The number 3.07 × 10 -4 written in standard form is _____.

300,700
0.00307
30,700
0.000307

Answer:

gradient = - 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculate the gradient (slope) m using the slope formula

m = [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }[/tex]

with (x₁, y₁ ) = (- 2, 5) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (- 1, 0) ← 2 points on the line

m = [tex]\frac{0-5}{-1+2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{-5}{1}[/tex] = - 5

Answer:

Kayla is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

For a vertical line, the x-value is the same

This means there is no change in the x value

A slope is calculated by dividing by the change in x value

since in this case , we will be dividing by zero, it means that the value of our slope is going to be undefined

This means that Kayla is correct

Answer:

do u have to find the pattern?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\sqrt\frac{2+\sqrt{2}}{2-\sqrt{2}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

correct on edge2020

The required exact value of tan(67.5°) is -2 + √(2).

If you know the lengths of two sides of a right triangle, you can use trigonometric ratios to calculate the measures of one (or both) of the acute angles.

Here,
The exact value of tan(67.5°) can be found using the half-angle identity for the tangent, which states that:

tan(x/2) = (1 - cos(x)) / sin(x)

We can use this identity with x = 135 degrees since 67.5 degrees is half of 135 degrees. So:

tan(67.5°) = tan(135°/2) = (1 - cos(135°)) / sin(135°)

We can then use the following exact values:

cos(135°) = -√(2)/2

sin(135°) = -√(2)/2

Substituting these values, we get:

tan(67.5°) = (1 + √(2)/2) / (-√(2)/2)

Rationalizing the denominator, we get:

tan(67.5°) = -2 + √(2)

Therefore, the exact value of tan(67.5°) is -2 + √(2).

Learn more about trig ratios here:

https://brainly.com/question/14977354

#SPJ6

Answer:

what have we nothing to go buy

Answer:

y=(-4/3)x+2

Step-by-step explanation:

we have two points (3,-2) and (0,2)  given from the statement

the equation of the lines is:

y=mx+b

m=slope

m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

m=(2-(-2))/(0-3)

so we have the slope is

m=4/-3  =-4/3  =-1.3333

we need to find "b"

using the point (0,2)

we have :

2=m*0+b

2=b

finally, we have  

the answer is y=(-4/3)x+2

Answer:

[tex]26x^6y^4[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

the volume is like

[tex]V = length\cdot width\cdot depth[/tex]

so we have

[tex]V= 4yx^5\cdot 3xy\cdot 2y^2\\\\V=(4\cdot 3\cdot 2)(y\cdot y \cdot y^2)(x^5 \cdot x)\\\\V = 24(y^4)(x^6)\\\\V=24x^6y^4[/tex]

Answer:

D= distance covered by amount (g) gallons

D=23g

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

£450

Step-by-step explanation:

12%=£54

100%=?

we will criss cross it then 12%×?=100%×£54÷12

=£450

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

I picked 2. Then got 4. Then 8. Then 9. Then 81. Then 79.(i dont know if this is right)

Answer:

400:2500 , 40:250 ,and 4:25

Answer:

There's 9 nickels and no dimes

Step-by-step explanation:

the quarters equal $2.25

so there is at least 9 nickel's witch equals .45 cents add them and get $2.70 so

The system of equations to find the number of quarters, 9, dim, d, and nickels, n, that Gabby has are;

Since, the total value of quarters, dim, and nicke is; $2.70.

Since the number of nickels that she has is equal to the number of quarters plus the number of dimes; we have;

Since, Gabby has 20 coins in her pocket.

Therefore 2n = 20 from n = q + d

Read more on system of equations:

https://brainly.com/question/20978003

Answer:    3/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Fist find  out how many whites are there and divide it by the total to find the probability.

9/15   simplify it to  3/5

Answer:

We can apply the straight-line method to solve for the value of the computer every year.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step one:

What is depreciation?

It can be defined as the loss of value of a commodity.

In this problem, the percent depreciation is given as 20% which means that 20% of the worth of the computer is lost every year.

We are told that the computer cost is $1000

let the number of years taken for the computer to depreciate be x

Step two:

Say we want to find the value of the computer after 1 year, the value of the computer will be

Value of computer= 1000-20/100*1000

Value of computer= 1000-0.2*1000

Value of computer= 1000-200

Value of computer= $800

Step three:

For the second year, the value will be

Value of computer= 800-20/100*800

Value of computer= 800-0.2*800

Value of computer= 800-160

Value of computer= $640

Answer:

This situation represents exponential decay. The rate of growth or decay, r, is equal to 0.2. So the value of the computer each year is 80% of the value in the previous year. It will take 3 years for the value of the computer to reach $512.

Step-by-step explanation:

PLATOOOOOO

Answer:

The question is written kinda bad, so i take the next two assumptions:

The original line is:

y = 5*x + 23

And we want to find a perpendicular line that passes through the point (-40, 2012)

Suppose that we have a linear equation:

y = a*x + b

A perpendicular line to this one, will have a slope equal to -(1/a)

Then a random perpendicular line to the one above, is:

y = -(1/a)*x + c

In this case, we start with the line:

y = 5*x + 23

Then the family of perpendicular lines to this one, will be like:

y = (-1/5)*x + c

Where c can be any real number.

Now, we also want this line to pass through (-40, 2012)

This means that when x = -40, the value of y must be 2012

We could replace these values in our equation above and solve it for c.

2012 = -(1/5)*(-40) + c

2012 = 40/5 + c

2012 = 8 + c

2012 - 8 = c = 2004

Then the equation is:

y = -(1/5)*x + 2004.

Answer:

90

Step-by-step explanation:

you add 15 each time

75+15=90

Answer:

105

Step-by-step explanation:

sequence number x 3 = S1

S1 x 5 = S2

21 x 5 = 105

Answer:

2 events are described.

Step-by-step explanation:

Because only three types of cones and 31 flavours of ice cream.

Answer:

its C. im doing test to i saw different page

Step-by-step explanation:

diff pge

Answer:

C. x = 50

Step-by-step explanation:

Isolate the variable by dividing each side by factors that don't contain the variable.

its 12.0

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

BD = 12.1 (nearest tenth)

Step-by-step explanation:

∆ABC is an isosceles triangle, since it has two equal sides, AB and BC. Also, this means that <BAD and <BCD = 60° each.

BD divides ∆ABC into two equal parts.

Apply trigonometric ratio to find BD.

Reference angle = <BAD = 60°

Adjacent = AD = 7

Opposite = BD

Thus, we would have:

tan 60 = opp/adj

Tan 60 = BD/7

7*Tan 60 = BD

12.1 = BD

BD = 12.1 (nearest tenth)

Answer:

there are a total of 20 boys and 30 girls in the choir of 50 students

Step-by-step explanation:

Scale the ratio 2:3. so that the numbers on either side sum to 50 . 2+3=5 , and 50÷5=10 , so we scale our ratio by a factor of 10 . So there are a total of 20 boys and 30 girls in the choir of 50 students

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you want to find the unit rate, or how much Han earns per hour

You can do this by setting up an equation

x= amount earned per hour

4x= 33          Initial equation

4x/4 = 33/4   Isolating the variable

x = 33/4 = 8 1/4 = 8.25    The unit rate

Now you want to set up a new equation to find out how much he makes for 7 hours

x= amount earned per hour

y = total amount earned

y = 7x    Initial equation

y = 7 ( 8.25)   Substitution

y = 57.75  The answer

Han earns $57.75 for every 7 hours

Checking the answer....

y = 7x

57.75 = 7x    Substitute y instead

57.75/7 = 7x/7

8.25 = x

Your answer should be correct

Hope this helps!!!

Answer:

207.7175

Step-by-step explanation:

take the 830.87 and divide it by 4 to see how much is made in 1 day. thats the average.

Answer:

(15+3)/6= the input

18/6= 3

since the output is three less than 6x the input, you need to add three. and if the output is 6 times the input after adding three, you have to divide by 6 to find out what the input originally was. you can check it by doing:

6*3= 18

and 18-3= 15 so it checks out.

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps :)

Answer: it’s point c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer C

Answer:A

Step-by-step explanation:

you just told me but thanks for the points message me if you need more answers

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Complementary angles sum to 90°

∠ CBA = 31° and ∠ BAC = 59° , sum to 90° (31° + 59° = 90° )

Thus

∠ A and ∠ B are complementary angles

Answer: They are complementary

Step-by-step explanation: took the test on edge!

Answer:

Could you retake the photo plz so i can see the full question and answer choices

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of picking a chocolate chip cookie is 1/3.

Probability is the chance of occurrence of a certain event out of the total no. of events that can occur in a given context.

Given, A box contains 5 chocolate chip cookies, 4 sugar, and 6 oatmeal raisin.

N represents no. of.

So, N(S) = 5 + 4 + 6 = 15.

N(CC) = 5, N(SR) = 4 and N(OR) = 6.

∴  The probability of picking a chocolate chip cookie is = N(CC)/N(S).

= 5/15.

= 1/3.

learn more about probability here :

https://brainly.com/question/743546

#SPJ2