The statement that is NOT correct regarding the groups of the USDA Food Patterns is:O foods to limit are French fries, potato salad, refried beans, canned or frozen fruit in syrup, biscuits, cakes, fried rice, sausages, fried meat, ground beef, ice cream, cottage cheese.
This statement is not accurate because it does not specify the food group it is referring to. The provided list of foods encompasses multiple food groups and does not exclusively relate to a single group mentioned in the options.
The other statements correctly identify the notable nutrients and recommended amounts for the respective food groups. The first statement highlights essential fatty acids, B vitamins, iron, magnesium, potassium, and zinc as notable nutrients in the protein foods group, with a recommended intake of about 5 1/2 ounces of lean protein per day. The second statement mentions vitamins A and C, potassium, and fiber as notable nutrients in the vegetable group, with a recommended intake of 5 cups of vegetables daily. The third statement identifies folate, B vitamins, fiber, magnesium, and iron as notable nutrients in the grains group, with a recommended intake of at least 6 ounces per day.
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what type of delivery system uses skin absorption to provide a constant, even flow of a drug over a long period of time?
The type of delivery system that uses skin absorption to provide a constant, even flow of a drug over a long period of time is called a transdermal delivery system or transdermal patch.
Transdermal patches are designed to deliver medication through the skin and into the bloodstream at a controlled rate. The drug is formulated in the patch, which is applied to the skin and allows for the slow release of the medication over an extended period. This delivery system offers convenience and avoids the need for frequent dosing, providing a continuous and sustained drug delivery.
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Aged Care Facility workplace safty action plan
This part requires you to develop action plans as part of managing work health and safety.
Specifically, you will be required to develop an action plan for the following:
▪ Risk management
▪ Identifying work health and safety training needs
▪ Record-keeping for work health and safety.
Each action plan you develop must include:
▪ Step-by-step procedures or strategies
▪ Consultation
▪ Ownership (who is responsible for implementing and monitoring policies and procedures)
▪ Monitoring and review processes of the action plan.
3) In completing the form:
a. Provide the date when the safety action plan was created.
b. Provide specific, step-by-step process on how to complete ALL tasks and activities based on the area/standard indicated.
c. Provide the date(s) of when the owners of the tasks will be able to complete the actions.
d. Provide other details relevant to the completion of these tasks and activities, where required. (e.g. how consultation was done to come up with safety action plan).
1. Listed in this Safety Action Plan are health and safety areas that include procedures that prompt action and aim to facilitate compliance and improve the standards of work health and safety.
2. You must read each part of the template carefully and identify what actions need to be established and implemented to improve the WHS standards, as well as identify the people responsible for implementing these actions and the date when they are expected to be completed
Health and safety areas and procedures ACTION PLAN Agreed Actions Clearly and Owner(s) concisely, state Target Date what needs to Must be completion Completed raised be done and people and date Date what needs to their roles be established and implemented Responsibilities • Policy Job descriptions of each role in the organisation • Accountability Consultation • Health and safety committees • Meetings • Memos Identify hazards/risks • Identification method • All processes • Frequency Assess risks • Initial risk assessment • Reassessment Control risks • Control hierarchy • Review effectiveness Information, instruction and training • Relevant WHS information • Induction training • Initial training f + :) Information, instruction and training • Relevant WHS information • Induction training • Initial training • Refresher training Managing injuries . First aid assessment • Injury reporting method . Compensation process • Rehabilitation process Record keeping • Availability • Electronic back- up • Archives and retrieval Review/improvement • Audits • Implement improvements .
As part of managing work health and safety, an action plan needs to be developed for risk management, identifying work health and safety training needs, and record-keeping. Each action plan should include step-by-step procedures, consultation, ownership, and monitoring.
It is important for an aged care facility to manage work health and safety by developing action plans for risk management, identifying work health and safety training needs, and record-keeping. To do so, each action plan should include step-by-step procedures or strategies, consultation, ownership, and monitoring and review processes. The action plan must state clearly what needs to be done, and by whom and when it should be completed.
For instance, policy job descriptions of each role in the organization should be established, and accountability consultation meetings should be held. Hazards/risks should be identified using the identification method, and initial and reassessment should be done to assess risks. All control hierarchy should be monitored and reviewed. Finally, audits should be conducted regularly to improve the standards of work health and safety.
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Coronary heart disease (CHD) is the leading cause of mortality among males 45 to 64 years of age in the United States. The major clinical manifestation of CHD is a myocardial infarction, but pre-clinical disease can be detected by an "exercise stress test." Major risk factors for CHD include a diet high in cholesterol, lack of exercise, and smoking. The U.S. Surgeon General has devised a "National strategy to control CHD" with the following components.
Label each component as a primary, secondary, or tertiary prevention component.
Provide increased funding to support Emergency Cardio-Resuscitation Teams across the nation.
Underscore the need to provide all communities in the U.S. with hospitals equipped with state-of-the-art Coronary Intensive Units.
Commission the National Institutes of Health (NIH) to produce a detailed "Guide to Exercise for Healthy Living."
Allocate funds to develop equipment and refine the methodology of the "Exercise Stress Test" so it can be a more effective tool for the diagnosis of early-stage disease.
Commission the American Medical Association to produce clinical guidelines aimed at standardizing recommendations given to survivors of myocardial infarction to expedite their return to normal activity.
Underscore the need to prescribe cholesterol-lowering drugs to all asymptomatic patients who have a positive stress test.
1. Increased funding for Emergency Cardio-Resuscitation Teams: Tertiary prevention component.
2. Hospitals equipped with state-of-the-art Coronary Intensive Units: Tertiary prevention component.
3. "Guide to Exercise for Healthy Living" produced by the NIH: Primary prevention component.
4. Funding for equipment development and methodology refinement of the "Exercise Stress Test": Secondary prevention component.
5. Clinical guidelines by the American Medical Association for survivors of myocardial infarction: Secondary prevention component.
6. Prescribing cholesterol-lowering drugs to asymptomatic patients with a positive stress test: Secondary prevention component.
1. This component focuses on improving emergency medical response and treatment for individuals who have already experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) or other cardiac events. It aims to reduce the severity and complications of CHD by providing timely and effective emergency care.
2. This component emphasizes the importance of having specialized cardiac care units in hospitals. These units are equipped with advanced medical technologies and staffed by specialized healthcare professionals to provide intensive care to individuals with CHD, particularly those experiencing acute cardiac events.
3. This component focuses on promoting a healthy lifestyle and preventing the development of CHD. The guide provides information and recommendations on exercise and physical activity to encourage individuals to adopt regular exercise habits, which can help reduce the risk of developing CHD.
4. This component aims to improve the diagnostic capabilities of the "Exercise Stress Test" to detect pre-clinical stages of CHD. By allocating funds for equipment development and methodology refinement, it enhances the effectiveness of the test in identifying early signs of the disease, allowing for early intervention and treatment.
5. This component focuses on improving the post-MI care and rehabilitation of individuals who have already experienced a myocardial infarction. By producing clinical guidelines, it standardizes recommendations given to survivors, ensuring that they receive appropriate care, follow-up, and support to expedite their recovery and return to normal activity.
6. This component targets individuals who have tested positive for early-stage disease through the "Exercise Stress Test" but may not yet exhibit symptoms of CHD. By prescribing cholesterol-lowering drugs, it aims to reduce cholesterol levels and mitigate the progression of the disease, thereby preventing or delaying the onset of symptomatic CHD.
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Discuss a sudden complication of pregnancy that places a
pregnant woman and her fetus at high risk.
One sudden complication of pregnancy that can place a pregnant woman and her fetus at high risk is preeclampsia.
Preeclampsia is a disorder characterized by high blood pressure (hypertension) and signs of damage to organs, typically the liver and kidneys, after the 20th week of pregnancy. It is a serious condition that requires medical attention as it can have severe consequences for both the mother and the baby.
Preeclampsia can develop suddenly and progress rapidly, making it a potentially life-threatening condition. Some of the signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include high blood pressure, swelling (edema) particularly in the hands and face, sudden weight gain, severe headaches, vision changes (such as blurred vision or seeing spots), abdominal pain, and decreased urine output.
The exact cause of preeclampsia is unknown, but it is believed to be related to problems with the placenta, the organ that provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus. Preeclampsia can restrict blood flow to the placenta, leading to inadequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the baby, growth restriction, and potentially premature birth.
If left untreated, preeclampsia can progress to a more severe form called eclampsia, which involves seizures and can be life-threatening for both the mother and the baby. Other complications associated with preeclampsia include placental abruption (detachment of the placenta from the uterus), organ damage (such as liver or kidney failure), and an increased risk of cardiovascular disease for the mother in the long term.
Managing preeclampsia involves close monitoring of blood pressure and fetal well-being, as well as potential interventions such as medication to lower blood pressure, bed rest, and early delivery if the condition becomes severe. Regular prenatal care and early detection of any signs or symptoms of preeclampsia are crucial in identifying and managing this complication.
In conclusion, preeclampsia is a sudden and potentially dangerous complication of pregnancy that places both the pregnant woman and her fetus at high risk. Timely recognition, close monitoring, and appropriate medical interventions are essential in managing this condition and minimizing the potential adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
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A client presents to the emergency department with fever, chills, abdominal cramping, and watery diarrhea with mucous and blood. After a CT of the abdomen, Ulcerative Colitis is diagnosed, and the patient is admitted to the hospital. The doctor orders IV antibiotics, pain medication, and IV fluids.
Sodium 139 mmol/L (Within normal limits)
Potassium 3.4 mmol/L (Low) Normal range 3.5 - 5 mmol/L
Chloride 97 mmol/L (Within normal limits)
White Blood Cells 19,280 (High) Normal range 4,500 to 11,000
Red Blood Cells 4.79 10*6/uL (Within normal limits)
Day 2
The patient continues to experience fever, chills, abdominal cramping, and watery diarrhea x 15 episodes per day. A regular diet is ordered. The patient consumes 0-25% per meal. IV antibiotics and fluids continue. IV potassium is ordered three times daily. Medications for pain as needed continue.
Potassium 3.2 mmol/L (Low) Normal range 3.5 - 5 mmol/L
Day 3
The patient continues to experience abdominal cramping and watery diarrhea x 15 episodes per day. Fever and chills are intermittent. Oral diet 0-25% consumed. IV antibiotics, fluids, and potassium continue. Pain medication as needed. Oral potassium was added.
Potassium 2.9 mmol/L (Low) Normal range 3.5 - 5 mmol/L
Answer Questions 1-4
Explain ulcerative colitis (etiology and symptoms) and which labs/symptoms are consistent with the diagnosis.
Why is a regular diet not appropriate for the diagnosis/symptoms? What is an appropriate diet order?
Why does the potassium continue to fall despite the patient receiving IV potassium? Explain your answer. (If you are struggling with this, look back in module 3 to determine why a person might be deficient and then look at the symptoms the patient is experiencing).
What concerns might the nurse have, and how would they address those?
Day 4
Pain with cramping continues. Diarrhea decreases to 8-10 episodes per day. New medications for colitis are ordered: Biaxin (antibiotic) and Bentyl (decreases GI cramping). Oral diet 25% consumed.
Potassium 3.9 mmol/L (within normal limits)
Later in the day, the patient developed large swelling on the lips and raised red blotches with itchiness on the extremities.
5. What are these new symptoms likely due to? How should the nurse respond?
Criteria Explain ulcerative colitis etiology and symptoms related to the case study. Accurately explains why a regular diet is inappropriate and correctly identifies an appropriate diet. Accurately explains why serum potassium continues to drop despite the IV potassium being administered. Explains concerns the nurse would have and how those would be addressed. identifies what the likely cause is for the new symptoms and how the nurse would
1. Ulcerative Colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that results in chronic inflammation and ulcers in the colon and rectum. Its etiology is unknown but thought to be related to environmental, genetic, and immunological factors.
Symptoms include abdominal cramping, watery diarrhea, fever, chills, blood in stool, and weight loss. The white blood cell count is also high in patients with ulcerative colitis.2. A regular diet is not appropriate because it may irritate the inflamed colon and lead to more diarrhea. An appropriate diet order would be a low-fiber diet consisting of soft, easily digestible foods such as cooked fruits and vegetables, white bread, and lean meats.3. The patient's potassium levels continue to fall despite receiving IV potassium because diarrhea leads to excessive loss of potassium in the stool. The patient is experiencing watery diarrhea x 15 episodes per day, which is a lot and can result in a decrease in serum potassium levels.4. The nurse may be concerned about the patient's electrolyte imbalances and fluid volume status. The nurse would address these concerns by monitoring the patient's daily weight, urine output, and electrolyte levels.
They may also educate the patient on the importance of maintaining adequate fluid and electrolyte intake.5. The new symptoms of large swelling on the lips and raised red blotches with itchiness on the extremities are likely due to an allergic reaction to one of the new medications, Biaxin or Bentyl. The nurse should immediately stop the medication and notify the healthcare provider of the allergic reaction. They should also administer antihistamines and monitor the patient's airway and vital signs for any signs of anaphylaxis.
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a nurse assesses a client admitted to the cardiac unit. which statement by the client alerts the nurse to the possibility of right-sided heart failure?
Here's one statement that can alert a nurse to the possibility of right-sided heart failure: "I'm so tired, and I feel like I can't get enough air.
Right-sided heart failure is a cardiovascular problem. It occurs when the right side of your heart can't pump enough blood to meet the body's requirements.
Right-sided heart failure can be suggested by different statements made by a client admitted to the cardiac unit.
'Here's one statement that can alert a nurse to the possibility of right-sided heart failure: "I'm so tired, and I feel like I can't get enough air."
Right-sided heart failure happens when the right ventricle of the heart isn't functioning correctly.
The right ventricle is responsible for pumping blood into the lungs to oxygenate it, but when it can't do this, blood gets trapped in other parts of the body.
One result of this is a feeling of breathlessness and fatigue, as the oxygen is not reaching where it needs to.
Other symptoms of right-sided heart failure include:
Weight gainSwollen ankles, feet, and legsRapid heartbeat or heart palpitationsAbdominal bloatingReduced urination.To know more about heart visit:
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A new enthusiastic pathophysiologist working in a lab consistently incorrectly diagnoses patients who are negative for cervical cancer as being positive. This is an example of: A. Selection Bias B. Recall Bias C. Non-Differential Misclassification bias D. Differential Misclassification bias
The correct option is "D. Differential Misclassification bias."
In epidemiology, bias can be defined as any systematic error that leads to an incorrect estimate of the association between exposure and disease.
Classification bias can occur when there is incorrect measurement or assignment of disease or exposure status.
The differential misclassification bias happens when the error in exposure or disease measurement is different for cases and controls.
For example, in a study on cervical cancer, if pathologists consistently misclassify cases as controls, the result will underestimate the association between cervical cancer and smoking, leading to false-negative results.
If pathologists consistently misclassify controls as cases, then the association between cervical cancer and smoking is exaggerated, leading to false-positive results.
Since the enthusiastic pathophysiologist is consistently making mistakes while diagnosing the patients who are negative for cervical cancer as being positive, this is an example of differential misclassification bias.
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The difference between somatoform disorders and factitious disorders is that: Select one: a. In somatoform disorders the physical symptoms are real, in factitious disorders the physical symptoms are not real b. Somatoform disorders are caused by environmental factors, factitious disorders are caused by genetic factors c. Somatoform disorders only happen to men, factitious disorders only happen to women d. Somatoform disorders involve cognition, factitious disorders involve emotion 8. The difference between somatoform disorders and factitious disorders is that: Select one: a. In somatoform disorders the physical symptoms are real, in factitious disorders the physical symptoms are not real. b. Somatoform disorders are caused by environmental factors, factitious disorders are caused by genetic factors. c. Somatoform disorders only happen to men, factitious disorders only happen to women. d. Somatoform disorders involve cognition, factitious disorders involve emotion.
The statement "In somatoform disorders the physical symptoms are real, in factitious disorders the physical symptoms are not real" differentiates between somatoform disorders and factitious disorders.
What are somatoform disorders and factitious disorders?Somatoform disorders and factitious disorders both pertain to mental disorders manifesting with bodily manifestations. Nevertheless, distinct nuances set them apart.
Somatoform disorders manifest as physical symptoms triggered by psychological factors, including stress or anxiety. These symptoms may mimic those of legitimate medical conditions, yet lack any discernible underlying physiological cause.
Factitious disorders, on the other hand, involve the deliberate fabrication or simulation of physical or psychological symptoms with the motive of assuming the role of a sick individual. Those with factitious disorders may resort to extreme measures, such as self-inflicted harm or drug ingestion, to induce the desired symptoms.
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what is a strategy that can be used by a small community hospital with limited resources to develop an evidence-based nursing practice program?what is a strategy that can be used by a small community hospital with limited resources to develop an evidence-based nursing practice program?
One strategy that can be used by a small community hospital with limited resources to develop an evidence-based nursing practice program is to establish partnerships with local academic institutions and research organizations.
By partnering with academic institutions and research organizations, the hospital can leverage their expertise and resources in evidence-based practice. This collaboration can involve sharing knowledge, accessing research publications, and engaging in joint research projects. Additionally, academic institutions can provide opportunities for continuing education and training for nursing staff, ensuring they are equipped with the latest evidence-based practices.
Another strategy is to utilize online resources and professional networks. The hospital can encourage nurses to participate in online communities, discussion forums, and social media groups focused on evidence-based nursing practice. These platforms provide opportunities for knowledge exchange, sharing of best practices, and staying updated on the latest research findings. Furthermore, the hospital can utilize open-access journals and online databases to access relevant research articles and publications without incurring significant costs.
Overall, these strategies can help a small community hospital with limited resources establish and foster an evidence-based nursing practice program, despite resource constraints.
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1. Your patient, Henry Johnson, age 48, was seriously injured in a construction accident. He has multiple fractures and is intubated and on a ventilator. How would you assess his need for pain medication?
2. Besides the obvious problem statement of Pain, what other problem statements might be appropriate based on the above information?
3. Write one expected outcome for each of the above problem statements.
4.List four nursing actions that might be helpful in decreasing Mr. Johnson's pain once he is off the venti-
lator, based on the above information.
a.
b
c.
d
5. List one evaluation statement for each action above that indicates progress toward the expected outcomes.
1. To assess Henry Johnson's need for pain medication, the nurse should use a systematic approach, considering both subjective and objective factors. The nurse can ask Henry about his pain levels using a pain rating scale, such as the numeric rating scale (0-10). Additionally, the nurse should observe for physical signs of pain, such as facial expressions, body movements, and vital signs (elevated heart rate, increased blood pressure). It's important to regularly assess the effectiveness of pain medication by evaluating Henry's pain levels after administration and adjusting the dosage or frequency as needed.
2. Based on the information provided, other problem statements that may be appropriate include:
- Impaired physical mobility related to multiple fractures
- Risk for infection related to open fractures and invasive devices
- Impaired gas exchange related to mechanical ventilation
- Anxiety and fear related to the traumatic event and hospitalization
3. Expected outcomes for the problem statements:
- Expected outcome for Pain: The patient's pain will be controlled at a tolerable level (e.g., pain rating of 4 or below on a 0-10 scale) within 30 minutes of receiving appropriate pain medication.
- Expected outcome for Impaired physical mobility: The patient will demonstrate improved ability to move independently and perform activities of daily living within one week.
- Expected outcome for Risk for infection: The patient will remain free from signs and symptoms of infection throughout the hospital stay.
- Expected outcome for Impaired gas exchange: The patient will maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation while on mechanical ventilation.
- Expected outcome for Anxiety and fear: The patient will verbalize decreased anxiety and demonstrate coping mechanisms to manage fear and stress.
4. Nursing actions to decrease Mr. Johnson's pain once he is off the ventilator may include:
a. Administering prescribed analgesic medications as ordered and assessing their effectiveness.
b. Utilizing non-pharmacological pain management techniques, such as positioning, relaxation techniques, or distraction.
c. Collaborating with the healthcare team to develop a comprehensive pain management plan.
d. Providing education to the patient and family about pain management strategies and the importance of reporting pain.
5. Evaluation statements for each action indicating progress toward expected outcomes:
a. Evaluation for administering analgesic medications: The patient reports a decrease in pain level from 8 to 3 within 30 minutes of receiving the medication.
b. Evaluation for utilizing non-pharmacological pain management techniques: The patient demonstrates improved comfort and relaxation during positioning and relaxation exercises.
c. Evaluation for collaborating with the healthcare team: The pain management plan is regularly reviewed and modified based on the patient's response to interventions.
d. Evaluation for providing education: The patient and family verbalize an understanding of pain management strategies and actively participate in pain assessment and reporting.
By implementing these nursing actions and regularly evaluating the patient's progress, the nurse can effectively manage Mr. Johnson's pain and support his overall recovery and well-being.
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The paramedic dispatched to patient with drug overdose of paracetamol orally. Initial management was provided on site and the patient was retrieved to the nearest hospital. Which of the following test the paramedic is expected to assess for the most common organ damage due to overdose? Select one: a. Pulmonary function test b. Liver function test c. Kidney function test d. Electrocardiography (ECG)
The correct answer is (Option B) Liver function test.
In the case of a drug overdose of paracetamol (acetaminophen), the most common organ damage is seen in the liver. Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, causing liver damage or failure.
To assess the extent of liver damage, the paramedic is expected to assess the patient's liver function by performing a liver function test. This test typically includes several blood tests, such as:
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) levels: Elevated levels of ALT and AST indicate liver cell damage.
Bilirubin levels: Increased bilirubin levels can be a sign of impaired liver function.
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels: Elevated ALP levels may indicate liver or biliary tract dysfunction.
Prothrombin time (PT) or International Normalized Ratio (INR): Prolonged PT or increased INR can suggest impaired liver synthetic function.
Given that the patient in question has experienced a drug overdose of paracetamol, the paramedic should primarily assess the patient's liver function by performing a liver function test.
This is important because paracetamol overdose can cause significant liver damage, and monitoring liver function is crucial for timely intervention and appropriate management.
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as a new nurse manager, you are aware of leadership, management, and followership principles. the concept of followership is rather new as relating to leadership. what is the role of the follower in followership?
The role of the follower in followership is to actively participate, engage, and support the goals and vision of the leader or organization.
Followership is an essential component of effective leadership, where followers contribute to the success of the team or organization. The role of the follower involves understanding and aligning with the leader's vision, goals, and values. Followers of nurse actively participate in decision-making processes, contribute their expertise and skills, and provide constructive feedback.
They demonstrate trust, commitment, and accountability in carrying out their assigned tasks and responsibilities. Effective followers also possess critical thinking skills, independence, and the ability to challenge ideas respectfully when necessary. By fulfilling their role, followers play a significant part in achieving the collective goals of the team or organization and contribute to a positive work environment that fosters collaboration and growth.
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while in the hospital, a client developed a methicillin-resistant infection in an open foot ulcer. which nursing action would be appropriate for this client?
Methicillin-resistant infections are the types of infections caused by Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). MRSA is an organism that is immune to several antibiotics.
It is prevalent among people who have weakened immune systems, such as people in hospitals. Therefore, the nursing actions that can be taken when a client developed a methicillin-resistant infection in an open foot ulcer while in the hospital are listed below: Nursing actions when a client develops a methicillin-resistant infection :As soon as the infection is detected, the nurse should immediately isolate the client to avoid the spread of infection to other clients and staff members.
This must be accomplished with the aid of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) such as gloves, gowns, and masks.The infected wound should be kept clean, and any contaminated material should be disposed of properly. Frequent wound dressing changes must be carried out with proper hand hygiene and aseptic technique. The nurse should teach the patient about infection control practices and urge them to observe these practices.
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Read the case study, then answer the questions that follow.
Peter is 74 and has Parkinson’s disease. He resides in his own home in the community. When the support worker arrives, she finds that Peter has left all his washing in the basket in the laundry. When the worker asks Peter why he hasn’t hung out the washing, he tells her that he can’t lift the sheets and towels onto the clothes line because they are too heavy.
What support strategies or resources need to be implemented to ensure Peter can remain living as independently as possible? Identify at least five strategies or resources that can help Peter remain independent. (Approx. 30 words that you can present in a bullet point list if you wish).
Assistive devices: Provide Peter with tools such as a lightweight laundry basket, a reacher/grabber tool, or a clothesline pulley system to help him with lifting and hanging laundry.
Occupational therapy: Arrange for an occupational therapist to assess Peter's home environment and suggest modifications or adaptations that can make tasks easier, such as installing a lower clothesline or adding handrails.
Home support services: Arrange for a home support worker or cleaner to visit regularly and assist Peter with household chores, including laundry.
Exercise and mobility programs: Encourage Peter to participate in exercises and mobility programs specifically designed for individuals with Parkinson's disease to improve his strength, coordination, and overall physical abilities.
Education and training: Provide Peter and his support worker with education and training on Parkinson's disease management, including energy conservation techniques and strategies for adapting daily activities to conserve energy and reduce fatigue.
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Reflect on the importance of setting an Aim statement as it relates to improvement projects.
Provide an example of why measurement is important in the implementation of improvement projects.
Choose one of the three kinds of measures and explain how you would use it in an improvement project.
Setting an Aim statement is crucial for improvement projects as it provides a clear and concise objective that guides the project's direction and helps stakeholders understand its purpose.
Measurement is vital in the implementation of improvement projects because it allows for objective assessment and evaluation of progress. It provides tangible evidence of the project's effectiveness and helps identify areas that require attention or modification.
One type of measure commonly used in improvement projects is outcome measures. These measures assess the ultimate impact or result of the project on the desired outcome. For example, in a project aimed at reducing customer wait times in a call center, an outcome measure could be the average time customers spend on hold before speaking to an agent. By regularly tracking and analyzing this measure, the project team can determine if their efforts are resulting in the desired improvement and make necessary adjustments to achieve the aim.
Outcome measures provide valuable insights into the overall success of the improvement project. They enable the team to monitor progress, identify trends, and make informed decisions to ensure the desired outcome is being achieved. By using outcome measures, project teams can measure the real-world impact of their efforts and continually strive for improvement.
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THE CASE OF HEARTY KAPUSO
Hearty Kapuso, a 10-month old infant was admitted for the second time in the Pediatric ICU Bed 4 at Corazon Memorial Medical Center due to central cyanosis, respiratory distress and oxygen saturation of 90%
Upon seeing the client, she has an IVF of D5LR 500ml at 120cc/hr infusing well at left metacarpals vein and had oxygen therapy via facemask at 6 liters per minute and standby intubation using 3.5mm uncuffed endotracheal tube. She was on on high back rest with difficulty of breathing and a capillary refill time of 3 seconds. Her Foley catheter attached to the urine bag draining to 110 cc level with amber yellow color urine. The Doctor ordered Cefuroxime 180mg TIV ANST q12h (Stock available 500mg diluted to 5ml) Propranolol 1mg PO OD (stock 2mg/tab), Paracetamol 85 mg IV PRN (stock 150mg/2ml for temp more than or equal to 39.5°C, Ancillaries test for CBC, UA was done at ER with pending ABG, serum electrolytes and Chest X-ray
Still on mixed feeding with strict aspiration precaution.
Seen by Dra. Mea Amor her attending Pediatrician with adiagnosis of Congenital heart defect cyanotic type R/O Tetralogy of Fallot
Patient’s profile
Hearty Kapuso is 10-month old female, Catholic and weighs 7.4kg with blood type B+, no allergies noted
Address: 30Pinagpusuan St. Kamahalan City Manila
DOB: August 18, 2020
DOA: June 19, 2021 at 9:20 am
Hospital Number : 2020-183019
Vital Signs:
Temp – 38.9°C PR – 122bpm RR – 38cpm CR – 138bpm BP – 90/60mmHg O2 sat – 90%
Physical examination:
She has a dark skin complexion and evenly distributed hair. Skin is dry and warm to touch. Clubbing finger nails noted with bluish discoloration of nailbeds onboth upper and lower extremities non pallor palmar creases. She has some round scars on both legs. Hair is black and no infestations noted upon inspection. Head is normocephalic with no abnormalities noted. Eyes are symmetrical and are aligned at the upper pinna of the ear. Iris is color brown and pupils are equally rounded and are reactive to light accommodation with a diameter of 2 mm, non-pallor conjunctiva. Ears are symmetrical and are aligned at the outer canthus of the eye. Eardrums are intact with cerumen noted upon inspection. No lesions, discharges or abnormalities noted. Nasal flaring noted, no lesions or discharges noted upon inspection. Client was able to swallow without difficulty. Flex neck from front to back and side without any discomfort. Upon palpation of the neck, no mass was noted. Lips have a bluish discoloration with dry mucous membranes and dry tongue, no lesions or abnormalities. Chest is slightly barrel chest with right side of the chest enlarged with AP diameter of 2:1 with clear breath sounds noted with use of accessory muscles noted. . Heart murmur was heard on auscultation along the left sternal border. The abdomen is flat and brown in skin color. Normo-active bowel sounds were heard upon auscultation. no lesions are noted upon inspection. Client has a Foley catheter attached to urine bag at 110cc level with amber yellow colored urine. no lesions or abnormalities noted.
Familial Health History
History taking it revealed that on the Paternal side, the Grandfather has a heart problem, while her grandmother has no hereditary disease.
(+) hypertension and (+)asthma in the family
Both parent was negative to this disease, Hearty’s mother is non-smoker but alcohol drinker.
Medical Health History
Perinatal (Mother)
Prenatal check-up was started at the 4th month of pregnancy and Tetanus toxoid 1 was given. The mother had a febrile episode during the 3rd month of pregnancy. the mother did not consult a physician and there no medication was taken. She gave birth at a Lying-In clinic, full term via normal spontaneous vaginal deliver assisted by a Midwife. The baby presented poor and delayed crying with cyanosis.
OB score G2P1 (1-0-1-1)
Past Medical Illness
Her mother noted that in 4thmonth of age, the client had an episode of syncope, (-) cold and (+) cough for 2 weeks which led her to admit at a local hospital and then was referred to Corazon Memorial Medical Center where she was diagnosed with CHD ruled out Tetralogy of Fallot. 2D Echo was done revealed the presence of a hole in the client’s heart. Surgical management was advised but they refused due inadequate financial resources. She was then discharged with a home medication of Propranolol once a daybut the client mother did not comply. Due to poor compliance to the medication and refusal to the advised for surgical management, the child’s condition was not alleviated and she experienced on and off dyspnea, orthopnea and occasional congestion.
Present Illness
The client become restless and became cyanotic after defecating,which prompted them to rushher to CMMC
Dra. Mea Amor the attending pediatrician advised admission at Pediatric ICU for further medical management.
TASK:
1. Review of the system sheet and at the back of this form make an expound Familial and Medical history of the client.
The client's father has a heart problem, and there is a history of hypertension and asthma in the family. The client's mother is a non-smoker but an alcohol drinker.
The client's father has a heart problem, which suggests that there may be a genetic predisposition to heart disease in the family. The presence of hypertension and asthma in the family also suggests that there may be a genetic predisposition to these conditions. The client's mother is a non-smoker but an alcohol drinker, which could increase her risk of developing health problems.
The client's medical history is also significant. She was born with a congenital heart defect, which has required her to be hospitalized on two previous occasions. She has also experienced episodes of syncope, cough, and congestion. These symptoms suggest that her heart condition is not well-controlled and that she is at risk for further complications.
The client's familial and medical history are important factors that will need to be considered in her treatment plan. The healthcare team will need to work with the client and her family to develop a plan that will help to manage her heart condition and prevent further complications.
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Furosemide In dogs, oral bioavailability is approximately 77%. It has a rapid onset of action, 5 minutes IV and 30 minutes IM. In the dog when administered IV, PO, SQ, the urine output peaked at 1 br. (IV), 2 hours (PO) and 1 br. (SQ) and returned to baseline levels at 2,4 and 6 hours respectively. Duration of action is 3-6 hours. The drug is approximately 95% bound to plasma protein in both azotemic and normal patients. The serum half-life is 2 hours but prolonged in patients with CKD, uremia, CHF and neonates. Answer the following questions 8. 9. 10. 11. disease? What is the veterinary trade name of this drug? What class of drug is furosemide? a. 14. What would you advise the owners regarding taking the dog out? Would the veterinarian decrease the dose in an animal with concurrent renal 12. If the drug serum concentration was 8 mg/dl, at 10 AM., what would the concentration be at 4 PM? 13. When given concurrently, which drug, furosemide or pimobendan are more likely to have a higher serum concentration than if given alone? Why? What is a potentially severe side effect of furosemide other than dehydration? Furosemide In dogs, oral bioavailability is approximately 77%. It has a rapid onset of action, 5 minutes IV and 30 minutes IM. In the dog when administered IV, PO, SQ, the urine output peaked at 1 br (IV), 2 hours (PO) and 1 br. (SQ) and returned to baseline levels at 2,4 and 6 hours respectively. Duration of action is 3-6 hours. The drug is approximately 95% bound to plasma protein in both azotemic, and normal patients. The serum half-life is 2 hours but prolonged in patients with CKD, uremia, CHF and neonates. Answer the following questions 8. 9. 10. 11. What is the veterinary trade name of this drug? What class of drug is furosemide? What would you advise the owners regarding taking the dog out? Would the veterinarian decrease the dose in an animal with concurrent renal disease? 12. If the drug serum concentration was 8 mg/dl, at 10 AM., what would the concentration be at 4 PM? 13. When given concurrently, which drug, furosemide or pimobendan are more likely to have a higher serum concentration than if given alone? a. 14. Why? What is a potentially severe side effect of furosemide other than dehydration?
Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed by veterinarians to treat various conditions in dogs. Owners should avoid strenuous exercise during treatment, and dose adjustments may be necessary for animals with renal disease. Concurrent use of pimobendan may lead to higher serum concentrations due to increased renal blood flow, and electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of furosemide.
The veterinary trade name for furosemide is Lasix. Furosemide is a loop diuretic class of drug. The veterinarian may advise the owners regarding taking the dog out. It is advisable to avoid strenuous exercise and physical activity during treatment with this medication.
The veterinarian may decrease the dose in an animal with concurrent renal disease to prevent the risk of nephrotoxicity. If the drug serum concentration was 8 mg/dl at 10 AM, the concentration would be approximately 2 mg/dl at 4 PM.
When given concurrently, pimobendan is more likely to have a higher serum concentration than if given alone because furosemide causes an increase in renal blood flow, leading to increased excretion of pimobendan and other drugs. A potentially severe side effect of furosemide other than dehydration is electrolyte imbalance.
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Do pharmacist licenses have to be on display? the original or official copy? is a photocopy ok? can you obscure your address on the copy displayed to the public?
Yes, pharmacist licenses are generally required to be displayed in a visible location in the pharmacy. However, the specific regulations regarding the display of licenses may vary depending on the country or state. In most cases, the original or official copy of the license needs to be displayed, rather than a photocopy.
This is to ensure the authenticity and credibility of the license. While it is usually not allowed to obscure any details on the license displayed to the public, such as your address, it is advisable to consult the local licensing authority or professional pharmacy organizations for specific guidelines and requirements regarding license display. It is important to comply with these regulations to maintain professional standards and ensure transparency in the pharmacy.
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the conditions of four different clients are provided in the chart. which clients care would be delegated to unlicensed assistive
The specific client's care to be delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
The decision to delegate care to UAPs is typically based on factors such as the complexity of the task, the competency and training of the UAP, and the regulations and policies of the healthcare facility.
It is important to ensure that tasks delegated to UAPs align with their scope of practice and that appropriate supervision and communication channels are in place.
The delegation process should prioritize patient safety and optimal care delivery while adhering to legal and ethical standards.
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at his most recent clinic visit, a patient with end-stage renal disease is noted to have edema, congestive signs in the pulmonary system, and a pericardial friction rub. appropriate therapy at this time would include
Based on the symptoms described (edema, congestive signs in the pulmonary system, and a pericardial friction rub) in a patient with end-stage renal disease, appropriate therapy at this time would include:
1. Diuretics: Diuretic medications can help reduce fluid buildup and edema by increasing urine output and promoting the excretion of excess fluid from the body.
2. Dialysis: Since the patient has end-stage renal disease, regular dialysis treatments may be necessary to help remove waste products and excess fluid from the bloodstream when the kidneys are no longer functioning adequately.
3. Management of congestive heart failure: Given the congestive signs in the pulmonary system, it suggests the presence of congestive heart failure. Treatment for congestive heart failure may involve medications such as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, beta-blockers, or other medications to manage the symptoms and improve cardiac function.
4. Pericardial fluid drainage: If the pericardial friction rub is indicative of pericarditis with a significant amount of fluid accumulation (pericardial effusion), drainage of the fluid may be necessary to relieve symptoms and prevent further complications. This can be done through pericardiocentesis, a procedure to remove fluid from the pericardial sac.
5. Dietary modifications: A low-sodium diet may be recommended to help reduce fluid retention and manage edema.
It is important to note that the specific treatment plan should be determined by a healthcare provider based on a comprehensive evaluation of the patient's condition, medical history, and individual needs. The therapy mentioned above serves as general recommendations and may vary depending on the patient's unique circumstances.
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1. The order is for Suprax 80mg po every 12 hours. The child weights 44lb today. On hand is Suprax 100mg/5ml. The recommended dose is 8mg/kg/day. If safe, how many ml will you give?
The nurse will administer approximately 4.4 ml of Suprax to the child. This calculation is based on the child's weight, the ordered dose, and the concentration of Suprax available.
The appropriate dose of Suprax, we need to consider the child's weight, the ordered dose, and the concentration of the medication.
The child weighs 44 lb, which is equivalent to approximately 20 kg (since 1 kg is approximately 2.2 lb). The recommended dose of Suprax is 8 mg/kg/day. Therefore, the child should receive a total of 160 mg of Suprax per day (8 mg/kg/day x 20 kg).
Since the ordered dose is 80 mg every 12 hours, the child will receive 80 mg twice a day. To find the amount in ml, we need to consider the concentration of the Suprax on hand. The available Suprax is 100 mg/5 ml.
To calculate the amount in ml, we can set up a proportion:
80 mg / x ml = 100 mg / 5 ml
Cross-multiplying and solving for x, we find:
80x = 500
x ≈ 6.25 ml
Since we want to administer approximately 80 mg, which is slightly less than the available concentration, we can administer approximately 6.25 ml of Suprax to the child.
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in the following points tell me Why the points are important for a good infusion pump?
- Electrically safe and portable
- Accurate and consistent delivery of drugs
- Easy to set up and use
- Robust and reliable
- Can be powered with battery and mains both
- proper use of alarms
- Capable of detecting line occlusion
A good infusion pump should prioritize electrical safety and portability, accurate and consistent drug delivery, ease of setup and use, reliability, dual power options, appropriate alarm systems, and the ability to detect line occlusions.
1. A good infusion pump should possess several key features to ensure optimal performance and patient safety. Firstly, it should be electrically safe and portable, allowing healthcare professionals to easily transport and operate the pump in various clinical settings. This ensures that patients can receive continuous medication without interruption due to power constraints or safety concerns.
2. Secondly, accurate and consistent delivery of drugs is crucial to avoid under- or overdosing, which can have severe consequences for patient health. An infusion pump with precise dosage capabilities helps healthcare providers administer medications with confidence, ensuring the right amount of medication is delivered at the right time.
3. Ease of setup and use is another important aspect. A user-friendly interface and intuitive controls simplify the setup process and operation of the pump. This saves valuable time for healthcare professionals and reduces the likelihood of errors during setup, enhancing overall efficiency and patient care.
4. Reliability and robustness are vital qualities in an infusion pump. It should be able to withstand the demands of continuous use and function consistently over time. A reliable pump ensures uninterrupted drug delivery and minimizes the risk of treatment disruptions or delays that could negatively impact patient outcomes.
5. The ability to be powered by both battery and mains is advantageous in various scenarios. Battery power provides a backup option in case of power outages, ensuring continuous infusion. Moreover, mains power allows for sustained operation without the need for frequent battery replacements, promoting convenience and efficiency.
6. Proper use of alarms is crucial for patient safety. An infusion pump equipped with appropriate alarm systems can alert healthcare providers to potential issues, such as low battery, occlusions, or completion of the infusion. These alarms help healthcare professionals take prompt action and prevent adverse events or complications, contributing to improved patient outcomes.
7. Lastly, the ability to detect line occlusion is essential in an infusion pump. Occlusions can occur due to various factors, including kinks in the tubing or blockages. A pump capable of detecting such occlusions can immediately notify healthcare providers, allowing them to take necessary measures to address the issue and prevent potential harm to the patient.
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a child has just returned from surgery and has a hip spica cast. what is the nurse's priority action for this client?
The nurse's priority action for a child with a hip spica cast is to assess the child's vital signs and monitor their respiratory status.
When a child has just returned from surgery and has a hip spica cast, the nurse's priority action is to assess the child's vital signs and monitor their respiratory status. This is because the hip spica cast can restrict movement and potentially affect the child's breathing. The nurse will carefully observe the child's respiratory rate, effort, and oxygen saturation to ensure there are no signs of respiratory distress. Additionally, the nurse will monitor the child's vital signs, including heart rate, blood pressure, and temperature, to detect any abnormalities or complications.
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an immobile client has evidence of 3 pitting edema in the lower extremities. define the degree of pitting edema the client exhibits.
The degree of pitting edema exhibited by a client with 3 pitting edemata in the lower extremities indicates moderate swelling.
Pitting edema refers to a type of swelling characterized by an indentation or "pit" that remains after applying pressure to the affected area. The degree of pitting edema is often assessed on a scale from 1 to 4, with 1 being mild and 4 being severe.
In this case, a client with 3 pitting edemata in the lower extremities would indicate moderate swelling. Moderate pitting edema suggests that the swelling is more pronounced than in mild cases but not as severe as the highest degree.
It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor and evaluate the severity of edema to determine appropriate treatment and management strategies for the client.
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A patient was brought to the emergency department by ambulance at 1:00 a.m. by her husband, who stated that they had been to a dinner party at a friend's home earlier in the evening. His wife had two martinis before the meal and several glasses of wine with the meal. At bedtime she took Valium that her physician had ordered prn for nervousness and inability to sleep. Shortly thereafter, the husband noticed that she appeared to be somewhat stuporous, became worried about her condition, and brought her to the emergency department. The provider documented accidental overdose secondary to Valium taken with alcohol.
ASSIGN THE CORRECT ICD-10-CM AND ICD-10-PCS CODES
4 DIAGNOSIS CODES WHICH INCLUDE EXTERNAL CAUSES CODES IN THIS SCENARIO
ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Code: T42.4X1A - Poisoning by benzodiazepines, accidental (unintentional), initial encounter; F10.129 - Alcohol use disorder, moderate, uncomplicated; and External Cause Code: Y90.4 - Alcohol involvement, initial encounter.
In this scenario, the patient experienced an accidental overdose due to taking Valium (a benzodiazepine) with alcohol. The ICD-10-CM diagnosis code T42.4X1A represents poisoning by benzodiazepines, and the external cause code Y90.4 indicates alcohol involvement.
Additionally, the patient has a diagnosis of alcohol use disorder (F10.129) due to the moderate consumption of alcohol. Since no specific medical procedure was performed, there is no relevant ICD-10-PCS procedure code in this case. It is important to consult the latest coding guidelines and conventions for accurate code assignment.
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for week 7 discussion board explain the difference between morality and ethics in one quality paragraphs minimum be sure to share your resources that you used in defining the term.list one example as it relates to long term.(2 explain what code of ethics means in regards to long term care administrators. this should be a paragraph be sure to document your source.
Morality refers to the principles and values that guide an individual's personal conduct and judgment of right and wrong, while ethics pertains to a broader set of principles and standards that govern the behavior of a group or society.
One example of how morality and ethics can differ in long-term care is the decision-making process for end-of-life care. The source used to define these terms is the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy. Morality and ethics are closely related concepts but have distinct differences. Morality refers to an individual's personal beliefs and values that guide their behavior and decision-making. It is subjective and influenced by factors such as personal experiences, cultural background, and upbringing. Morality is concerned with questions of right and wrong, and individuals use their moral compass to determine the ethicality of their actions.
On the other hand, ethics refers to a broader framework of principles, values, and rules that guide the behavior of a group or society. It provides a systematic approach to addressing moral issues and making decisions in a consistent and fair manner. Ethics provides a shared set of standards that govern the conduct of individuals within a particular profession or community. In the context of long-term care, an example that illustrates the difference between morality and ethics is the decision-making process for end-of-life care. An individual's personal moral beliefs may lead them to have specific views on issues such as euthanasia or withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment. These personal moral beliefs may vary from person to person based on their values and religious or cultural backgrounds.
However, in the field of long-term care, there are ethical guidelines and codes of ethics that govern the decision-making process in such situations. These codes provide a framework that considers the principles of autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice, among others. Long-term care administrators, guided by these codes of ethics, must navigate complex decisions involving end-of-life care, ensuring that the individual's rights and dignity are respected while also considering the best interests of the patient. The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy was used as a source to define the terms "morality" and "ethics". It provides a comprehensive and scholarly understanding of these concepts.
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55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a life insurance physical. He admits to being a lifelong smoker and feeling like he can’t get all the air out when he is breathing during exercise.
Which of the following conditions is necessary for normal expiratory airflow?
(A) Negative intrapleural pressure
(B) Negative transpulmonary pressure
(C) Positive alveolar pressure
(D) Positive intrapleural pressure
(E) Positive transpulmonary pressure
The option which is necessary for normal expiratory airflow is Negative transpulmonary pressure. Correct option is B
Negative transpulmonary pressure is the only option that is necessary for normal expiratory airflow.Expiratory airflow is the amount of air that leaves the lungs during a specific time. To maintain the flow of air throughout respiration, the lungs must be able to maintain a balance between the forces pushing air into the lungs and the forces pushing air out of the lungs during inhalation and exhalation.
In normal breathing, exhalation is passive and is generated by the natural elasticity of the lungs and the thoracic cage, which pushes air out. Furthermore, when exhaling, a pressure gradient occurs between the outside air and the intrapleural space. During exhalation, the pressure in the thorax increases, which pushes air out of the lungs. Thus, Negative transpulmonary pressure is necessary for normal expiratory airflow.
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a nurse collaborates with assistive personnel (ap) to provide care for a client with congestive heart failure. which instructions would the nurse provide to the ap when delegating care for this client? (select all that apply.)
The nurse would instruct the AP to monitor vital signs, assist with activities of daily living, administer medications, monitor fluid intake and output, and assist with mobility and ambulation when delegating care for a client with congestive heart failure.
The nurse would provide the following instructions to the assistive personnel (AP) when delegating care for a client with congestive heart failure:
1. Monitor vital signs: The AP should regularly check the client's blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation levels. These vital signs help assess the client's condition and response to treatment.
2. Assist with activities of daily living (ADLs): The AP should provide support and assistance to the client with ADLs, such as bathing, grooming, and dressing. This helps ensure the client's comfort and promotes self-care.
3. Administer medications: The nurse should delegate the administration of prescribed medications to the AP. However, it is crucial for the nurse to provide clear instructions on the correct medication, dosage, route, and timing. The AP should be educated on potential side effects or adverse reactions to watch for and report.
4. Monitor fluid intake and output: The AP should keep track of the client's fluid intake and output, including urine output and any signs of fluid retention. This information helps the nurse assess the client's fluid balance and response to diuretic therapy.
5. Assist with mobility and ambulation: The AP should assist the client with mobility and ambulation as needed. This may involve helping the client move from the bed to a chair, assisting with walking exercises, or providing support during physical therapy sessions.
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As an Occupational Safety and Health professional, what does
credibility mean to you? Why is credibility important? How do you
demonstrate credibility in the OSH field?
As an Occupational Safety and Health professional, credibility is an essential aspect of the job. In the OSH field, credibility means possessing the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to perform the job effectively and efficiently. Credibility means being competent and reliable in the work done, consistently delivering on promises, and being truthful in all communications.
Credibility is crucial in the OSH field since it fosters trust with the employees and the management team. Employees want to feel safe and secure in the workplace, and they look to OSH professionals to provide the necessary guidance and expertise. A credible OSH professional can help employees understand and appreciate the value of safety procedures and protocols.
Demonstrating credibility in the OSH field involves developing relationships with employees, management, and other stakeholders. To establish credibility, OSH professionals must communicate effectively and with transparency. When talking to employees, the professional must convey information in a way that is understandable and clear, using examples that relate to the work environment. When talking to management, OSH professionals must present data that is relevant, accurate, and timely.
OSH professionals should also take time to listen to employees, and acknowledge their concerns or questions. This requires being empathetic and understanding, and addressing each concern or question in a respectful and honest manner. If the OSH professional doesn't know the answer to a question, it is crucial to find out and follow up with the employee.
Additionally, the OSH professional should stay current with changes to regulations, standards, and best practices. This requires continuous learning and development, such as attending conferences, reading industry publications, and participating in training sessions. OSH professionals should be willing to ask questions, engage in discussions with peers and colleagues, and seek feedback from employees, management, and other stakeholders. By doing so, the OSH professional can maintain their credibility and remain effective in the workplace.
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christensen re, ranpariya v, kammrath lk, masicampo ej, roberson kb, feldman sr. the presence of accountability in digital interventions targeting non-adherence: a review. patient educ couns. 2022 aug;105(8):2637-2644. doi: 10.1016/j.pec.2022.01.010. epub 2022 jan 24. pmid: 35101306.
The study by Christensen et al. (2022) reviewed digital interventions targeting non-adherence and examined the presence of accountability in these interventions.
The study conducted by Christensen et al. (2022) aimed to assess the role of accountability in digital interventions designed to address non-adherence. The authors conducted a comprehensive review of existing literature and analyzed various aspects related to accountability in these interventions. By doing so, they sought to gain insights into the effectiveness and impact of accountability in promoting adherence to treatment regimens.
In their review, the researchers identified several key findings. Firstly, they observed that accountability was commonly incorporated into digital interventions targeting non-adherence. Accountability mechanisms, such as reminders, progress tracking, and feedback, were frequently utilized to enhance patients' adherence to prescribed treatments. These interventions aimed to create a sense of responsibility and motivation by holding individuals accountable for their actions and progress.
Secondly, the study highlighted the potential benefits of accountability in improving treatment adherence. The presence of accountability was associated with positive outcomes, including increased adherence rates and improved patient engagement. Accountability mechanisms served as external prompts and reinforcements, helping individuals stay on track with their treatment plans.
Thirdly, the researchers emphasized the importance of tailoring accountability strategies to suit individual patient needs. They found that personalized interventions, considering factors such as patients' preferences, lifestyle, and social support, were more effective in fostering adherence. Customized accountability approaches helped patients overcome barriers and establish sustainable adherence habits.
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