The risk of fluid overload must be weighed against the need for adequate fluid resuscitation. The safe and precise administration of intravascular fluids and drugs is crucially dependent on the nurse.
Due to inefficient cardiac action and a buildup of blood and fluid in the pulmonary tissues, fluid overload and pulmonary edoema are dangers. In order to maintain a sufficient intravascular volume, the patient also needs intravenous fluids. However, limiting fluid intake is not the best way to achieve this equilibrium.
By administering fluid and electrolytes, fluid resuscitation primarily serves to maintain organ perfusion (hemodynamics) and substrate supply (oxygen, among other substances). The majority of circulatory shock states, as well as severe intravascular volume depletion, both need for large-volume IV fluid replacement (eg, due to diarrhoea or heatstroke). Vasoconstriction immediately compensates for intravascular volume shortage. Fluid then migrates from the extravascular compartment to the intravascular compartment over the course of hours, preserving circulation at the price of total body water. However, with significant losses, this compensation is insufficient.
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select all that apply: the nurse is assessing the musculoskeletal status of a 70 year old patient. what findings should the nurse consider as expected age-related changes in this body system?
Findings that the nurse should consider as expected age-related changes in body: decreased muscle mass, reduced muscle strength, reduced range of shoulders and hips motion and loss of 1/2 inch height.
What assessment findings are symptoms of musculoskeletal impairment?Musculoskeletal conditions are characterized by pain and limitations in mobility and dexterity. It also reduces people's ability to work and participate in society.
Symptoms are swelling, bruising, erythema, tenderness over joints or muscles and deformity of joints. It also causes decreased active range of motion and contracture or foot drop present.
Nodules and bogginess are considered abnormal findings whereas symmetry is an expected finding in a musculoskeletal assessment.
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a client is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic hydronephrosis. which assessment finding requires immediate action or will assist the nurse in planning care?
The underlying cause of the issue may require treatment with medication or surgery to be removed.
The ideal test for hydronephrosis is what?An ultrasonic scan is frequently used to identify hydronephrosis. Finding the cause of the ailment may require more testing. The interior of your kidneys can be visualised using sound waves during an ultrasound scan. This should be very obvious if your kidneys are enlarged.
What choices are there for the patient with renal calculi?There are a number of possible treatments if you have kidney stones (urolithiasis). These include ureteroscopy, percutaneous nephrolithotripsy (PCNL), extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL), and medical treatment.
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a health care provider orders a retention enema for a client whose diagnostic testing reveals the presence of intestinal parasites. which enema would be indicated for this client?
Constipation relief is the primary goal of enema administration. Additionally, an enema can be used to remove flatus, empty the intestines before to a diagnostic procedure or surgery, or to introduce medication.
What position must the patient be in for an enema?Given the anatomical features of the colon, administering an enema is best done in the left lateral position. Despite the fact that 5 to 6 cm is the designated length for the tube to be inserted.
What phrase would the nurse use to record a patient's incapacity to pass waste from the colon?Hardened fecal matter that has been kept in the large bowel and cannot be expelled by normal peristaltic activity causes fecal impaction.
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a patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 lbs, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (dm). the a1c is 7.1%. what is the best initial treatment?
A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 lbs, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (dm). the a1c is 7.1%. The best initial treatment is-
Diet, exercise, and metformin.
What is diabetes mellitus?
A series of conditions known as diabetes mellitus alter how the body uses blood sugar (glucose). The cells that make up the muscles and tissues' main source of energy is glucose. That serves as the primary source of energy of the brain.
Type 1 and type 2 diabetes both are chronic diseases. Treatment options exist for diabetes-related conditions such gestational diabetes and prediabetes. When blood sugar levels are higher than usual, prediabetes begins to develop. However, a diagnosis of diabetes cannot be made only based on blood sugar levels. Additionally, if precautions are not taken, prediabetes could turn into diabetes. During pregnancy, gestational diabetes can develop. It can leave once the baby is born.
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a nurse is caring for a client in a critical care unit. with what type of shock does a client experience a pooling of blood flow to the peripheral blood vessels?
Obstructive shock does a client experience a pooling of blood flow to the peripheral blood vessels.
What is Obstructive shock?One of the four types of shock is obstructive shock, which is brought on by a physical restriction in the blood flow. The heart itself or the level of the great vessels might both experience obstruction. Pulmonary embolism, cardiac tamponade, and tension pneumothorax are some of the causes. These are all potentially fatal.
pooling of blood (Blood pool):Blood pools (or collects) in your legs, ankles, and/or feet when it cannot return to your heart and is unable to do so. Several different conditions can cause blood to collect in the feet and legs.
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a client has been given the diagnosis of diffuse glomerulonephritis. the client asks the nurse what diffuse means. the nurse responds:
A customer has been diagnosed with diffuse glomerulonephritis, which affects all of the glomeruli and all of the glomeruli's components.
How is glomerulonephritis diagnosed in nursing?The primary nursing diagnoses based on the assessment data are: Poor breathing habits associated with the inflammatory process. altered urine elimination due to a smaller bladder or discomfort from an illness.
What other possible diagnoses for glomerulonephritis exist?A wide range of organic renal and vascular illnesses, as well as some of the functional reasons of proteinuria, are all included in the differential diagnosis of acute and chronic glomerulonephritis. Through good laboratory integration, the modern doctor can increase the effectiveness of his diagnosis and treatment.
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An anesthetist has just delivered an anesthetic agent to the area immediately surrounding the anterior superior iliac spine of a patient's pelvic bone. Where would you anticipate the loss of sensation in this patient?
The patient would have loss of sensation in the lateral thigh region.
How does anesthesia cause numbness ?During examinations and surgeries, anesthetics are used to cause sleep or numb feeling in certain body parts. This lessens discomfort and pain and makes a variety of medical treatments possible.
Local anesthetics that are applied topically reduce blood supply to the nerves, which may either directly injure them through ischemia or enhance direct cytotoxic effects.
Vasoconstriction caused by local anesthetics is correlated with drug concentration, just as other adverse effects.
Surgery often leaves patients with some degree of numbness. Numbness might arise from an incision because it temporarily harms sensory nerves. All forms of plastic surgery, from liposuction to rhinoplasty, frequently result in this total lack of sensation or tingling at the incision site.
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the nurse on the oncology unit is planning care for four patients. the patient taking which cytotoxic anticancer drug will require ondansetron least frequently?
A cytotoxic anticancer medication like bleomycin will use ondansetron the least often.
Which medication from the list below should be given to a chemotherapy patient to prevent nausea and vomiting?The following common anti-nausea drugs, however, may be prescribed by your doctor if the chemotherapy is anticipated to produce nausea and vomiting: The aperitif (Emend®) Granisetron (Kytril®) and dolasetron (Anzemet®)
Which medication would be most helpful for treating chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting?Dexamethasone is the most effective antiemetic for preventing delayed nausea and vomiting, according to studies.
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a 55-year-old diabetic woman complains of a complete restriction of motion in her shoulder. what should be suspected
A 55-year-old diabetic woman says that her shoulder has no range of motion at all. woman thought to have adhesive capsulitis.
What triggers sticky capsulitis?As your shoulder joint's tissue tightens and restricts movement, this problem might develop. This happens when you are unable to move around due to another ailment, such as a rotator cuff tear, arm break, or surgical recovery.
Adhesive capsulitis: Does it go away?It's probable that you have the ailment known as frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis). A number of treatments may help increase the range of motion in your shoulder joint, though recovery may take several months to a year or more. You should schedule a medical appointment.
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the critical condition that requires the most protein intake is? group of answer choices burns septic shock acute respiratory failure heart attac
A heart attack, burns, septic shock, and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) are some of the symptoms.
What is ARDS's most typical cause?If ARDS develops many days or more after serious burns or trauma, sepsis may be the most frequent reason for it. A patient may directly or indirectly develop ARDS as a result of severe traumatic tissue injury.
The stages of ARDS are as follows.The wounded lung is thought to go through three stages in ARDS: exudative, proliferative, and fibrotic; however, the timing of each stage and the overall disease progression are unpredictable. ARDS is not always fatal, despite the lack of a treatment. 60% to 75% of those with ARDS are thought to survive the condition with treatment.
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pharmaceutical treatments for individuals with intellectual developmental disorders have been found to be largely ineffective in treating maladaptive behaviors.
This statement is wrong. pharmaceutical treatments for individuals intellectual with developmental disorders have been found to be largely effective in treating maladaptive behaviors.
What Is Maladaptive Behavior?When a person learns to respond problematically to difficult circumstances and experiences, maladaptive habits develop. Despite the fact that all maladaptive behaviors share this trait, the circumstances and experiences can differ greatly. Maladaptive behaviors can be found in some or all of the settings that make up a person's life, including the home, workplace, interpersonal interactions, and community.
How to Recognize Maladaptive Behaviors that Need Treatment ?Increased anxiety or depression issues, frequent criticism from friends and family, work issues, trouble unwinding or sleeping, legal issues (such as DUIs or police involvement for violent crimes), marital disputes, relationships that end abruptly, school issues, and thoughts of harming oneself or others
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the nurse is caring for a newborn infant with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who is scheduled for surgical closure of the sac. in the preoperative period, which is the priority problem?
The priority problems can be:
a. Risk for infection related to vulnerability of the myelomeningocele sac.
b. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to exposure to urine and feces.
c. Risk for injury related to neuromuscular impairment.
Spina bifida is a condition that affects the spine and is usually apparent at birth. It is a type of neural tube defect (NTD).
Spina bifida can happen anywhere along the spine if the neural tube does not close all the way. When the neural tube doesn’t close all the way, the backbone that protects the spinal cord doesn’t form and close as it should. This often results in damage to the spinal cord and nerves.
Spina bifida might cause physical and intellectual disabilities that range from mild to severe. The severity depends on:
a. The size and location of the opening in the spine.
b. Whether part of the spinal cord and nerves are affected.
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the nurse is monitoring a new mother changing her newborn's diaper and notices a musty smell to the infant's urine. which condition should the nurse prioritize in further assessments to rule out?
The nurse should prioritize Phenylketonuria in further assessments to rule out.
What is Phenylketonuria?
Phenylketonuria or PKU, is a rare, inherited birth defect that causes phenylalanine, an amino acid, to build up in the body. Phenylketonuria is caused due to a change in the phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) gene. The phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) gene helps create the enzyme that is needed for breakdown of phenylalanine.
There are no symptoms to PKU, if treated early. Without treatment, it can lead to brain damage and damage to the nervous system, which may lead to learning disabilities.
Other symptoms of untreated Phenylketonuria are behavioural difficulties such as episodes of self-harm and frequent temper tantrum.
Therefore, the nurse should prioritize Phenylketonuria in further assessments to rule out.
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if used correctly, combined hormone contraceptives prevent pregnancy nearly 100% of the time. how do they work?
The ingredients in the pill work to successfully stop ovulation. Without ovulation, there would be no egg for the sperm to fertilize, preventing conception. In addition, the hormones in the pill thicken the mucus on the cervix.
What is the combination oral contraceptive pill's primary mode of action?Oral contraceptives stop conception. Because estrogen and progestin work together to thicken cervical mucus and give the hypothalamic-pituitary gland negative feedback, they hinder ovulation.
How does the combination pill function biologically?The pill increases the body's progesterone levels, simulating pregnancy. The physical symptoms of pregnancy are present.
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a back brace is prescribed for a client who had a laminectomy. which information would the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
A nurse evaluates a patient's medical history before prescribing ziconotide (Prialt) for chronic back pain.
Is laminectomy an extensive procedure?A surgeon removes the lamina in its entirety or mostly during a laminectomy. A more conservative course of treatment has often been exhausted before doing this significant surgery. On the cervical, lumbar, sacral, or thoracic spines, laminectomy can be done.
Is laminectomy a risky procedure?Spinal stenosis symptoms are commonly treated with open lumbar laminectomy surgery. Despite the rarity of this surgery's complications, there may be a few risk factors that could cause the procedure to fail or be delayed.
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the nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client with rheumatoid arthritis. what teachings are priorities for the client? select all that apply.
The nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client with rheumatoid arthritis, then teachings that are priorities for the client are : Safe exercise, medication dosages, side effects and assistive devices.
What care should be taken for for rheumatoid arthritis?Methotrexate is the first medicine given for rheumatoid arthritis, with DMARD and a short course of steroids (corticosteroids) to relieve pain, if any. They can be combined with biological treatments.
Optimal care of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) includes both pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic therapies. Many nonpharmacologic treatments are available for this disease, like exercise, diet, massage, counseling, stress reduction, physical therapy and surgery.
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a nurse notes that the volume of the client's urinary elimination is less than 300 ml/day. which nursing intervention will be appropriate to use with this client?
When a nurse observes that a client's urine output is less than 300 ml per day, it is a sign of renal dysfunction.
What is the least permitted hourly discharge of urine?1000 to 3000 mL of urine should be produced normally per 24 hours. The recommended minimum hourly output of urine is 30 mL. When it is appropriate, a nurse may choose to keep an eye on a patient's intake and output. defined as a urine flow rate of under 30 milliliters per hour.
How can the nurse prevent infection due to pee backflow into the client's bladder?Place the drainage bag so that no floor contact or urine backflow occurs. For drainage and the avoidance of urine backflow, gravity is crucial.
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a client who had a miscarriage 6 months ago becomes pregnant. which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client?
Pregnancy test instructions should be included in the pregnancy test you repeat right before beginning your second round of contraception.
When a client with vaginal bleeding is admitted at 36 weeks gestation, which nursing intervention is of utmost importance?Keep an eye on uterine contractions. Under the client, place disposable pads.
What part does the nurse play in assessing pregnancies and pregnancies?The prenatal nurse keeps track of the mother's and fetus's health, offers emotional support, and educates the expectant mother and her family on the physical and mental changes that occur throughout pregnancy, the growth of the fetus, labor and delivery, and postpartum care.
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during a prenatal visit, the client is concerned about the effects smoking can have on the fetus. which response by the nurse is most accurate regarding infants of mothers who smoke during pregnancy?
A mother who smokes during pregnancy is most likely to give birth to a low birth weight infant.
What happens when a mother smokes during pregnancy ?Smokers are more likely than non-smokers to experience the following pregnancy-related problems: pregnancy labor.
This type of premature labor begins before to the 37th week of pregnancy. Premature birth can result from preterm labor.
Ectopic conception. This occurs when a fertilized egg grows and implants outside of the uterus (womb). Pregnancy loss always results from an ectopic pregnancy. It may result in risky, severe issues for a pregnant lady. Ectopic pregnancies are typically eliminated surgically.
bleeding in the genital area
placental issues, such as placental abruption and placenta previa. Through the umbilical cord, the placenta develops in your uterus and provides food and oxygen to the developing baby. A dangerous condition is placental abruption.
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exposure of microbial populations to antibiotics leads to the selection of organisms that are able to resist the antibiotic
Exposure of microbial populations to antibiotics leads to the selection of organisms that are able to resist the antibiotic, then it is natural selection(survival of the fittest).
What is the survival of the fittest?When bacteria are exposed to an antibiotic, most susceptible to the antibiotic will die quickly, leaving any surviving bacteria to pass on their resistant features to the succeeding generations.
There are two ways for bacterial cells to acquire antibiotic resistance : one is through mutations that occur in DNA of the cell during replication and another way that bacteria acquire resistance is through horizontal gene transfer.
Antibiotic resistance refers to resistance to bacteria whereas antimicrobial resistance refers to resistance to bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites.
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which nursing intervention is correct to encourage the client to verbalize his or her health problem?
Encourage the patient to express his or her feelings health, thoughts, and worries about making decisions regarding their treatment.
What do nurses do in the context of mental health?Interventions that are psychosocial include techniques like stress management, self-coping abilities, relapse prevention, and psychoeducation. Additionally, they use psychological treatments such motivational interviewing methods or cognitive behavioral therapy.
Which nursing interventions highlight client care that promotes physical functioning and which ones should I choose all the time?Which nursing interventions signify physical functioning assistance for the client? Interventions that support physical functioning include maintaining a client's nutritional status and maintaining a client's regular bowel patterns.
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a pregnant client in the second trimester has a hemoglobin of 10 g/dl. the client confirms fatigue, but otherwise feels fine. which action by the nurse is the priority when providing care to this client?
Recommend the client add supplemental iron to her diet.
What is the importance of supplementary iron during pregnancy?
The WHO currently advises daily iron and folic acid supplementation as part of antenatal care to lower the risk of low birth weight, maternal anemia, and iron deficiency. The body uses iron to produce red blood cells. Because both you and your unborn child are developing, your body produces more blood while you are pregnant. This means that while you are pregnant, you need extra iron. Low iron levels can raise your risk of infection, make you feel fatigued, and impair your ability to concentrate.
Hence, the answer is to recommend the client add supplemental iron to her diet.
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when assessing a person who is grieving using the grief cycle model, which concept would be most important for the nurse to keep in mind? select all that apply.
The concepts that would be the most important to keep in mind when assessing a person using the grief cycle model are:
People vary widely in their responses to loss. Stages occur at varying rates among people. Some people actually skip some stages of grief altogether.The grief cycle model is a model that attempts to explain the stages of grief when someone is experiencing it. It describes the series of emotions that they experience: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
In reality, most of the time the grief that humans experience is not as discrete as the model may indicate. That's why the model cycle should not be used as an empirical thing. That being said, using the model as a general guide to assess a grieving person is still useful.
The question above is incomplete, but the completed question is most likely as follows:
When assessing a person who is grieving using the grief cycle model, which concept would be most important for the nurse to keep in mind? Select all that apply.
Stages occur at varying rates among people. Some people actually skip some stages of grief altogether. People vary widely in their responses to loss. The stages of grief occur linearly and are static. The stages are relatively discrete and identifiable.Learn more about grief at https://brainly.com/question/16877564
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a patient admitted to the hospital has been using phenylephrine nasal spray [neo-synephrine], 2 sprays every 4 hours, for a week. the patient complains that the medication is not working, because the nasal congestion has increased. what will the nurse do?
Nurse should discontinue the use of phenylephrine after the nasal congestion worse.
Rhinitis MedicamentosaAs the name suggests, rhinitis medicamentosa means rhinitis (inflammation of the nose) due to the use of medicamentosa (nasal decongestants). This rebound congestion can occur if topical nasal decongestants are used too often (overuse).
Commonly used topical nasal decongestants are ephedrine derivatives (including phenylephrine). Topical nasal decongestants are commonly used to treat diseases with congestion in the nose (allergic rhinitis, rhinosinusitis, nasal polyps, etc.). However, the use of topical nasal decongestants can cause rebound congestion within 3 days to 4-6 weeks after use.
This can occur due to:
Chronic vasoconstriction which causes edema in the noseImpaired vasomotor which causes vasodilationBeta-adrenoreceptor activity which causes rebound vasodilatation.If this happens, the first step is to discontinuation of the topical nasal decongestant. However, the patient must be educated, while the congestion may worsen. To treat the congestion, you can be give:
Short-term oral corticosteroid (eg: prednisone 0.5 mg/kg 5 days) Oral antihistamine Corticosteroid injection in lower turbinateLearn more about rhinitis here: https://brainly.com/question/28543660
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assessing the health of the older adult can be challenging due to several factors. what is the most significant factor contributing to the complexity of assessing health and functioning in the older adult?
Even severe sickness symptoms have a tendency to be elusive and unpredictable in older age persons.
Age-related glucose intolerance & diabetes sickness appear to be significantly influenced by impaired pancreatic -cell adaptation towards insulin resistance. 90-150 mg/dL is an acceptable fasting glucose goal range for the majority of older persons. While some variances in older population lives are inherited, the majority are caused by people's homes, neighborhoods, or communities, as well as by their personal traits such their sex, race, or financial position. Walking and other everyday types of exercise can help elderly diabetic sickness manage their glucose levels. Create a strategy for physical activity that works with your schedule & that you can stick to if your aim is to become more active many days of the week.
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the nurse is teaching parents about home use of the fiberoptic bili blanket. which statement by the mother indicates effective teaching?
Parents are being instructed by the nurse on how to use the fiberoptic bili blanket at home. "I should keep the bili blanket on 24 hours a day," the mother says, demonstrating effective instruction.
For the treatment of newborn jaundice, a Fibre Optic biliblanket, a portable phototherapy equipment, is employed (hyperbilirubinemia). Light is directed into a fiber-optic panel that is protected by a safe, cushioned cover by an illuminator. Only one side of the cover, which is draped over the infant's chest, is illuminated. A portable illuminator and fiber-optic pad are the two components of a biliblanket, a phototherapy home remedy. It treats neonatal jaundice by transferring light to a baby through a pad of woven fibres (hyperbilirubimia). and is thus suggested by the nurse.
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question 7 of 10the nurse is planning care for a client following an incisional cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis. which intervention is the highest nursing priority for this client?
Assisting the client every two hours to turn, cough, and take a big breath
Why is such an intervention done following an incisional cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis?
The client's respiratory state should be the main subject of assessment. The high abdominal incision needed during surgery, if a typical surgical technique is intended, may prevent a patient from having a full respiratory excursion. Although essential, the other nursing interventions are not given the same emphasis as providing proper ventilation.
Hence, the answer is, assisting the client every two hours to turn, cough, and take a big breath.
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After the physician has discussed euthanasia with a terminal client and his family, the nurse assesses their understanding of the topic. Which of the following statements by the family indicates that learning has occurred?
"It is alright to stop dialysis."
The nurse said : "It is alright to stop dialysis."
What is euthanasia ?Euthanasia is the practice of ending a patient's life in order to relieve their suffering. Normally, the patient in question would have a serious illness or be in excruciating agony.
Different actions are classified as "euthanasia." These distinctions between the various versions are listed below.
Active euthanasia refers to the deliberate killing of a patient, such as administering a deadly amount of medication. Occasionally known as "aggressive" euthanasia.
The deliberate withholding of artificial life support, such as a ventilator or feeding tube, is known as passive euthanasia.
Euthanasia carried out voluntarily: with the patient's permission.
Without the patient's consent, for instance if the patient is unconscious and it is unknown what he or she wants to happen to him or her.
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the nurse is preparing a care plan for a client with hepatic cirrhosis. which nursing diagnoses are appropriate? select all that apply.
Echocardiography or cardiac catheterization should be used to confirm the diagnosis even though ascitic fluid analysis may point to cardiac ascites.
What kind of test is used to confirm liver cirrhosis?It might be advised to use magnetic resonance elastography (MRE). This noninvasive advanced imaging test finds liver stiffness or hardening. You might also undergo additional imaging tests like MRI, CT, and ultrasound.
Which diagnostic procedure verifies liver cirrhosis?Complete blood count (CBC), liver enzyme, liver function, and electrolyte testing, as well as screening for other medical conditions like hepatitis B and C viruses, liver cancer, or gallstones, are tests used to confirm a diagnosis of cirrhosis. A liver biopsy is typically used to confirm the diagnosis.
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a client diagnosed with colorectal cancer reports constipation to the nurse. which teaching will the nurse provide to help the client identify sign(s) or symptom(s) of constipation? select all that apply.
After a few weeks of no bowel movement, keep an eye out for liquid. You may urinate less frequently or at all, and you might feel discomfort when you defecate.
How do u know if u cancer?fluctuations in weight, including such unplanned loss or growth. alterations to a skin, such as yellowing, darkening, and redness, along with unhealing wounds or modifications to moles that already exist. modifications to bowel or bladder routines. persistent cough or breathing issues.
How does cancer start in the body?Disease was brought on by cells that divide uncontrollably and infect surrounding tissues. Cancer is mostly brought on by genetic changes. Most majority of genetic changes that result in cancer occur in areas of a genomes known as genes. Genetic modifications are another name for these changes.
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