The difference of two numbers is 9. The sum of the two numbers is 15. What are the two numbers?

Answer:

0.4207149;0.7271136; 0.3063987; 0.04979 ; 0.01832

Step-by-step explanation:

For an exponential distribution:

IF Mean time until failure = 23100

λ = 1/ 23100 = 0.0000432900

What is the probability that a randomly selected fan will last at least 20,000 hours

x ≥ 20000

P(X ≥ 20000) = 1 - P(X ≤ 20000)

1 - P(X ≤ 20000) = [1 - (1 - e^(-λx))]

1 - P(X ≤ 20000) = [1 - (1 - e^(-0.0000432900*20000)

1 - P(X ≤ 20000) = [1 - (1 - 0.4207148)]

1 - P(X ≤ 20000) = 1 - 0.5792851

1 - P(X ≤ 20000) = 0.4207149

11) What is the probability that a randomly selected fan will last at most 30,000 hours?

x ≤ 30000

P(X ≤ 30000) = 1 - e^(-λx)

P(X ≤ 20000) = 1 - e^(-0.0000432900*30000)

= 1 - e^(−1.2987)

= 1 - 0.2728863

= 0.7271136

111) What is the probability that a randomly selected fan will last between 20,000 hours and 30,000 hours?

0.7271136 - 0.4207149 = 0.3063987

B) What is the probability that the lifetime of a fan exceeds the mean value by more than 2 standard deviations?

More than two standard deviation

X = 23100 + 2(23100) = 23100 + 46200 = 69300

Using the online exponential probability calculator :

P(X > 69300) = 0.04979

C) What is the probability that the lifetime of a fan exceeds the mean value by more than 3 standard deviations?

X = 23100 + 3(23100) = 23100 + 69300 = 92400

P(X > 92400) = 0.01832

Answer:

c is the answer

[tex] \frac{1}{16} [/tex]

Answer:

it is equal to 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey, there!!!

According to your question,

case i

force (f) = 60 n

acceleration due to gravity (a)= 10m/s^2

now,

force = mass × acceleration due to gravity

or, 60 = m × 10

or, 10m= 60

or, m= 60/10

Therefore, the mass is 6 kg.

now,

In case ii

mass= 6kg {Because there was no change in mass only change in force}

force= 54 n

now, acceleration due to gravity = ?

we have,

f=m×a

or, 54= 9×a

or, 9a= 54

or, a= 54/9

Therefore, the acceleration due to gravity is 6m/ s^2.

Hope it helps....

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  4.18 square units

Step-by-step explanation:

The area is given by the formula ...

  A = 1/2bh

where b is the length of the base, and h is the perpendicular distance from the base to the opposite vertex.

  A = 1/2(2.2)(3.8) = 4.18 . . . square units

Answer:

7/36

Step-by-step explanation:

1 die has 6 faces

When two dice are rolled, the total number of outcomes

= 6 × 6 = 36

The Probability of having(5) =

(1 & 4), (2 & 3) , ( 3 & 2), (4 & 1)

= 4

The probability of having (10) =

(5 & 5), (4 & 6) , ( 6 & 4)

= 3

The probability that the score on the dice is either 5 or 10.

P(5) + P(10)

= 4/36 + 3/36

= 7/36

Answer: 7/36

Step-by-step explanation:

36 outcomes

4 chances of getting 5 (1+4, 2+3, 4+1, 3+2)

3 chances of getting 10 (4+6, 5+5, 6+4)

4+3=7

so 7/36 chance

Answer:

b=2.7

Step-by-step explanation:

using sine rule,,,

Step-by-step explanation:

So for this problem, we need the missing angle A. From there, we can use the law of sines to compute length of b.

So the sum of the interior angles of a triangle is 180. With that in mind, we can make an equation to fine the measure of angle A.

53 + 80 + A = 180

133 + A = 180

A = 47

Now that we have the angle of A, we can use the law of sines to fine the length of b.

b / sin(B) = a / sin(A)

b = sin(B) * a / sin(A)

b = sin(80) * 2 / sin(47)

b = 2.693

Now round that to the nearest tenth to get

b = 2.7

Cheers.

Answer:

4842.24 cubic feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the formula for the volume of a cone, V = [tex]\pi[/tex]r²[tex]\frac{h}{3}[/tex]

The diameter of the cone is 34 ft, so the radius is 17 ft.

Plug in the radius and height into the formula, and solve for the volume:

V = [tex]\pi[/tex]r²[tex]\frac{h}{3}[/tex]

V = [tex]\pi[/tex](17)²[tex]\frac{16}{3}[/tex]

V = [tex]\pi[/tex](289)[tex]\frac{16}{3}[/tex]

V = 4842.24

So, the volume of the cone is 4842.24 cubic feet

Answer:

4,841.32 ft³.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let’s assume that this is a right circular cone and that the radius of the cone is r.

For our problem, r = (1/2)d = (1/2)34 = 17.

The volume of the cone is:

V = (1/3)pi r^2 h, where r is the radius and h is the height.

So, V = (1/3)pi(17^2)16 = 4,841.32 ft³.

BULBS PRODUCED PER DAY:-

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto \dfrac{1188440}{365}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 3256[/tex]

Total bulbs

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 31(3256)[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 100936[/tex]

Answer:

Substitute the functions and the value of the functions.

Step-by-step explanation:

Doing all will be long, so i'll present a and d

Here,(no a)

f(x)=3x-1, g(x)=x^2+2

Now,

f(g(x))=f(x^2+2)=3(x^2+2)-1=3x^2+6-1=3x^2+5

g(f(x))=g(3x-1)=(3x-1)^2+2=9x^2-6x+1+2=9x^2-6x+3

Here, (no d)

f(x)=x^2-9, g(x)=√(x+4)

Now,

f(g(x))=f(√(x+4))=(√(x+4))^2-9=x+4-9=x-5

g(f(x))=g(x^2-9)=√(x^2-9+4)=√(x^2-5)

Answer:

252

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 7812 by 31 and we get the average daily answer... Hope this helps!!

Answer:

First question:0

Second question:2/15

Step-by-step explanation:

First:

Total of marbles=10

since there is no blue the probability is 0, since black is 3. then prob= number of black/total number of marbles. =3/10

therefore 0*3/10 =0

second:

probability of red is 4/10

since the first marble wasn't returned,the total number of marbles=9

therefore probability if the second red marble is =3/9 =1/3

probability of first marble *probability of second marble

(4/10)*(1/3) =(4/30)= 2/15

Answer:

the probability of getting 3 aces and 2 kings when you draw 5 cards from the deck is 24 / 2598960 = 9.234463016 * 10^-6.

Step-by-step explanation:

the number of ways you can get 3 aces out of 4 aces is c(4,3) = 4.

the number of ways you can get 2 kings out of 4 kings is c(4,2) = 6.

the number of ways you can get 2 kings and 3 aces is 4 * 6 = 24.

the number of ways you can get 5 cards out of a deck of 52 cards is c(52,5) = 2598960.

Answer:

I have not answer

plz follow me....

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

100fps=68.182mph

68.182/3.8=17.94

Mellissa's speed will be 17.94 mph.

Speed is defined as the ratio of the time distance travelled by the body to the time taken by the body to cover the distance.

It is given that Melissa is able to Rollerblade 100 feet in 3.8 seconds.

We know that 100fps is equal to 68.182mph.

Mellissa's speed in meters per hour is calculated as:-

S = 68.182/3.8=17.94mph

Therefore, Mellissa's speed will be 17.94 mph.

To know more about Speed follow

https://brainly.com/question/6504879

#SPJ2

Answer:

Question cannot nicely

Answer:

Solution : Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

1. This point first underwent a translation of 1 unit up and 4 units left. After a translation of 1 unit up, the coordinate would be ( - 2, 8 ), and after moving 4 units left the coordinate would be ( - 6, 8 ). This is our new point after the translation.

2. Next, point ( - 6, 8 ) was reflected about the x - axis. This would make the coordinate ( - 6, - 8 ) - as it now enters the third quadrant, where all possible x and y coordinates are taken to be negative.

3. Now point ( - 6, - 8 ) is rotated 90 degrees anticlockwise about the origin. Remember that this point is in the third quadrant. If it moves anticlockwise 90 degrees, it will end up in the fourth quadrant, seemingly at point ( 8, - 6 ).

The given quadrilateral (call it Q) is a trapezoid with "base" lengths of 6 and 12, and "height" 2, so its area is (6 + 12)/2*2 = 18. This means the joint density is

[tex]f_{X,Y}(x,y)=\begin{cases}\frac1{18}&\text{for }(x,y)\in Q\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}[/tex]

where Q is the set of points

[tex]Q=\{(x,y)\mid0\le x\le 2\land0\le y\le12-3x\}[/tex]

(y = 12 - 3x is the equation of the line through the points (0, 12) and (2, 6))

Recall the definition of expectation:

[tex]E[g(X,Y)]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty\int_{-\infty}^\infty g(x,y)f_{X,Y}(x,y)\,\mathrm dx\,\mathrm dy[/tex]

(a) Using the definition above, we have

[tex]E[X]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty\int_{-\infty}^\infty xf_{X,Y}(x,y)\,\mathrm dx\,\mathrm dy=\int_0^2\int_0^{12-3x}\frac x{18}\,\mathrm dy\,\mathrm dx=\frac89[/tex]

(b) Likewise,

[tex]E[Y]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty\int_{-\infty}^\ifnty yf_{X,Y}(x,y)\,\mathrm dx\,\mathrm dy=\int_0^2\int_0^{12-3x}\frac y{18}\,\mathrm dy\,\mathrm dx=\frac{14}3[/tex]

Answer:

680

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of red beans = 30

Number of Blue beans = 30

Number of green beans = 30

How many color combinations of 15 beans have at least 6 green beans?

Since at least 6 of the beans must be green,

Then (15 - 6) = 9

Then, the remaining 9 could be either red, blue or green.

Therefore, C(9 + (9 - 1), 3)

C(17, 3) = 17C3

nCr = n! ÷ (n-r)! r!

17C3 = 17! ÷ (17 - 3)! 3!

17C3 = 17! ÷ 14!3!

17C3 = (17 * 16 * 15) / (3 * 2)

17C3 = 4080 / 6

17C3 = 680 ways

Using the combination formula, it is found that there are 17,157,323,000,000,000 color combinations of 15 beans have at least 6 green beans.

The order in which the beans are chosen is not important, hence, the combination formula is used to solve this question.

Combination formula:

[tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by:

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

Th total number of combinations of 15 beans from a set of 30 + 30 + 30 = 90 is:

[tex]C_{90,15} = \frac{90!}{15!75!} = 45795674000000000[/tex]

With less than 6 green, we have:

0 green:

[tex]C_{30,0}C_{60,15} = \frac{60!}{15!45!} = 53194089000000[/tex]

1 green:

[tex]C_{30,1}C_{60,14} = \frac{30!}{1!29!} \times \frac{60!}{14!46!} = 520376960000000[/tex]

2 green:

[tex]C_{30,2}C_{60,13} = \frac{30!}{2!28!} \times \frac{60!}{13!47!} = 2247585600000000[/tex]

3 green:

[tex]C_{30,3}C_{60,12} = \frac{30!}{3!27!} \times \frac{60!}{12!48!} = 5681396900000000[/tex]

4 green:

[tex]C_{30,4}C_{60,11} = \frac{30!}{4!26!} \times \frac{60!}{11!49!} = 9391696900000000[/tex]

5 green:

[tex]C_{30,5}C_{60,10} = \frac{30!}{5!25!} \times \frac{60!}{10!50!} = 10744101000000000[/tex]

Hence, the total for the number of combinations with less than 5 green is:

[tex]53194089000000 + 520376960000000 + 2247585600000000 + 5681396900000000 + 9391696900000000 + 10744101000000000 = 28638351000000000[/tex]

Subtracting the total amount of combinations from the number with less than 5 green, the number of combinations with at least 6 green is:

[tex]T = 45795674000000000 - 28638351000000000 = 17157323000000000[/tex]

There are 17,157,323,000,000,000 color combinations of 15 beans have at least 6 green beans.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/24437717

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  j-k = 13/6

Step-by-step explanation:

The quadratic formula tells you the two solutions are ...

  x = (-b/(2a)) ±√(b² -4ac)/(2a)

The difference between these solutions is ...

  j-k = √(b² -4ac)/a

  j-k = √((-7)² -4(6)(-5))/6 = √(49 +120)/6 = √169/6

  j-k = 13/6

Answer:

43

Step-by-step explanation:

18x+7

=18×2+7

=36×9

=45

Answer:

43

Step-by-step explanation:

x=2

18x+7

18(2)+7

36+7

43

Hope this helps ;) ❤❤❤

55 I hope this helps you!

He spent $22.5 on the student discount card.

This question is solved using proportions.

The cost of each card is of $1.50.

Paul bought 15 passes, that is, 15 cards.

Considering that he bought 15 cards, each for $1.50, his spending was of:

He spent $22.5 on the student discount card.

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

36 - 20 - 32 x 1/4

=> 36 - 20 - 32/4

=> 36 - 20 - 8

=> 36 - 28

=> 6

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

f(-2) = -3*(-2^2)

f(-2) = -3*-4

f(-2) = 12

Answer:

-59

Step-by-step explanation:

x+41=-18

x= -18-41

x = -59

Answer:

y=(3/5)x+1

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope-intercept form of a line is as follows

y=mx+c, where m is the slope of the line and c is the y intercept.

Hence the equation of the line is y=(3/5)x+1

Answer:

32.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey there!

To find the probability we first need to find the amount of prime numbers in the 1-40 set.

Prime - 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37

That’s 13 prime numbers.

Fraction - 13/40

Simplified is just 13/40.

13 / 40 = .325

Percent - 32.5%

Hope this helps :)

Answer: infinitely many