Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg or below. Combining diabetes and hypertension can increase the risk of cardiovascular disease, kidney disease, and other health issues.
If left untreated, diabetes and high blood pressure can result in serious complications like visual problems and kidney failure. As a result of shared risk factors such hypoperfusion, vascular inflammation, arterial remodeling, atherosclerosis, renal failure, dyslipidemia, and obesity, diabetes and hypertension are intimately linked. Over time, diabetes has an impact on the body's microscopic blood vessels, hardening the blood vessel walls. High blood pressure is the outcome of this increasing pressure. Your risk of having a heart attack or stroke might be considerably increased by having high blood pressure and type 2 diabetes. ARBs, like ACE inhibitors, reduce the negative effects of diabetes
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the nurse teaches the client with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies, including which action?
if you don't smoke, stop smoking or don't start. taking prescription drugs,
Which customer is most at risk for osteoporosis, according to the nurse?
Genetics. African American women are less prone to osteoporosis than small-framed, nonobese Caucasian women, Asian women of tiny build, and women with low peak bone mineral density.
What are the three best strategies to avoid osteoporosis?
How can your bones be safeguarded?
1.Consume a diet that is well-balanced and get adequate calcium and vitamin D.
2.Exercise on a regular basis.
3.Consume healthy foods for your bones, such as fruits and vegetables.
4. Avoid smoking, and have no more than two drinks of alcohol every day
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you have just delivered a premature baby. your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately; however, his heart rate is 90 beats/min. you should
When a premature baby that has just been delivered is breathing adequately with 90 beats/min heart rate, you must keep the baby warm and provide them with ventilatory assistance.
Premature baby is a baby that is born through premature birth (less than 37 weeks). Health problems are a relatively high risk for premature babies, so it is very important to monitor them until they are strong enough.
In the question above, a premature baby only has 90 beats/min heart rate. Normally, the resting heart rate for newborn infants is around 130 to 150 beats/min. That means that the baby in question has a slow heart rate.
To increase the heart rate, keep the baby warm and ventilate them using a Bag Valve Mask or BMV as ventilatory assistance. An increase in internal temperature and ventilation will help increasing the heart rate,
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which term refers to a health care's organization goal that is designed to identify the desired future of the organization
Outlining the concrete procedures required to achieve certain goals is a key component of strategic planning in the healthcare industry.
What is a healthcare organization trying to accomplish?Generally speaking, hospital aims revolve around enhancing patient care, care quality, staff retention and skill, hospital expansion, and finances.
What three things make up the core of a healthcare organization?Managing daily operations in a healthcare facility that have an impact on patient care and organizational objectives is referred to as operations management. Administrative, financial, and legal aspects of these procedures are often separated out into several categories.
What are sensible objectives for health care?A SMART target is one that is time-bound, specified, measurable, achievable, and relevant.
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the nurse is caring for a client whose mobility is restricted to a wheelchair after a motor vehicle accident. the client has been prescribed physiotherapy as a part of rehabilitation | care. which interventions would the nurse consider when the client is discharged from the health care facility? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Aid the family locate available community resources. 2. Motivate the primary care physician to schedule regular respite time. 3. Take into account the experience of the primary caregiver in the discharge process.
How come it's named "nurse"?
The Latin phrase nutire, meaning means to breastfeed, is where the word nurse first appeared. This is due to the fact that in its early usage, it mostly referred to a wet-nurse.
What ten roles do nurses play?
duties in nursing
logging and keeping track of a child's vital signs. promoting health by teaching patients how to take care of themselves. Getting advice from medical professionals to choose the best course of action. administering non-intravenous and over-the-counter medicines.
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when the newly admitted client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease informs the nurse that she frequently awakens during the night, the nurse may notify the physician for which intervention?
The nurse may let the doctor know what action to take. When a new COPD patient who has just been admitted tells the nurse because she frequently wakes up during the night, the nurse suggests low-flow oxygen.
What do pulmonary illnesses entail?Lung cancer, pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, asthma, and obstructive pulmonary disease ( copd (COPD) are all examples of pulmonary diseases. also known as a respiratory condition and a lung condition.
What pulmonary illnesses are the most prevalent?Chronic bronchitis (COPD), asthma, workplace lung disorders, and pulmonary hypertension are a few of the most prevalent. In addition to smoking tobacco, other risk factors included air pollution, chemicals and dusts used at work, and recurrent lower respiratory infections in children.
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a client who has undergone colostomy surgery is experiencing constipation. which intervention should a nurse consider for such a client?
Encourage a minimum daily fluid intake of 2 L.
How much water—2 liters—should you consume each day?Eight 8-ounce glasses, which equates to around 2 liters or half a gallon, are the typical daily recommendation from health experts.This is covered by the easy-to-remember 88 rule.Some experts assert that you should continuously drink water throughout the day even though you might not be thirsty.
What effects do 2 liters of water each day have?Did you realize that consuming two liters of water daily helps your body eliminate toxins, provides you energy, and relieves fatigue?Keeping hydrated can provide you a wonderful boost of energy and mental clarity throughout the day.It also aids in the balance-regain of your kidneys.
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the nurse is completing a sleep history on a client who reports sleeping problems. which of the client's regular behaviors will cause the client to have difficulty with sleep?
Everyday use of a diuretic between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. A client who reports having trouble sleeping is having the nurse fill up a sleep history for them.
What prevents people from sleeping?
Numerous factors can contribute to chronic insomnia, including: Stress. It may be challenging to fall asleep at night because of worry about your family, job, health, income, or other issues. Traumatic or stressful life situations like divorce, losing your job, losing a loved one to illness or death can also cause insomnia.
Can sleep deprivation be treated?
It's crucial to have a strategy for catching up on lost sleep, whether it's because of a hard job schedule or a late night with family or friends. Fortunately, people can overcome addiction with a little perseverance and consistency.
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the nurse is teaching a woman how to use her basal body temperature (bbt) pattern as a tool to assist her in conceiving a child. which temperature pattern indicates the occurrence of ovulation, and therefore, the best time for intercourse to ensure conception?
The optimal period for sexual activity for assure pregnancy is between when the temperature drops and increases, which signifies the occurrence of ovulation.
How many hours does ovulation last?While ovulation typically can last for twelve to 24 hours, the six days prior to and following ovulation are when you have the highest chance of becoming pregnant. Continue reading to find out more about what occurs throughout this period of the menstrual and the causes of possible ovulation delays.
How many days do you ovulate?Around 12 to 14 days prior to the commencement of a new menstruation, you ovulate. The five days prior to ovulation, along with the day during ovulation and the morning following ovulation, are considered your fertile window.
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the staff educator is orientating a nurse new to the neurological icu when a patient with a t2 spinal cord injury is admitted. the patient is soon exhibiting manifestations of neurogenic shock. what sign or symptom is consistent with this diagnosis?
Hypotension is the sign or symptom is consistent with this diagnosis spinal cord injury.
Neurogenic shock is a potentially serious disorder that requires immediate attention. Low blood pressure, which results from the body's reduced blood flow, is one sign of neurogenic shock (hypotension). Blood pressure will decline as neurogenic shock develops.
Hypotension, bradyarrhythmia, and temperature dysregulation are all symptoms of peripheral vasodilatation after spinal cord injury. This leads to autonomic instability because the sympathetic tone suddenly drops while the parasympathetic system continues to operate normally. Neurogenic shock is a potentially serious disorder that requires immediate attention. Low blood pressure, which results from the body's reduced blood flow, is one sign of neurogenic shock (hypotension).
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a 22-year-old client is hard to awake after taking diazepam by mouth. it is suspected she overdosed on the medication. what are two (2) measure the nurse anticipates will take place to address the acute toxicity with diazepam.
After taking oral diazepam, a 22-year-old client is hard to wake. The nurse should anticipate these 2 measures to address diazepam acute toxicity:
IV antidote, by administering Flumazenil to counteract the effect.Oral action, by administering activated charcoal or saline cathartics.What are the signs of diazepam acute toxicity?When someone experiences acute diazepam toxicity, they will be more likely to fall into a deep sleep (that looks like a coma) while still breathing properly. The proper treatment for this situation, besides the two measures stated above, are:
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a pta monitors the vital signs of a patient during a graded exercise test. which finding serves as the best indicator that the patient exerted a maximal effort during the exercise test?
The patient's maximum effort during the exercise test was best demonstrated by a score of 186.
What level of exercise intensity is ideal?In a maximal exercise test, the workload is raised while the exercise intensity is maintained, enhancing the cardiopulmonary and metabolic response (heart rate, stroke volume, ventilation, oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production).
What happens to cardiac output when exercising to your maximum capacity?More blood is sent to the working skeletal muscles during exercise, and as body temperature rises, more blood is sent to the skin. This process is carried out by a combination of increased cardiac output and redistribution of blood flow away from low-demand regions like the splanchnic organs.
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an acsm-ep sacrificing his personal training time in order to train a client who needed to reschedule is an example of:
It is an example of servant leadership when an acsm-ep forgoes his personal training time to instruct a client who needed to reschedule.
What is an ACSM-EP what are his role?The abbreviation for ACSM is American College for Sports Medicine. ACSM-certified exercise physiologists promote training by conducting and interpreting physical fitness evaluations and creating exercise prescriptions for people who are healthy or have conditions that are under medical management, ACSM-certified exercise physiologists promote training.
To build effective and safe exercise and healthy lifestyle practices to improve health and quality of life, an ACSM-EP works with clients who appear to be in good health as well as those who have medically controlled conditions.
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which treatment could relieve the symptoms of an individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin?
Treatment with antivenom could relieve the symptoms of an individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin.
What type of antibodies do antivenom have ?Whole IgG or IgG fragments can be found in antivenom compositions. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is a common example of a complete antibody product. In contrast, antibody fragments are produced by breaking down whole IgG into Fab (monomeric binding) or F(ab')2 (dimeric binding).
Purified antibodies against venoms or venom components are known as antivenoms. Animals' antibodies against injected venoms are used to make antivenoms. Thus, the only effective remedy for bites from dangerous Australian snakes is antivenom.
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TRUE/FALSE. a rapid growth coupled with intake of dietary iron places toddlers, especially 9-18 months at the highest risk for iron deficiency
TRUE. Toddlers, particularly those aged 9 to 18 months, are most at risk for iron insufficiency due to fast development and dietary iron consumption.
Iron deficiency: how dangerous is it?Iron-deficiency anemia that goes undiagnosed or untreated can have major side effects like exhaustion, headaches, restless legs syndrome, heart issues, pregnancy troubles, and child developmental delays. Additionally, iron deficiency anemia can exacerbate other chronic illnesses or impair the effectiveness of their therapies.
How can my iron levels be swiftly increased?increasing the consumption of foods high in iron, such as lean meats, nuts, beans, lentils, dark green vegetables, and morning cereals with added iron. ingesting various heme and non-heme iron sources eating more vitamin C-rich foods like citrus fruits, peppers, tomatoes, and broccoli at meals
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From its earliest inception as a primarily compliance-type function, human resource management has further expanded and evolved into its current state as a key driver of human capital development.
True
True, Human resource management has increased and changed over time from its original status as essentially a compliance-type role to its current position as a crucial factor in the development of human capital.
Although this administrative aspect of HR still exists today, it is frequently carried out differently thanks to technology and outsourcing options. The effectiveness of HR's capacity to manage administrative procedures and resolve administrative difficulties contributed to the value of HR services & HR's trustworthiness.
Wave 2 concentrated on the creation of cutting-edge HR practice areas like sourcing, learning, communication, and pay. To develop a unified perspective on human resource management, the HR specialists in several practice areas started collaborating and exchanging ideas. Delivering best-practice HR solutions was what gave HR credibility in Wave 2.
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a client who is in the second trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse that she wants to use herbal therapy. which response is best for the nurse to provide?
The best response for nurse is Option C : Clients must be considered as a whole, the client is empowered as a vital member of the medical team by acknowledging the importance they placed on complementary and alternative therapies, such as herbal therapy.
What are the uses of herbal therapy ?Among other ailments, herbal medicine is used to treat allergies, asthma, eczema, premenstrual syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, fibromyalgia, migraine, menopausal symptoms, chronic fatigue, and cancer.
Ginger (Zingiber officinale), garlic (Allium sativum), green tea (Camellia sinensis), peppermint (Mentha piperita), and fenugreek (Trigonella foenum graecum) are the herbal treatments that pregnant women around the world use the most frequently.
As in ;pregnancy there are chances of complications intake of herbal things are going to prevent the above things.
The use of herbal medicine dates back to early civilizations. It entails the use of plants as medicines to cure illness and improve people's overall health and wellness.
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the nurse is performing a newborn assessment. findings reveal a caput succedaneum. what should the nurse do?
Answer:
Reassure the family that it should resolve within the first few days of life.
Explanation:
ems brings a patient who fell while riding his bicycle. using the american college of surgeons screening guidelines, which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to prepare the patient for radiologic spine clearance?
The nurse would prep the patient to radiologic spine clearance if the patient had an odor of alcohol on their breath during assessment.
What is a radiology scan for?Diagnostics radiography's main goals include the detection and monitoring of illnesses, skeletal or soft tissue abnormalities, and injuries. A variety of methods are employed by radiographers, such as X-rays, which are used to look past tissue and examine bones, cavities, and foreign objects.
What are the five types of radiology?Regarding the images it collects, the tools it employs, and the conditions it aids radiologists in diagnosing, each modality is distinct. Read further about our five most popular imaging modalities, including X-ray, CT, MRI, ultrasonography, or PET.
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which provision of the patient protection and affordable care act allows a 30-year-old law student with type i diabetes to get affordable health insurance?
Provision of the patient protection and affordable care act that allows a 30-year-old law student with type 1 diabetes to get affordable health insurance : Insurance companies are required to cover preexisting conditions.
What is Protection and Affordable Care Act?The law provides number of rights and protections that makes health coverage fair and easy to understand, along with subsidies to make it more affordable. The law also includes the Medicaid program to cover more people with low incomes.
The patient protection and affordable care act was an act proposed by the Obama administration to expand healthcare coverage and access to all American while improving quality and reducing costs.
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A client who was brought to the emergency room for gunshot wounds dies in intensive care 15 hours later. Which statement concerning the need for an autopsy would apply to this client?The coroner must be notified to determine the need of an autopsy
The statement concerning the need for an autopsy that would apply to this patient, who was brought to the emergency room due to gunshot wounds and died in intensive care 15 hours later, is "The coroner must be notified to determine the need for an autopsy". The correct answer is B.
Why would an autopsy be required on a body?A comprehensive autopsy examination can assist in discovering details important for identifying the manner of death and providing information that may be required in court. For the condition in the question, to decide if an autopsy is required, the coroner must be informed. The Coroner's Service investigates deaths that are unusual, unexpected, unexplained, or neglected. Coroners determine the deceased's identification and the cause of death. The cause of death is classified as natural, murder, accidental, su?cide, or undetermined.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. The closest surviving family member should be consulted to determine whether an autopsy should be performed.B. The coroner must be notified to determine the need for an autopsy.C. The health care provider should be present to prepare the patient for an autopsyD. An autopsy should not be performed because the nature of death has been established.The correct answer is B.
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when teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of raynaud disease, which information will the nurse include? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
I really shouldn't smoke. When exposed to cold temperatures or under stress, the distal extremities might become numb and cool due to a malfunction of the blood arteries that give blood to the skin.
What causes Raynaud's illness primarily?
The common causes of Raynaud's are chilly weather, stress, and worry. Your blood vessels experience a brief spasm that prevents blood flow, which causes the disease. As the bloodflow resumes, the afflicted area transforms from white to blue to crimson as a result.
What symptoms are present in Raynaud's disease?
The issue of Raynaud's phenomenon results in less blood flowing to the fingers. In some instances, it also results in decreased blood supply to the nipples, toes, and ears.
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the nurse knows that interferon agents are used in association with chemotherapy to produce which effects in the client?
By decreasing the duration of neutropenia by bone marrow stimulation, interferon medicines are a form of biologic response modifiers that are used in conjunction with chemotherapy to lower the risk of infection.
In which oncologic emergency does fluid buildup in the pericardial cavity occur?The buildup of fluid around the heart muscle, known as cardiac tamponade, puts too much pressure on the structure. Blood or fluid accumulates between the heart and the sac that surrounds the heart in sufferers of cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade. The pericardium is the term for this sac.
Which class of anti-cancer drugs is particular to the cell cycle?Antimetabolites are particular to the cell cycle. Antimetabolites act primarily on cells producing new cells, hence they are most effective during the S-phase of cell division.
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the nurse is teaching a postmenopausal client about strategies to prevent the development of osteoporosis. on which topic should the nurse focus as primary prevention for the disorder?
The nurse's focus as primary prevention for the disorder is increasing calcium and vitamin D in the diet.
Why should calcium and vitamin D intake be taken care of during post-menopause?
The major means of preventing osteoporosis is to maintain a healthy . Although oestrogen replacement therapy can lower the incidence of osteoporosis, it can also raise the risk of some malignancies, therefore it shouldn't be used as a primary preventative measure. Only if cardiovascular exercise includes weight-bearing activities, such walking or jogging, can it directly aid in the prevention of osteoporosis. Instead of preventing osteoporosis, a lower body mass index (weight under 125 pounds for women of average height) increases the risk of acquiring it.
Hence, the answer is increasing calcium and vitamin D in the diet.
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when taking a health history of a 5-year-old boy who recently was found to have type 1 diabetes, the nurse would anticipate which reaction from the child?
When caring for a child with type 1 diabetes, the nurse should be aware that because the patient is still a child and unable to care for himself, it is best to help the child administer the medication. Children are sensitive in situations involving medical treatment, so it is best to control the child and make sure to be gentle when administering treatment.
How does type 1 diabetes affect the body's response?When a person has type 1 diabetes, the pancreas, a small gland located behind the stomach, gradually stops producing any insulin at all. Insulin is the hormone that controls blood glucose levels. When blood glucose levels are too high, the body's organs may suffer serious long-term damage.
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a client with addison's disease is scheduled for discharge after being hospitalized for an adrenal crisis. which statements by the client indicate that client teaching has been effective? select all that apply.
A client with addison's disease is scheduled for discharge after being hospitalized for an adrenal crisis. The client’s statements are-
"I need to call my doctor to discuss my steroid needs before I have dental work."
"I will call the doctor if I suddenly feel profoundly weak or dizzy."
"I need to obtain and wear a Medic Alert bracelet."
What is addison’s disease?
When your body doesn't create enough of one or more hormones, it can develop an uncommon disorder called adrenal insufficiency, often known as Addison's disease. Your adrenal glands, which are right above your kidneys, often produce too little aldosterone and too little cortisol when you have Addison's disease.
The potentially fatal Addison's disease can affect persons of any sex and of any age. Taking hormones to make up for those that are absent is one element of the treatment.
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your doctor/prescriber has entered your negative pregnancy test result and your two methods of birth control into the ipledge program system and gives you a prescription. before you can obtain isotretinoin at a pharmacy you must:
The IUD isotretinoin and implant are the most convenient and reliable forms of birth control, as well as the most effective in preventing pregnancy. The pill, ring, patch, and injection are other excellent birth control options for avoiding pregnancy.
two main contraceptives and one additional, supplementary contraceptive. Common isotretinoin primary birth control methods for transmasculine and non-binary people on testosterone isotretinoin can include an IUD, Depo-Provera injections, or Nexplanon implants. By reducing the size of the birth control sebaceous glands in the skin, works. It is the sebaceous glands' job to produce sebum.
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a client is admitted to the hospital with ascites. the client reports drinking a fifth (750 ml) of vodka mixed in orange juice every day for the past 3 months. to assess the potential for withdrawal symptoms, which question is important for the nurse to ask the client?
Answer:
Terms in this set (11)
A client is admitted with the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which clinical manifestations would the nurse assess in the client? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
1
after a theoretical session about edrophonium (tensilon) testing, the nurse educator asks a staff nurse to select a client from a group with different neurological disorders on which to perform the test. which client is the nurse expected to select?
A client with myasthenia gravis is the client the nurse should select.
Myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune, neuromuscular condition that becomes worse after periods of effort and gets better after periods of rest, is characterized by skeletal muscle weakening. These muscles control breathing as well as the movement of many bodily parts, such as the arms and legs.
With the aid of medication, the majority of myasthenia gravis patients can lead reasonably normal lives. The goal of MG treatments is to decrease symptoms.
For more than half of patients, eye issues are among the first symptoms and signs of myasthenia gravis, including: drooping of one or both eyelids. When one eye is closed, diplopia, which can be horizontal or vertical, gets better or goes away.
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m.k. has a colonoscopy, which is normal, with no signs of disease or inflammation. he continues to have frequent abdominal pain and diarrhea and a 5-lb weight loss over the next 2 weeks. the health care provider then orders a capsule endoscopy. what is the rationale behind ordering a capsule endoscopy?
Because ulcerative colitis usually starts in the rectum and spreads in a continuous pattern up the colon, and the colonoscopy showed no signs of inflammation in the rectum and colon, the healthcare provider suspects M.K. has Crohn’s disease.
Although Crohn’s disease can occur anywhere in the GI tract, the most frequent site is the terminal ileum, and the only diagnostic exam available to view the inner mucosa of the terminal ileum is a capsule endoscopy.
What is Crohn's disease?
A chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the lining of the digestive tract. There is still no recognized cause for Crohn's disease. Diet and stress were once thought to be contributing factors to Crohn's disease, but today's medical community is aware that these factors only serve to exacerbate the condition. A persistent condition called Crohn's disease results in inflammation of the digestive system. Any portion of your digestive system, which extends from your mouth to your anus, may be impacted. However, your small intestine and the start of your large intestine are typically impacted. An inflammatory bowel condition is called Crohn's disease (IBD).
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the nurse is preparing a client with a term pregnancy who is in active labor for an amniotomy. what equipment should the nurse have available at the client's bedside? (select all that apply.)
The equipment that the nurse should have available at the client's bedside include the following: a sterile glove, An amniotic hook and A Doppler. That is option C, D and F respectively.
What is amniotomy?Amniotomy is defined as the procedure which is carried out by the nurse midwife or a gynaecologist that involves the intentional rupture of the amniotic sac.
The importance of amniotomy include the following:
to speed up your labor and to encourage dilation of the cervix.The equipments that should be kept available at the patient's bedside include the following:
A sterile glove: This is used by the nurse midwife to protect herself from the amniotic fluid or blood from the mother and to maintain an aseptic technique during the child delivery process.An amniotic hook: This is an equipment that looks like a crotchet pin which is used by the nurse to break the amniotic membrane.A Doppler: This is used to check the sound waves of the child's heart beat after the rupture of the membrane.Learn more about pregnancy here:
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Complete question:
The nurse is preparing a client with a term pregnancy who is in active labor for an amniotomy. What equipment should the nurse have available at the client's bedside? (Select all that apply.)
A. Litmus paper.
B. Fetal scalp electrode.
C. A sterile glove.
D. An amniotic hook.
E. Sterile vaginal speculum.
F. A Doppler.