy, lightheaded, and even faint. There may be some orthostatic hypotension. Episodes might be short.
Orthostatic hypotension symptoms are most frequently caused by fluid volume deficiency in the blood vessels. This could be the result of dehydration brought on by vomiting, diarrhea, or prescription use such diuretics or water pills.
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a patient is receiving potassium chloride 20 meq in 250 ml of normal saline to infuse over 90 minutes. calculate the setting for the infusion pump in ml/hr. (round to the nearest tenth.)
166.7 ml/hr for 60 min is the setting for infusion pump
To calculate flow rate in mL/hr, use unitary method
total fluid volume (250 mL)/ infusion time (90 mins) , (2.78 mL/min) to determine mL/hr, multiply by number of minutes in an hour (60) = flow rate (166.7 mL/hr).
infusion time fluid volume
90 min = 250 ml
1 min = 2.7 ml
60 min = 166.66
What is infusion pump?
It may be capable of delivering fluids in large or small amounts, and may be used to deliver nutrients or medications, such as insulin or other hormones, antibiotics, chemotherapy drugs, and pain relievers.
Some infusion pumps are designed mainly for stationary use at patient's bedside
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a client is scheduled to receive an intravenous immunoglobulin (ivig) infusion. the client asks the nurse about the infusion’s administration and its adverse effects. which condition should the nurse instruct this client to report immediately?
Client is scheduled to receive an intravenous immunoglobulin infusion. When asked about the infusion’s administration and adverse effects, nurse should instruct to report immediately when there is : tickle in the throat.
What is the adverse effects of intravenous immunoglobulin infusion?Serious side effects like allergic reactions or low blood counts (anemia) can occur very rarely.
Most common side effects is headache and other side effects are chills, fever, flushing, flu-like muscle pains or joint pains, feeling tired, vomiting, and rash.
The symptoms always occur within the first hour of infusion, and some adverse effects like fever or fatigue can also arise within 24 h.
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