Preterm, stillbirth, maternal deaths, or neonatal abstinence syndrome have all been related to opioid use disorder in pregnancy as major health effects for expectant mothers and developing newborns.
What negative effects does the newborn experience from the mother's narcotic analgesia?They might make you feel queasy, sick, or sleepy.These medications may impair the newborn's respiration and make them sleepy, which may make it difficult for them to successfully nurse for the first time.
What typical side effects of opiate agonist are there?Sedation, dizziness, vomiting, vomiting, diarrhea, dependence, tolerance, and respiratory failure are common side effects of opioid treatment.Constipation is the most prevalent negative impact of opiate usage.
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a nurse encourages residents of a long-term care facility to continue a similar pattern of behavior and activity that existed in their middle adulthood years to ensure healthy aging. this intervention is based on which aging theory?
Identity-continuity aging theory is the process of guaranteeing that mental attributes like self-awareness, sentience, sapience, and the capacity to understand how one's environment and self interact.
What does philosopher's continuity theory of personal identity entail?According to Locke, psychological continuity determines one's personal identity. He believed that the foundation of one's personal identity, or "self," was consciousness, namely recollection, rather than the substance of either the soul or the body.
What does it mean to have a constant psychological state?Experts in psychology claim that continuity in psychology refers to the capacity to proceed in the similar continually and endlessly. Gestalt Theory discusses perception and the development of continuous patterns as prerequisites for continuity in general.
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The identity-continuity ageing theory is the process of guaranteeing that mental attributes like self-awareness, sentience, sapience, and the capacity to understand how one's environment and self interact.
What does the philosopher's continuity theory of personal identity entail?
According to Locke, psychological continuity determines one's personal identity. He believed that the foundation of one's personal identity, or "self," was consciousness, namely recollection, rather than the substance of either the soul or the body.
What does it mean to have a constant psychological state?
Experts in psychology claim that continuity in psychology refers to the capacity to proceed in a similar continually and endlessly. Gestalt Theory discusses perception and the development of continuous patterns as prerequisites for continuity in general.
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the nurse is teaching a postmenopausal client about strategies to prevent the development of osteoporosis. on which topic should the nurse focus as primary prevention for the disorder?
The nurse's focus as primary prevention for the disorder is increasing calcium and vitamin D in the diet.
Why should calcium and vitamin D intake be taken care of during post-menopause?
The major means of preventing osteoporosis is to maintain a healthy . Although oestrogen replacement therapy can lower the incidence of osteoporosis, it can also raise the risk of some malignancies, therefore it shouldn't be used as a primary preventative measure. Only if cardiovascular exercise includes weight-bearing activities, such walking or jogging, can it directly aid in the prevention of osteoporosis. Instead of preventing osteoporosis, a lower body mass index (weight under 125 pounds for women of average height) increases the risk of acquiring it.
Hence, the answer is increasing calcium and vitamin D in the diet.
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the icp measurement is 20. which of the physician orders should be classified according to the laboratory results?
Avoid straining while having a bowel movement because it raises ICP. To aid in this, laxatives may be administered and fluid intake encouraged.
Although it is urged to breathe deeply, the patient must refrain from coughing in the first few days following surgery since it puts pressure on the incision and raises the risk of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. Postnasal drip may be an indication of CSF leakage, so the client should contact the nurse if they have it rather than blowing their nose.
According to reports, healthy adult subjects' normal ICPs in the horizontal position fall between 7 and 15 mm Hg. It is negative in the vertical position, averaging around 10 mm Hg and not surpassing 15 mm Hg.
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the nurse understands that medications, although very beneficial to clients, can have harmful effects. when working with older adult clients the nurse should recognize that which outcome is a common result of potent, fast-acting diuretics?
The nurse understands that medications can have harmful effects so with older adult clients the nurse should recognize that urge incontinence is a common result of potent, fast-acting diuretics.
Harmful effects of medications are also called adverse reactions, are unwanted undesirable effects that are presumably associated with a drug. These effects will vary from minor issues sort of a liquid nose to grave events, like a heart failure or liver injury.
Diuretics, typically known as water pills, facilitate free your body of salt (sodium) and water. Most of those medicines facilitate your kidneys unharness a lot of sodium into your body waste. The sodium helps take away water from your blood, decreasing the number of fluid flowing through your veins and arteries.
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sadie reports recent problems with constipation. all of the following strategies would be recommended to prevent or alleviate constipation, except
The strategy which would be recommended to prevent or alleviate constipation, except continue eating the white bread and pasta, which are also rich in fiber.
How to prevent constipation?Constipation occurs most commonly when the waste or stool moves too slowly through the digestive tract or cannot be eliminated effectively from the rectum, and thus may cause the stool to become hard and dry. This will lead to affect elimination of stool from body.
Constipation may occur by not eating enough fiber, such as fruit, vegetables and cereals in diet. A change in the daily routine, such as a change in eating habits or sleeping habits can also lead to constipation.
Drinking enough water, avoiding alcohol, increasing the fiber content in diet, and adding wheat bran, oats, and linseed in the diet can help in treatment and prevention of constipation.
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a client is being placed on a low-sodium diet. the client tells the nurse that many favorite foods are high in sodium and the client believes he or she will not be able to give them up. which intervention(s) by the nurse will assist the client with dietary compliance? select all that apply.
Direct the client to lower sodium version of favorite foods.
Help the client balance some favorite foods with salt free foods.
Encourage the client to discuss likes and dislikes.
Explain how to keep a food journal.
Instruct the client on reading food labels.
What is dietary compliance ?The goal of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans is to offer suggestions on what to eat and drink to create a healthy diet that can support healthy growth and development, aid in the prevention of diet-related chronic disease, and meet nutrient requirements.
Compliance is a passive behaviour in which a patient complies with the doctor's instructions." Continued in the article, it states: "Adherence is a more proactive, positive behaviour that forces the patient to alter their way of life because they are required to adhere to a daily schedule, such as wearing a brace as directed.
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which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient about inhaled glucocorticoids?
a client is admitted to the hospital with ascites. the client reports drinking a fifth (750 ml) of vodka mixed in orange juice every day for the past 3 months. to assess the potential for withdrawal symptoms, which question is important for the nurse to ask the client?
Answer:
Terms in this set (11)
A client is admitted with the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which clinical manifestations would the nurse assess in the client? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
1
an adolescent woke up complaining of intense pain and swelling of the scrotal area and abdominal pain. he has vomited twice. which would be the best suggestion by the nurse?
Body parts swell due to an injury or inflammation. A small area or the entire body could be impacted. Medication side effects, pregnancy, infections, and a variety of other medical issues can all cause edema.
What does extreme swelling mean?Edema can affect any area of your body, although it tends to manifest itself most visibly in the hands, arms, feet, ankles, and legs. Medication side effects, pregnancy, or an underlying condition can all cause edema.
When should swelling prompt you to seek emergency care?When to Get Swelling Care. If you experience abrupt, inexplicable swelling in just one leg or if it coexists with chest pain, breathing difficulties, bloody coughing, fever, or skin that is red and heated to the touch, you should seek emergency medical attention.
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an (fill in the blank) infection that occurs when a microbe breaks loose from a localized infection and is carried by the circulation to another tissue is
A Focal infection develops when a microbe escapes from a localized infection and travels to another tissue via the circulation.
What exactly is tissue mechanics?Cells define and shape their surroundings, and in turn, they receive biochemical and physical cues from them. Tissue regeneration involves cell recruitment, growth, proliferation, and differentiation, with the latter being a critical stage for regeneration success, avoiding the creation of fibrous tissue typical of repair [9-12]. Tissue is a collection of cells with similar structures that work together as a unit. The intercellular matrix is a nonliving substance that fills the spaces between the cells. This may be plentiful in some tissues while being scarce in others. The body's tissue is made up of cells. The cells share the same origin and appearance. They carry out a specific function in the body.
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the nurse is caring for a client with an autoimmune disease. what is a characteristic of autoimmune disorders?
In addition, autoimmune diseases have a lot in common with one another in terms of how they start and develop. Additionally, genetic features that overlap make people more susceptible.
What information about treating allergic rhinitis will the nurse provide to the patient?By blowing the nose first and then providing the medication, you can instruct the patient and their parents on how to use nasal sprays. Encourage comprehensive housecleaning. Encourage routine cleaning of the furniture, appliances, and surfaces in the house that could collect dust and other pollens.
Which of the following characteristics best describes the signs and symptoms of myasthenia gravis?Myasthenia gravis has no known cure, but treatment can ease its indications and symptoms, such as weakening in the arm or leg muscles, double vision, drooping eyelids, and problems with balance.
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a client with graves disease has had radioiodine treatment with worsening of ophthalmopathy. what medication does the nurse prepare to administer that the client will use for several weeks to decrease these symptoms?
A client with graves disease has had radioiodine treatment with worsening of ophthalmopathy. The nurse prepares to administer Radioiodine I-131 that the client will use for several weeks to decrease these symptoms.
What is grave disease?
Graves' disease, an immune system ailment, results in the overproduction of thyroid hormones. Hyperthyroidism can be caused by a variety of illnesses, although Graves' disease is commonly to fault.
The signs and symptoms of Graves' illness can vary significantly because thyroid hormones have an impact on so many different physiological systems. Graves' illness can affect anyone, but it tends to strike women and those under the age of 40 more frequently.
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the compliance officer of apple internal medicine group explains to the board that the stark law is similar to which regulation listed below, but applies only to physician relationships with entities that bill medicare or medicaid? a. false claims act b. self-referral law c. anti-kickback statute d. exclusion law
The Stark law, also known as the Physician Self-Referral Law, prohibits doctors from referring patients to get "specified health services" provided by Medicare or Medicaid.
What exactly does a physician do?
A doctor of medical known as a physician typically focuses on non-surgical treatment of patients' illnesses. That's not to argue that becoming a doctor isn't useful; most specialties have a distinctive variety of procedures related to them.
Why is a doctor called a physician?
Because the term "physic" traditionally covered both the practice of medicine and natural science, medical professionals are referred to as physicians. Physics as it related to healing was phased out in favor of medicine as scientific sciences advanced.
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what should the nurse teach a client who is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis b infection about treatment?
Answer:
"The treatment is effective if your liver enzymes return to normal."
Explanation:
which findings should the nurse expect to assess when completing the health history of a child admitted for possible type 2 diabetes? select all that apply.
The nurse should expect to polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia in the health history of the child.
How is Type 2 diabetes characterized ?Type 2 diabetes mellitus is distinguished by a slow start and is frequently linked to obesity rather than significant weight loss. Most frequently abrupt and accompanied by significant weight loss, type 1 diabetes.
In both kinds of diabetes mellitus, polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are common evaluation results.
An unusually high blood sugar level is a defining feature of type 2 diabetes. This type of diabetes is characterized by the body's improper use and production of insulin. The pancreas secretes the hormone insulin, which aids in controlling blood sugar levels.
Diagnosis
Normal is 5.7% or less.
Prediabetes has a diagnosis rate of 5.7% to 6.4%.
Diabetes is diagnosed when two tests show a 6.5% or higher level.
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(fill in the blank) is a progressive degenerative disease found in individuals with a history of multiple concussions and other closed-head injuries
Chronic traumatic encephalopathy is a chronic degenerative condition that affects people who have had many concussions or other closed-head injuries.
Which are the three most frequent degenerative diseases?Degenerative disease is the consequence of a continual process based on degenerative cell changes that harm tissues or organs and worsen with time. Neurodegenerative illnesses cause central nervous system cells to stop functioning or to die. Alzheimer's disease is an example of a degenerative neurological illness. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Ataxia Friedreich. Almost all slowly advancing diseases are chronic conditions. Because of the cellular changes, many of these are also referred to as degenerative diseases. A chronic, non-progressive disease may be referred to as a static condition if it is not progressive. Degenerative nerve diseases can be devastating or even fatal. It is dependent on the type. The majority of them are incurable. Treatments may aid in the improvement of symptoms, pain relief, and mobility.
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a multidisciplinary oncology team of health care providers, nurses, and the social worker notes that a client who has been undergoing chemotherapy is now experiencing pancytopenia. when reviewing the laboratory data, which values support this diagnosis? select all that apply.
Decreased RBC, decreased White Blood Cell, decreased platelets. values support this diagnosis
What is Chemotherapy?
It employs drugs. These medications inhibit the growth of cancer cells or kill them. However, some healthy cells that support the growth of hair or the lining of the lips are also destroyed. As a result, it has adverse effects, however they disappear once chemotherapy is finished. When chemotherapy completely eliminates cancer cells, they are unable to divide and therefore cannot grow.
Chemotherapy is used to reduce tumor size or stop the growth and spread of cancer. Tumors can be reduced in size and cancer can stop spreading with chemotherapy.
Chemotherapy may also be used to lessen the size of a tumor that is causing discomfort or pressure. Tumors are reduced in size by chemotherapy, which also lessens pressure and pain.
Chemotherapy does not serve as a substitute for drug-based treatments. Additionally, surgery is necessary to remove cancers, not this.
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the total bilirubin level of a 36-hour, breastfeeding newborn is 14 mg/dl. based on this finding, which intervention should the nurse implement?
On a baby who is 36 hours old, the nurse has gotten a total bilirubin laboratory report with a value of 14 mg/dl; the action that the nurse should do is to order phototherapy for the infant's pathological jaundice.
What does phototherapy serve as?
It may help treat skin conditions brought on by immune system reactions. Several skin conditions are treated using phototherapy, including the following: Psoriasis is a skin ailment that causes red, silvery, and scaly patches of skin. Itchy, red skin is a symptom of the allergic dermatitis known as eczema.
What organs are treated by phototherapy?
Despite the fact that injury to the gonads during phototherapy is unlikely due to the brief exposure time and the skin's protection of the subcutaneous tissue, in most cases.
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the nurse is teaching a woman how to use her basal body temperature (bbt) pattern as a tool to assist her in conceiving a child. which temperature pattern indicates the occurrence of ovulation, and therefore, the best time for intercourse to ensure conception?
The optimal period for sexual activity for assure pregnancy is between when the temperature drops and increases, which signifies the occurrence of ovulation.
How many hours does ovulation last?While ovulation typically can last for twelve to 24 hours, the six days prior to and following ovulation are when you have the highest chance of becoming pregnant. Continue reading to find out more about what occurs throughout this period of the menstrual and the causes of possible ovulation delays.
How many days do you ovulate?Around 12 to 14 days prior to the commencement of a new menstruation, you ovulate. The five days prior to ovulation, along with the day during ovulation and the morning following ovulation, are considered your fertile window.
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what are some strategies that caregivers may use to reduce the development of dental caries and other related dental problems during childhood?
Gum disease can be avoided with a diet high in vitamins, minerals, and fresh produce. Gum disease can cause foul breath and tooth loss.
What methods may parents employ to prevent dental caries and other related dental issues from developing in children?They use fluoride toothpaste to brush their teeth twice daily. Until they have good brushing techniques, assist your youngster while they wash their teeth. If your child is under six, observe them brushing. They should only use a pea-sized amount of toothpaste, and they should never swallow it.
What dietary changes can prevent dental caries?Good examples are combining dairy foods with sugary foods, uncooked foods with cooked meals, and foods high in protein with foods that are acidifying. * Eat cariostatic items like xylitol chewing gum after eating and drinking. * Drink water as often as possible to quench thirst and stay hydrated.
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while the nurse is caring for a primiparous client with cephalopelvic disproportion 4 hours after a cesarean birth, the client requests assistance in breastfeeding. to promote maximum maternal comfort, which position would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
To promote maximum maternal comfort, the following two positions would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest:
1. Side-lying: This position allows the mother to rest and relax while breastfeeding.
2. Football hold: This position is helpful in supporting the baby and keeping it in a more upright position.
What is Cephalopelvic disproportion?
Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is a condition that occurs when the size and shape of the baby's head and the mother's pelvis are mismatched, making vaginal delivery impossible without risking trauma to the baby. CPD can be caused by the baby's head being too large or the mother's pelvis being too small. It can also be caused by the baby's position during labor. This condition may require a cesarean section (C-section) to safely deliver the baby.
What is Cesarean section?
Cesarean section, also known as a C-section or cesarean delivery, is a surgical procedure in which a baby is delivered through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. This procedure is typically recommended when it is determined that a vaginal delivery would pose a risk to the mother or baby.
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a multigravida client at 41-weeks gestation presents in the labor and delivery unit after a non-stress test indicated that the fetus is experiencing some difficulties in utero. which diagnostic test should the nurse prepare the client for additional information about fetal status?
The diagnostic test that the nurse should set up for the client in order to obtain further details on the fetal status is the biophysical profile (BPP).
What is fetus?The unborn child that develops from an animal embryo is known as a fetus or foetus. Following embryonic development is the fetal stage of development. Fetal development in humans starts in the ninth week following fertilization and lasts until birth. An infant or extremely young child is referred to as a "baby." a fetus is an unborn kid. one who is the youngest in a family or group.
In the initial weeks of pregnancy, your developing fetus had a number of name changes. From the time of conception until the eighth week of development, it is typically referred to as an embryo. It is referred to as a fetus after the eighth week till it is born.
What are the stages of fetus and its measurements?Prenatal development takes place in three primary stages. The fetal stage, that last for from the ninth week till birth, follows the embryonic stage, which lasts from third to a eighth week after conception. The first two weeks after conception were recognized as the germinal stage.
Biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur diaphysis length are the fetal biometric measurements that are most frequently taken (FL). Several different formulas can be employed with these biometric measures to estimate fetal weight (EFW)1.
Briefing:BPP analyzes five different factors to provide information about fetal risk surveillance: fetal breathing patterns, fetal movements, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal tone and heart rate. Since the client's pregnancy has extended past the anticipated confinement date, the main concern is the fetal well-being associated with an aged placenta rather than fetal anomaly screening.
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which care environment would the nurse suggest to a client with no family nearby who is diagnosed with end-stage lung disease?
Answer:
residential care
Explanation:
the nurse is caring for the client with hepatocellular carcinoma. what does the nurse recognize is a cause of this disease?
Answer:
Illness with hepatitis B or C
Explanation:
a pta monitors the vital signs of a patient during a graded exercise test. which finding serves as the best indicator that the patient exerted a maximal effort during the exercise test?
The patient's maximum effort during the exercise test was best demonstrated by a score of 186.
What level of exercise intensity is ideal?In a maximal exercise test, the workload is raised while the exercise intensity is maintained, enhancing the cardiopulmonary and metabolic response (heart rate, stroke volume, ventilation, oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production).
What happens to cardiac output when exercising to your maximum capacity?More blood is sent to the working skeletal muscles during exercise, and as body temperature rises, more blood is sent to the skin. This process is carried out by a combination of increased cardiac output and redistribution of blood flow away from low-demand regions like the splanchnic organs.
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the nurse teaches the client with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies, including which action?
if you don't smoke, stop smoking or don't start. taking prescription drugs,
Which customer is most at risk for osteoporosis, according to the nurse?
Genetics. African American women are less prone to osteoporosis than small-framed, nonobese Caucasian women, Asian women of tiny build, and women with low peak bone mineral density.
What are the three best strategies to avoid osteoporosis?
How can your bones be safeguarded?
1.Consume a diet that is well-balanced and get adequate calcium and vitamin D.
2.Exercise on a regular basis.
3.Consume healthy foods for your bones, such as fruits and vegetables.
4. Avoid smoking, and have no more than two drinks of alcohol every day
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an 11-year-old boy who has stepped on a rusty nail is given tetanus immune globulin in the emergency department. the nurse knows that the immune globulin injection will confer which type of immunity?
The nurse knows that the immune globulin injection will confer Temporary passive acquired immunity.
What is Temporary passive acquired immunity ?When a person receives antibodies to a disease rather than creating them through his or her own immune system, passive immunity is supplied. Through the placenta, a newborn child gains passive immunity from its mother.
Antibodies used in passive immunity are borrowed rather than created by the immune system of the individual. As a result, it endures as long as the blood is circulating with antibodies.
No fresh antibodies are produced once it vanishes. As a result, passive immunity is never permanent.
Passive immunity comes in two flavors: synthetic and natural. Through the injection of serum or plasma containing high antibody concentrations, artificial passive immunity can be created.
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a nursing home patient needed to have a nasogastric (ng) tube placed in order to receive her feedings. the tube is inserted into the nasal cavity through nares and is advanced along the inferior meatus. what is the course the tube will take in order to get into the stomach?
NG tube travels from one of the nares, through the nasal mucosa, pharynx, esophagus, cardiac sphincter and into the stomach
What is nasogastric (ng) tube ?The medical procedure known as nasogastric intubation involves inserting a plastic tube through the nose, into the oesophagus, and then into the stomach. Similar procedures include orogastric intubation, which involves inserting a plastic tube through the mouth.
An NG tube is lubricated to make sliding through it easier. Following that, it is inserted through the nose, into the stomach through the oesophagus and throat. The oesophagus joins the stomach to the throat. To assist the tube in going down and into the proper place, the patient is asked to swallow, if they are able to.
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ems brings a patient who fell while riding his bicycle. using the american college of surgeons screening guidelines, which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to prepare the patient for radiologic spine clearance?
The nurse would prep the patient to radiologic spine clearance if the patient had an odor of alcohol on their breath during assessment.
What is a radiology scan for?Diagnostics radiography's main goals include the detection and monitoring of illnesses, skeletal or soft tissue abnormalities, and injuries. A variety of methods are employed by radiographers, such as X-rays, which are used to look past tissue and examine bones, cavities, and foreign objects.
What are the five types of radiology?Regarding the images it collects, the tools it employs, and the conditions it aids radiologists in diagnosing, each modality is distinct. Read further about our five most popular imaging modalities, including X-ray, CT, MRI, ultrasonography, or PET.
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the nurse is caring for a client with advanced cirrhosis who had a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (tips) performed 3 months ago. which assessments related to the client having a tips should the nurse prioritize? select all that apply.
A patient who received radioactive iodine for transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic should be treated for hypoprothrombinemia, exfoliative dermatitis, and agranulocytosis in that order (I-131).
Lack of the blood-clotting component prothrombin causes transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic, a condition that is characterized by a propensity for protracted bleeding. A vitamin K deficiency is frequently linked to hypoprothrombinemia because vitamin K is necessary for the liver cells to produce prothrombin.Erythroderma, sometimes referred to as generalized exfoliative dermatitis, is a severe skin surface irritation. This results from a medication reaction, an underlying skin problem, and occasionally cancer. In about 25% of cases, there is no known reason.When your body doesn't make enough white blood cells, it develops agranulocytosis (called neutrophils). White blood cells combat pathogenic microorganisms.
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