These include in human immunodeficiency virus. of using gloves, a gown, a mask, eye protection, or a face shield depending on the anticipated exposure, and practicing safe injection techniques.
What HIV safety measures are there for nurses?For all patients, gloves should be used while handling items or surfaces that have been soiled with blood or bodily fluids, contacting mucous membranes, or non-intact skin. Gloves should also be worn when performing venipuncture and other vascular access operations. After touching each patient, gloves should be changed.
What are the tenets of common precautions?Standard All patient care is conducted with precautions. In order to protect healthcare providers against infection and stop the spread of infection from patient to patient, they are founded on risk assessments and employ common sense techniques and personal protective equipment.
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a 64-year-old client is experiencing joint pain on a regular basis and asks the nurse what the options are beyond heat and the yoga exercises the client has been doing. what does the nurse describe as the cornerstone treatment modality for pain?'
A 64-year-old client is experiencing joint pain on regular basis and asks the nurse the options that are beyond heat and the yoga exercises then, nurse describe as the cornerstone treatment modality for pain : drug therapy.
What do you understand by drug therapy?Treatment with any substance other than food, that can be used to prevent, diagnose, treat, or relieve symptoms of a disease.
Drug therapy includes chemotherapy or other anticancer agents, radiation therapy and stem cell transplantation.
The purpose of using drugs is to relieve any symptoms, treat infection, reduce the risks of future disease, and also destroy selected cells such as in the chemotherapeutic treatment of cancer.
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the nurse is conducting a community education program on allergies and anaphylactic reactions. the nurse determines that the participants understand the education when they make which statement about anaphylaxis?
The participants are required to mention : " The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin ".
What are the effects of penicillin on anaphylaxyis ?Although aspirin, morphine (an opioid) and radiocontrast agents such as iodine can cause anaphylaxis, penicillin is the most comon cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the United States each year.
A past exposure to penicillin causes preformed IgE responses, which lead to acute reactions. Mast cells release histamine and other mediators as a result, which causes the classic signs and symptoms of a real anaphylactic reaction.
Anaphylaxis can occasionally occur as a result of a penicillin allergy. It is a potentially fatal illness that can include dizziness or lightheadedness, breathing issues, throat or tongue swelling, seizures, extremely low blood pressure, vomiting, diarrhea, and cramps in the abdomen.
Penicillin causes anaphylaxis in between 0.02% and 0.04% of cases, and type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are the primary mediator.
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the dispensing of controlled substances has divided patients, doctors, pharmacists and law enforcement agencies as they strive to create a balance between treating legitimate chronic pain and keeping powerful pain meds out of the hands of abusers. a recent convention discussed the development of a viable strategy for pain medications.
The dispensing of controlled substances has divided patients, doctors, pharmacists, and law enforcement agencies as they strive to create a balance between treating legitimate chronic pain and keeping powerful pain medications out of the hands of abusers. A recent convention discussed the development of a viable promotion strategy for pain medications. The correct answer is B.
What is a viable promotion strategy?A viable promotion strategy focuses on key benefits based on the audience's point of view and interests. This marketing strategy is delivered at an appropriate time when the target audience is most likely to be attentive and interested in the message being delivered. Due to the fact that this method is targeted at a specific audience, a viable promotion strategy is effective for keeping powerful pain relievers out of the hands of abusers.
The questions above are improperly formatted, making it challenging for some people to comprehend. The question is 'fill in the blank' type and should be stated as follows:
The dispensing of controlled substances has divided patients, doctors, pharmacists and law enforcement agencies as they strive to create a balance between treating legitimate chronic pain and keeping powerful pain meds out of the hands of abusers. A recent convention discussed the development of a viable ______ strategy for pain medications.This question also should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. ProductionB. PromotionC. PossessionD. PlaceThe correct answer is B, promotion.
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because the principal active ingredient in tobacco is nicotine, you might expect smoking to enhance the effects of:
The central nervous system is both stimulated and depressed by nicotine.
What results does nicotine in tobacco products have?Nicotine is a toxic and very addicting substance. It may result in an increase in heart rate, blood flow to the heart, blood pressure, and the constriction of arteries, among other things (vessels that carry blood). Nicotine may also aid in the hardening of artery walls, which could result in a heart attack.
Nicotine's ability to promote addictionCompared to the "high" associated with other medicines, this spike lasts far less time. However, nicotine, like other addictive substances, elevates dopamine levels in these reward circuits,20,21,27 reinforcing drug-taking behavior.
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the nurse is educating a group of women on the prevention of osteoporosis. the nurse recognizes the education as being effective when the group members make which statement?.
Osteoporosis is a risk for men who have medical disorders that lower their testosterone levels.
Which of the aforementioned are known risk factors for osteoporosis?You can alter these risk factors:
sex hormones. Osteoporosis can be brought on by menopause, an abnormal lack of menstrual cycles (amenorrhea), and low testosterone levels in males.
bulimia nervosa.
vitamin D and calcium consumption.
use of medication.
Lifestyle.
smoking cigarettes
consuming alcohol
Describe three facts concerning osteoporosis?The spine, wrist, and hip are the most often broken bones in the body, yet you can break a bone anywhere on your body. Often referred to as a "silent disease," osteoporosis. Your bones aren't visible to you or can't be felt thinning. A lot of people don't even realize they have weak bones until one of them breaks.
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a client with an h. pylori infection asks why bismuth subsalicylate is prescribed. which response will the nurse make?
When H. pylori bacteria infect your stomach, H. pylori infection results. The most common way for H. By coming into close touch with saliva, vomit, or stool, pylori germs can be transferred from one person to another.
What is the severity of pylori infection?In addition to ulcers, the H pylori bacteria can also lead to chronic inflammation in the upper small intestine or the stomach (gastritis) (duodenitis). Additionally, H pylori can occasionally result in stomach lymphoma or a rare form of stomach cancer.
Where are H. pylori infections most frequent?The spiral-shaped bacterium Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) resides in or on the stomach's lining. More than 90% of ulcers, which are lesions on the stomach or duodenal lining, are brought on by it.
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when a client who has been taking opioids becomes less sensitive to the drug's analgesic properties, that client is said to have developed a(n)
Young adults with inflammatory bowel disease would be at the greatest risk for problems while taking an opioid analgesic.
What are some analgesics examples?
Aspirin and ibuprofen are two of the medications in this class that are most commonly used. NSAIDs are included in the broader category of non-opioid analgesics. For less severe pain, doctors often prescribe NSAIDs rather than opiate painkillers like morphine.
What effects do analgesics have on the body?
A family of medications called analgesics is used to treat analgesia (pain). They function by preventing the brain from receiving pain signals or by interfering with the brain's perception of those signals. The two main types of analgesics are non-opioid (non-narcotic) and opioid (narcotic) pain medicines.
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the nurse needs to obtain an admission weight for a client diagnosed with end-stage lung cancer. to obtain the client’s weight, what should the nurse do first?
The nurse should assess the client's ability to stand or sit.
Lung cancer is a type of cancer that begins in the lungs. Your lungs are two spongy organs in your chest that take in oxygen when you inhale and release carbon dioxide when you exhale.
Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths worldwide.
People who smoke have the greatest risk of lung cancer, though lung cancer can also occur in people who have never smoked. The risk of lung cancer increases with the length of time and number of cigarettes you've smoked. If you quit smoking, even after smoking for many years, you can significantly reduce your chances of developing lung cancer
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. a pregnant woman has come to the emergency department with complaints of nasal congestion and epistaxis. what action by the nurse is best?
Teach that the increased blood supply to the mucous membranes and can result in congestion and nosebleeds,The upper respiratory tract was impacted by the edema and hyperemia that follow capillary engorgement, which are symptoms that are frequently observed during pregnancy.A referral is not required.The patient does not require lab work or to be connected to a heart monitor.The patient needs to be made aware that estrogen, not progesterone, is what causes these alterations.
Why folate during and before pregnancy?Before becoming pregnant and up until you are 12 weeks along, it is crucial to take a 400 microgram folic acid tablet every day.Spina bifida and other neural tube problems, such as birth defects, can be prevented with folic acid.
What fruit is beneficial during pregnancy?This includes berries like raspberries, strawberries, blueberries, and just about any other berry you can think of! Berries are a great source of antioxidants, which can protect both mother and fetus from dangerous ailments.
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a nurse is managing a client's continuous tube feeding via an ng tube. how often should the nurse check for residual?
When utilizing a PEG, it's crucial to evaluate tube feeding residuals before bolus feedings and every 4 hours while the patient is getting continuous feedings.
How frequently should a continuous feeding have residual checked?For patients who are not severely ill, it is recommended that GRV be evaluated every four hours for the first 48 hours of gastric feeding and then every six to eight hours after that.
Before administering a tube feeding, the nurse looks for any leftover stomach contents for what reason?In order to lower the risk of aspiration pneumonia, it is usual practice to assess gastric residual volumes (GRV) in tube-fed patients.
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question 9 of 10a nurse cares for a client who is post op open cholecystectomy and has a t-tube in place. which clinical situation will the nurse notify the health care provider about as a possible complication of the surgery?
A T-tube is a silicone stent for the trachea with an external limb. Thus correct answer (c)Significantly reduced bile output from the T-tube.
A T-tube is placed after open cholecystectomy to drain excess bile. The T-tube should remain below the level of the incision in order to ensure proper drainage. The nurse should report an output of greater than 500 mL in 24 hours or a significantly reduced bile output from the T-tube. There should not be bloody or serous output from the T-tube.
Do T tubes fall out of ears?
An ear tube often remains in the eardrum for four to 18 months before falling out on its own. A tube may not always fall out and must be surgically removed. In certain circumstances, the ear tube falls out too quickly, and a new one must be inserted into the eardrum..
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Full Question: A nurse cares for a client who is post op open cholecystectomy and has a T-tube in place. Which clinical situation will the nurse notify the health care provider about as a possible complication of the surgery?
Absence of blood or serous fluid in the T-tube.
Greater than 250 mL bile output from the T-tube in 24 hours.
Significantly reduced bile output from the T-tube.
Finding the T-tube placed below the level of the incision
the nurse is monitoring a patient who sustained an open fracture of the left hip. what type of shock should the nurse be aware can occur with this type of injury?
According to its kind and extent, a fracture is characterized as a complete or incomplete break in the continuity of the bone structure.
What evaluation results of the leg are consistent with a femoral neck fracture?Over the femoral neck, there is noticeable tenderness to palpation. There could be swelling here as well. A femoral neck stress fracture may be indicated by increased discomfort at the extremes of hip rotation, an abduction lurch, and the inability to stand on the affected leg.
When treating an open fracture, where should pressure be applied?If the fracture is open, clean, non-fluffy fabric or a sterile dressing should be applied to the wound. To stop any bleeding, apply pressure around the wound rather than directly over the sticking-out bone.
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the nurse is caring for a client with copd who was recently admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation of the illness. what indicates to the nurse that the client is in the comeback phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness?
Increased heart rate and respiration, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, chilly or mottled skin, and reduced urine production. Throughout the entire dying process, it's critical to offer support to the patient and family.
What sort of work are nurses supposed to perform?Registered nurses (RNs) supervise and perform medical operations while also providing patients and their families with emotional support and educating the public about various health issues. Most registered nurses collaborate with doctors and other medical professionals in a variety of settings.
Could a nurse perform the job?Numerous post-operative surgical therapeutic responsibilities fall under their purview. Whether it is cardiac, pediatric, or obstetric surgery, many surgical nursing professionals opt to specialize in that particular field.
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a client with severe peptic ulcer disease has undergone surgery and is several hours postoperative. during assessment, the nurse notes that the client has developed cool skin, tachycardia, labored breathing, and appears to be confused. which complication has the client most likely developed?
According to the given statement Hemorrhage complication has the client most likely developed.
Is a tachycardia life-threatening?But if you have organ damage or other heart issues, atrial and ventricular tachycardia (SVT) is typically not life-threatening. However, in rare circumstances, an SVT episode could result in cardiac arrest or coma. Tachycardia is frequently brought on by: diseases that affect the heart, such excessive blood pressure (hypertension) Heart muscle not getting enough blood because of coronary artery (atherosclerosis).
What could cause a tachycardia?Alcohol withdrawal or binge drinking. high caffeine content. Blood pressure may be high or low. electrolyte imbalances in the blood, including those of potassium, sodium, calcium, or magnesium.
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the parents of a child with diarrhea report to the nurse that they have treated the child with home remedies, including herbal medicine. what is the most important information for the nurse to communicate to the parents regarding the use of home remedies?
Inform medical experts about home remedies. Making sure that parents share this information with medical specialists is the most crucial piece of advice regarding herbal treatments used at home. This is done to make sure the youngster doesn't receive the same medication in two different forms or medications that could conflict with the natural therapy.
What is fluid and electrolyte review in nursing?
A thorough review of fluids and electrolytes for nurses is the fluid and electrolyte review. The primary causes, signs, and symptoms of the electrolytes potassium, sodium, chloride, phosphate, magnesium, and calcium will be covered. By regulating a variety of internal functions, including cardiac, neurological, oxygen supply, acid-base balance, and much more, fluids and electrolytes play a critical role in maintaining homeostasis inside the body. Electrolytes keep voltages across cellular membranes constant and are the driving force behind the cellular activity.
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a nurse prepares a client with a recently created ileal conduit to be discharged from the hospital. which is an expected assessment finding?
Urine mucus is a common finding. As part of its typical operation, the isolated small intestinal segment continues to produce mucus, which is visible in the urine.
Why does mucus develop?As a lubricant, it prevents tissue from drying out. And it's a line of protection. According to Johns Hopkins University ear, nose, and throat specialist, mucus is crucial for filtering out substances that we breathe in through your nose, such as dust, allergies, and germs.
Mucus infection: what is its cause?Overproduction of mucus can occasionally result from a cold, allergies, or germs. The accumulation of bacteria or other germs in your sinus canal can be aided by this thickening of the mucus, which can ultimately result in a sinus infection.
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a nurse is performing client health education with a 68-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. which statement demonstrates an accurate understanding of his new diagnosis?
The statement that demonstrates an accurate understanding of his new diagnosis is "I'm trying to think of ways that I can cut down the amount of salt that I usually eat."
What is Heart failure?
Heart failure occurs when the heart is unable to properly pump blood throughout the body. It usually occurs as a result of the heart becoming too weak or stiff.
It is also known as congestive heart failure, though this term is no longer widely used.
Heart failure does not imply that your heart has stopped functioning. It means it requires assistance to function properly.
It can occur at any age, but it is most common in the elderly.
Heart failure is a chronic condition that worsens gradually over time.
It is not usually curable, but the symptoms can often be managed for many years.
Consult your doctor if you have persistent or gradually worsening heart failure symptoms.
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the nurse is admitting a client from the post-anethsia care unit who just received a permanent atrioventuricular pacemaker for a complete heart block. which action should the nurse implement first?
Start continuous cardiac monitoring. The nurse should also evaluate the client's vital signs to determine stability after the procedure and check for pacemaker capture by feeling the client's pulse rate and comparing it to the electrical rate seen on the cardiac monitor.
The nurse should attach the continuous cardiac monitoring when the patient enters the post-anesthesia care unit following pacemaker implantation in order to evaluate the pacemaker's performance. Pacer spikes should be discernible before the P waves and QRS complexes if the atrioventricular (dual-chambered) pacemaker is functioning appropriately (electrical capture). The continuous cardiac monitoring medical professional should be informed right away if the pacemaker is not functioning properly for example, failing to capture or detect.
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a client is diagnosed with right-sided bell's palsy. what instructions should the nurse give this client for care at home? select all that apply.
Due to facial nerve irritation, which manifests as asymmetry in the grin or frown, facial droop, alterations in tear production, and inability to completely close the afflicted eye.
Bell's palsy on the right side is what?Bell's palsy is a condition that causes the muscles on one side of the face to suddenly deteriorate. Most often, the weakness is momentary and becomes much better over a few weeks. The weakening seems to make the lower half of the face droop. It's challenging for the affected eye to close during one-sided smiles.
Be explicit about the cause of Bell's palsy?Although the exact cause of Bell's palsy is uncertain, it is believed that immune system dysfunction brought on by inflammation is to blame. Other diseases like diabetes are connected to it.
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before giving digoxin, the nurse discovers that the patient's pulse is 52 beats per minute. what will be the nurse's best action?
Checking the apical pulse for 1 minute will be the nurse's best action.
Accuracy is typically checked by measuring the apical pulse rate for a full minute; this is crucial in newborns and young children due to the potential of sinus arrhythmia. You can count on hearing the noises "lub dup," which denote one beat, when auscultating the apical pulse. one minute's worth of apical pulse counting.
Prior to giving, wait a full minute to observe the apical pulse. If the pulse rate is greater than 60 beats per minute in an adult, 70 beats per minute in a kid, or 90 beats per minute in a baby, the dose should be withheld and a healthcare provider should be informed. Any major changes in the rhythm, rate, or nature of the pulse must be immediately reported to a medical expert.
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a patient has received epinephrine for treatment of anaphylaxis. which additional drug may be helpful to prevent recurrent anaphylaxis?
Although evidence are limited to case studies, glucose may be helpful for patients with severe anaphylaxis who are on beta-blockers (it should be taken in addition to epinephrine, not as a substitute). Bronchospasm can also be treated with glucagon.
Which drugs are effective in preventing anaphylaxis?The only medication that effectively cures anaphylactic responses is epinephrine. When administered quickly, before symptoms worsen, it works best.
Can anti-allergy medications stop anaphylaxis?Antihistamine therapy does not alleviate or prevent all of the pathophysiological symptoms of anaphylaxis, including the more serious side effects like airway obstruction, hypotension, and shock, despite the fact that histamine is involved in the condition.
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the nurse has completed an educational program on normal growth and development in children. which statement by a participant would indicate a need for further education?
The nurse gives parents of children entering the preschool age group proactive advice and instruction.
Why is it crucial to promote children's growth and learning?The success of children as learners rests on solid foundations laid from infancy on. Critical abilities, comprehension, and dispositions are fostered through play-based learning, which are crucial for your child's wellness and lifetime learning.
What role do learning, development, and growth play?Resilience, flexibility, and sustainability all depend on individuals, teams, and organizations learning, growing, and developing. There are several significant differences among the three. The process of gaining or modifying knowledge, understanding, behaviors, skills, and competencies is known as learning.
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contrast the three clusters of personality disorders, and describe the behaviors and brain activity associated with antisocial personality disorder.
Personality disorders are persistent, rigid patterns of conduct that hinder social interaction. Anxiety is a key element of the first cluster, while dramatic or impulsive behaviors make up the second and third clusters.
What causes impulsive behavior?being abused physically, sexually, emotionally, or both. mental illness that was present before. mental disease in the family history. history of substance misuse and addiction in oneself or one's family.
What leads to a lack of impulse control?Certain neurological conditions, such attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, may be linked to a lack of impulse control (ADHD). It might also be connected to a cluster of connected disorders known as impulse control disorders (ICDs).
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what is the most important reason for starting intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults?
For peripheral venous access, upper-extremity superficial veins are preferred over those in the lower extremities because they interfere with patient mobility less and carry a lower risk of phlebitis.
When donning sterile gloves, what procedure is most crucial for the nurse to follow?The nurse should put on sterile gloves first, maneuver is most crucial to keep your gloved hands above your elbows. Unsterile practices prohibit holding gloved hands below the waist.
What should the nurse do initially, and which action?The assessment stage is the first and most important in the nursing process. Before you begin implementing nursing activities, it is imperative that you finish the assessment phase of the nursing process.
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the nurse is teaching a community group about risks of cardiovascular disease. several clients ask the nurse to determine their risk. which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?
a male who has a 200 mg/dl low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level. The risk factors for cardiovascular disease include both modifiable and non-modifiable factors, such as gender and underlying illnesses.
Which are the four primary diseases?There are four main categories of disease: physiological diseases, infectious diseases, deficient diseases, and hereditary diseases, including both genetic and non-genetic hereditary disorders. Another approach to categorize diseases is according to whether they are contagious or not.
What prevalent rare diseases exist?More well-known ailments like cystic fibrosis, Lou Gehrig's disease, and Tourette's syndrome fall under the category of orphan and uncommon diseases. Less well-known conditions like Duncan's Syndrome, Madelung's disease, and acromegaly/gigantism also fall under this category.
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a nurse assesses a client in the health care provider's office. which assessment findings support a suspicion of systemic lupus erythematosus (sle)?
Facial erythema, pleuritis, pericarditis, fever, weight loss, etc., are some assessment findings that support a suspicion of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
What is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a medical condition associated with the most common lupus class, which is a well known autoimmune disease that may lead to different symptoms such as facial erythema, pleuritis, pericarditis and weight loss.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is the most widely known class of autoimmune disease lupus class and this disease is associated with diverse symptoms,
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anna’s father tried a low-carb diet for a while but stopped when he became aware of a new diet called ""paleo."" this is an example of
After a while, Anna's father tried a low-carb diet, but he gave it up when he learned about the "paleo" diet. This is a fad illustration.
A fad diet is a diet that becomes popular for a short time, similar to fads in fashion, without being a standard dietary recommendation, and often making unreasonable claims for fast weight loss or health improvements. There is no single definition of what is a fad diet.
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the nurse is designing a bioterrorism plan for a community. which agents are transmitted person to person via respiratory or inhalation exposure? (select all that apply.)
Answer:
b. Pneumonic plague
e. Smallpox
Explanation:
A client on the behavioral health unit tells the nurse that she experiences palpitations, trembling, and nausea while traveling alone, outside her home. These symptoms have severely limited her ability to function and have caused her to avoid leaving home whenever possible. The nurse recognizes that this client has symptoms of what disorder?
1. Thanatophobia
2. Aerophobia
3. Hodophobia
4. Agoraphobia
His symptoms severely limited his ability to function and caused him to avoid leaving the house, so the nurses recognized that this client had symptoms of 4. agoraphobia.
What is agoraphobia?Agoraphobia is a type of anxiety disorder. This disorder causes excessive feelings of fear and worry when in a place that makes it difficult for the sufferer to leave or feels unable to ask for help from anyone.
The causes of agoraphobia are still not known with certainty. However, this phobia is more prone to occur in people with a history of recurrent panic attacks. Although rare, agoraphobia can also occur in people who don't have a history of panic attacks.
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twenty minutes after a transfusion of packed red blood cells is initiated, a client reports shivering, headache, and lower back pain. the vital signs show a normal temperature and increased pulse and respiratory rate. what should be the first nursing actions?
Stop the transfusion, continue with saline infusion, and notify the physician regarding a suspected hemolytic reaction.
One of the most serious blood reactions is a hemolytic reaction, so stopping the transfusion as soon as possible and maintaining I.V. access are crucial.
A red blood cell transfusion may be given to a patient who has anemia, a condition in which the body lacks adequate red blood cells, or iron deficiency.
This kind of transfusion improves the body's oxygenation while raising the patient's hemoglobin and iron levels.
The usual lifespan of red blood cells (RBCs) in a healthy adult is about 120 days, and their normal daily production is about 0.25 mL/kg. In contrast, the lifespan of transfused RBCs is roughly 50–60 days and can be drastically shortened in the presence of conditions lowering their viability.
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