The density of glycerin is 20 g/cm³ at 20 °C. Find the density of glycerin at 60 °C. The volume coefficient of glycerin is 5.1 x 10-4 °C-¹. A) 19.6 g/cm³ B 21.2 g/cm³ C 20.12 g/cm³ D 20 g/cm³

The time taken by a photon to travel through the film is 5 × 10^-12 s.

The index of refraction of a transparent material is 1.5. If the thickness of a film made out of this material is 1 mm, the time taken by a photon to travel through the film can be calculated as follows:

Formula used in the calculation is: `t = d/v` Where:

t is the time taken by photon to travel through the film

d is the distance traveled by photon through the film

v is the speed of light in the medium, which can be calculated as `v = c/n` Where:

c is the speed of light in vacuum

n is the refractive index of the medium

Refractive index of the transparent material, n = 1.5

Thickness of the film, d = 1 mm = 0.001 m

Speed of light in vacuum, c = 3 × 108 m/s

Substituting the values in the above expression for v:`

v = c/n = (3 × 10^8)/(1.5) = 2 × 10^8 m/s

`Now, substituting the values in the formula for t:`

t = d/v = (0.001)/(2 × 10^8) = 5 × 10^-12 s

`Therefore, the time taken by a photon to travel through the film is 5 × 10^-12 s.

Learn more about photon https://brainly.com/question/10080428

#SPJ11

For an electromagnetic wave traveling in the -z direction (opposite to the positive z-axis), the electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) are perpendicular to each other and to the direction of propagation.

Using the right-hand rule, we find that the electric field (E) will be in the +y direction. So, the correct answer for the electric field direction is:

A. +E (in the +y direction)

Since the magnetic field (B) is perpendicular to the electric field and the direction of propagation, it will be in the +x direction. So, the correct answer for the magnetic field direction is:

B. +x

Therefore, the correct answers are:

Electric field (E) direction: A. +E (in the +y direction)

Magnetic field (B) direction: B. +x

Learn more about electromagnetic wave here : brainly.com/question/29774932
#SPJ11

According to Gay-Lussac's Law, the relationship between temperature and pressure is directly proportional. This implies that if the temperature is increased, the pressure of a confined gas will also rise.

The Gay-Lussac's Law is stated as follows:

P₁/T₁ = P₂/T₂ where,

P = pressure,

T = temperature

Now we can calculate the inside pressure become if an aerosol can with an initial pressure of 4.3 atm were heated in a fire from room temperature (20°C) to 600°C as follows:

Given data: P₁ = 4.3 atm (initial pressure), T₁ = 20°C (room temperature), T₂ = 600°C (heated temperature)Therefore,

P₁/T₁ = P₂/T₂4.3/ (20+273)

= P₂/ (600+273)4.3/293

= P₂/8731.9

= P₂P₂ = 1.9 am

therefore, the inside pressure would become 1.9 atm if an aerosol can with an initial pressure of 4.3 atm were heated in a fire from room temperature (20°C) to 600°C.

To know more about Gay-Lussac's Law visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30758452

#SPJ11

1. Yes, the velocities of the cars after the collision can be predicted using conservation laws.

2. Yes, it is possible to predict the total momentum of the system immediately after the collision in an elastic collision.

1. Yes, it is possible to predict the velocities of the cars after the collision using the principles of conservation of momentum and kinetic energy. The collision between the two automobiles is an example of an elastic collision.

2. The pertinent physical quantity that can be predicted immediately after the collision is the total momentum of the system. In an elastic collision, the total momentum before the collision is equal to the total momentum after the collision.

Therefore, the correct answer to question 1 is "Yes," as the velocities of the cars can be predicted, and the correct answer to question 2 is "Yes, it is possible to predict the total momentum."

Learn more about velocity from this link:

https://brainly.com/question/80295

#SPJ11

The distance between the fringes in an interference pattern, often referred to as the fringe spacing or fringe separation, is determined by the wavelength of the light used.

The greater the wavelength, the larger the fringe spacing.

Yellow-green light and green light are both within the visible light spectrum, with yellow-green having a longer wavelength than green.

Therefore, the distance between the fringes will be greater for yellow-green light compared to green light.

The fringe spacing, also known as the fringe separation or fringe width, refers to the distance between adjacent bright fringes (or adjacent dark fringes) in the interference pattern. It is directly related to the wavelength of the light used.

According to the principles of interference, the fringe spacing is determined by the path length difference between the light waves reaching a particular point on the screen from the two slits. Constructive interference occurs when the path length difference is an integer multiple of the wavelength, leading to bright fringes. Destructive interference occurs when the path length difference is a half-integer multiple of the wavelength, resulting in dark fringes.

Learn more about interference here : brainly.com/question/31857527
#SPJ11

The frequency of the third harmonic of an organ pipe open at both ends with a length of 0.80 m and a velocity of sound in air of 340 m/s is 850 Hz. The correct option is C.

For an organ pipe open at both ends, the frequency of the harmonics can be determined using the formula:

fₙ = (nv) / (2L)

where fₙ is the frequency of the nth harmonic, n is the harmonic number, v is the velocity of sound, and L is the length of the pipe.

In this case, we want to find the frequency of the third harmonic, so n = 3. The length of the pipe is given as 0.80 m, and the velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.

Substituting these values into the formula, we have:

f₃ = (3 * 340 m/s) / (2 * 0.80 m)

Calculating this expression gives us:

f₃ = 850 Hz

Therefore, the frequency of the third harmonic of the organ pipe is 850 Hz. Option C is correct one.

To know more about harmonics refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/28217835#

#SPJ11

Complete Question:

Moving to another question will save this response. uestion 13 An organ pipe open at both ends has a length of 0.80 m. If the velocity of sound in air is 340 mv's what is the frequency of the third harmonic of this pipe O 425 Hz O 638 Hz O 850 Hz 213 Hz

The work done to stretch the spring by 0.660 m from its relaxed length is 6.38 J (approx).

Given: A spring has a spring constant k = 29.4 N/m and the spring is stretched by 0.660m from its relaxed length i.e initial length. We have to calculate the work that must be done to stretch the spring.

Concept: The work done to stretch a spring is given by the formula;W = (1/2)kx²Where,k = Spring constant,

x = Amount of stretch or compression of the spring.

So, the work done to stretch the spring is given by the above formula.Given: Spring constant, k = 29.4 N/mAmount of stretch, x = 0.660m.

Formula: W = (1/2)kx².Substituting the values in the above formula;W = (1/2)×29.4N/m×(0.660m)²,

W = (1/2)×29.4N/m×0.4356m²,

W = 6.38026 J (approx).

Therefore, the amount of work that must be done to stretch the spring by 0.660 m from its relaxed length is 6.38 J (approx).

From the above question, we can learn about the concept of the work done to stretch a spring and its formula. The work done to stretch a spring is given by the formula W = (1/2)kx² where k is the spring constant and x is the amount of stretch or compression of the spring.

We can also learn how to calculate the work done to stretch a spring using its formula and given values. Here, we are given the spring constant k = 29.4 N/m and the amount of stretch x = 0.660m.

By substituting the given values in the formula, we get the work done to stretch the spring. The amount of work that must be done to stretch the spring by 0.660 m from its relaxed length is 6.38 J (approx).

The work done to stretch a spring is an important concept of Physics. The work done to stretch a spring is given by the formula W = (1/2)kx² where k is the spring constant and x is the amount of stretch or compression of the spring. Here, we have calculated the amount of work done to stretch a spring of spring constant k = 29.4 N/m and an amount of stretch x = 0.660m. Therefore, the work done to stretch the spring by 0.660 m from its relaxed length is 6.38 J (approx).

To know more about Spring constant visit:

brainly.com/question/29975736

#SPJ11

Answer:

1.) The equation W = FΔd equal the work done by the force on the object when the force is in the same direction as the displacement.

2.) The equation W = FΔd equal the work done by the force on the object when the force is in the same direction as the displacement.

3.) The work done on the sofa by the mover is 285 J.

4.) The potential energy of the loaded cart at the top of the hill is 27 J.

6.) The amount of work done by the fuel on the spacecraft is 3.6 x 109 J

7.)  The power the woman exerts when jogging up the hill is 706 W.

8.) The work done on the cart by the shopper is 166 J.

9.) The work done on the car is 7.3 x 107 J.

10.) The ball's maximum height above the tee is 30 m.

Explanation:

1.) The equation W = FΔd equal the work done by the force on the object when the force is in the same direction as the displacement.

2.) The equation W = FΔd equal the work done by the force on the object when the force is in the same direction as the displacement.

Power = Work / Time

Power = (Mass * Acceleration * Height) / Time

Power = (500 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * 10 m) / 15 s

Power = 3.3 x 103 W

3.) The work done on the sofa by the mover is 285 J.

Work = Force * Distance

Work = 500 N * 1.5 m

Work = 285 J

4.)The potential energy of the loaded cart at the top of the hill is 27 J.

Potential Energy = Mass * Gravitational Constant * Height

Potential Energy = 5.0 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * 0.55 m

Potential Energy = 27 J

6.) The amount of work done by the fuel on the spacecraft is 3.6 x 109 J

Work = Kinetic Energy

Work = (1/2) * Mass * Velocity^2

Work = (1/2) * 6.9 x 10^4 kg * (5.2 x 10^3 m/s)^2

Work = 3.6 x 10^9 J

7.) The power the woman exerts when jogging up the hill is 706 W.

Power = Work / Time

Power = (Mass * Gravitational Potential Energy) / Time

Power = (60 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * 30 m) / 25 s

Power = 706 W

8.) The work done on the cart by the shopper is 166 J.

Work = Force * Distance * Cos(theta)

Work = 15 N * 14.2 m * Cos(30)

Work = 166 J

9.) The work done on the car is 7.3 x 107 J.

Work = Force * Distance

Work = (Mass * Acceleration) * Distance

Work = (1.5 x 10^5 kg * (40 m/s - 25 m/s)) * 0.20 km

Work = 7.3 x 10^7 J

10.) The ball's maximum height above the tee is 30 m.

Potential Energy = Mass * Gravitational Constant * Height

255 J = 0.086 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * Height

Height = 30 m

Learn more about Work Done.

https://brainly.com/question/33261315

#SPJ11

When the particle achieves the maximum positive x-coordinate, it is approximately 4.667 meters away from the origin.

Explanation:

To find the distance of the particle from the origin when it achieves the maximum positive x-coordinate, we need to determine the time it takes for the particle to reach that point.

Let's assume the time at which the particle achieves the maximum positive x-coordinate is t_max. To find t_max, we can use the equation of motion in the x-direction:

x = x_0 + v_0x * t + (1/2) * a_x * t²

where:

x = position in the x-direction (maximum positive x-coordinate in this case)

x_0 = initial position in the x-direction (which is 0 in this case as the particle starts from the origin)

v_0x = initial velocity in the x-direction (which is 8.1 m/s in this case)

a_x = acceleration in the x-direction (which is -9.3 m/s² in this case)

t = time

Since the particle starts from the origin, x_0 is 0. Therefore, the equation simplifies to:

x = v_0x * t + (1/2) * a_x * t²

To find t_max, we set the velocity in the x-direction to 0:

0 = v_0x + a_x * t_max

Solving this equation for t_max gives:

t_max = -v_0x / a_x

Plugging in the values, we have:

t_max = -8.1 m/s / -9.3 m/s²

t_max = 0.871 s (approximately)

Now, we can find the distance of the particle from the origin at t_max using the equation:

distance = magnitude of displacement

              =  √[(x - x_0)² + (y - y_0)²]

Since the particle starts from the origin, the initial position (x_0, y_0) is (0, 0).

Therefore, the equation simplifies to:

distance =  √[(x)^2 + (y)²]

To find x and y at t_max, we can use the equations of motion:

x = x_0 + v_0x * t + (1/2) * a_x *t²

y = y_0 + v_0y * t + (1/2) * a_y *t²

where:

v_0y = initial velocity in the y-direction (which is 0 in this case)

a_y = acceleration in the y-direction (which is 8.8 m/s² in this case)

For x:

x = 0 + (8.1 m/s) * (0.871 s) + (1/2) * (-9.3 m/s²) * (0.871 s)²

For y:

y = 0 + (0 m/s) * (0.871 s) + (1/2) * (8.8 m/s²) * (0.871 s)²

Evaluating these expressions, we find:

x ≈ 3.606 m

y ≈ 2.885 m

Now, we can calculate the distance:

distance = √[(3.606 m)² + (2.885 m)²]

distance ≈ 4.667 m

To know more about acceleration, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/2303856

#SPJ11

If an eye is farsighted the image defect is that distant objects image is formed in front of the retina. Therefore, the answer is a) distant objects image is formed in front of the retina.

An eye that is farsighted, also known as hyperopia, is a visual disorder in which distant objects are visible and clear, but close objects appear blurred. The farsightedness arises when the eyeball is too short or the refractive power of the cornea is too weak. As a result, the light rays converge at a point beyond the retina instead of on it, causing the near object image to be formed behind the retina.

Conversely, the light rays from distant objects focus in front of the retina instead of on it, resulting in a blurry image of distant objects. Thus, if an eye is farsighted the image defect is that distant objects image is formed in front of the retina.

To learn more about retina visit;

https://brainly.com/question/15141911

#SPJ11

The time it takes before the charged particle is moving in its circular path with angular velocity ω=52 rads/s is 0.56 second

a) The initial force on the charged particle is 14.7 N.

b) The time it takes before the charged particle is moving in its circular path with angular velocity ω=52 rads/s is 0.56 seconds.

Here are the details:

a) The force on a charged particle in a magnetic field is given by the following formula:

F = q v B

where:

* F is the force in newtons

* q is the charge in coulombs

* v is the velocity in meters per second

* B is the magnetic field strength in teslas

In this case, the charge is q = 7 μC = 7 * 10^-6 C. The velocity is v = 0 m/s (the particle starts from rest). The magnetic field strength is B = 0.4 T. Plugging in these values, we get:

F = 7 * 10^-6 C * 0 m/s * 0.4 T = 0 N

Therefore, the initial force on the charged particle is 0 N.

b) The time it takes for the charged particle to reach its final velocity is given by the following formula:

t = 2π m / q B

where:

* t is the time in seconds

* m is the mass of the particle in kilograms

* q is the charge in coulombs

* B is the magnetic field strength in teslas

In this case, the mass is m = 1 kg. The charge is q = 7 μC = 7 * 10^-6 C. The magnetic field strength is B = 0.4 T. Plugging in these values, we get:

t = 2π * 1 kg / 7 * 10^-6 C * 0.4 T = 0.56 seconds

Therefore, the time it takes before the charged particle is moving in its circular path with angular velocity ω=52 rads/s is 0.56 second.

Learn more about particles in the given link,

https://brainly.com/question/27911483

#SPJ11

The magnitudes of the initial forces on the two particles are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. However, the magnitudes of the initial accelerations of the particles depend on their masses and charges.

According to Coulomb's law, the magnitude of the electrostatic force between two charged particles is given by the equation:

F = k * (|q1 * q2|) / r^2

where F is the magnitude of the force, k is the electrostatic constant, q1 and q2 are the charges of the particles, and r is the distance between them.

Since the charges of the particles are both positive, the forces on the particles will be attractive. The magnitudes of the forces, F1 and F2, will be equal, but their directions will be opposite. This is because the forces between the particles always act along the line joining their centers.

Now, when it comes to the magnitudes of the initial accelerations, they depend on the masses of the particles. The equation for the magnitude of acceleration is:

a = F / m

where a is the magnitude of the acceleration, F is the magnitude of the force, and m is the mass of the particle.

Since the masses of the particles are given in the figure, the magnitudes of their initial accelerations, a1 and a2, will depend on their respective masses. If particle 1 has a larger mass than particle 2, its acceleration will be smaller compared to particle 2.

In summary, the magnitudes of the initial forces on the particles are equal but opposite in direction. The magnitudes of the initial accelerations depend on the masses of the particles, with the particle of greater mass experiencing a smaller acceleration.

Learn more about Coulomb's law.
brainly.com/question/506926
#SPJ11

The panda would move with a speed of 18 m/s, and the angular speed of the Mary-go-round is 4 rad/s.

The linear speed of an object moving in a circle is given by the product of its angular speed and the distance from the center of the circle. In this case, we have the giraffe located 1.5m from the center and moving with a speed of 6 m/s. Therefore, we can calculate the angular speed of the giraffe using the formula:

Angular speed = Linear speed / Distance from the center

Angular speed = 6 m/s / 1.5 m

Angular speed = 4 rad/s

Now, to find the speed of the panda, who is located 4.5m from the center, we can use the same formula:

Speed of the panda = Angular speed * Distance from the center

Speed of the panda = 4 rad/s * 4.5 m

Speed of the panda = 18 m/s

So, the panda would move with a speed of 18 m/s, and the angular speed of the Mary-go-round is 4 rad/s.

Learn more about angular speed:

brainly.com/question/29058152

#SPJ11

A woman on a bridge 108 m high sees a raft floating at a constant speed on the river below.She drops a stone from rest in an attempt to hit the raft.The stone is released when the raft has 4.25 m more to travel before passing under the bridge.

The stone hits the water 1.58 m in front of the raft.A formula that can be used here is:

s = ut + 1/2at2

where,

s = distance,

u = initial velocity,

t = time,

a = acceleration.

As the stone is dropped from rest so u = 0m/s and acceleration of the stone is g = 9.8m/s²

We can use the above formula for the stone to find the time it will take to hit the water.

t = √2s/gt

= √(2×108/9.8)t

= √22t

= 4.69s

Now, the time taken by the raft to travel 4.25 m can be found as below:

4.25 = v × 4.69  

⇒ v = 4.25/4.69  

⇒ v = 0.906 m/s

So, the speed of the raft is 0.906 m/s.An alternative method can be using the following formula:

s = vt

where,

s is the distance travelled,

v is the velocity,

t is the time taken.

For the stone, distance travelled is 108m and the time taken is 4.69s. Thus,

s = vt

⇒ 108 = 4.69v  

⇒ v = 108/4.69  

⇒ v = 23.01 m/s

Speed of raft is distance travelled by raft/time taken by raft to cover this distance + distance travelled by stone/time taken by stone to cover this distance.The distance travelled by the stone is (108 + 1.58) m, time taken is 4.69s.The distance travelled by the raft is (4.25 + 1.58) m, time taken is 4.69s.

Thus, speed of raft = (4.25 + 1.58)/4.69 m/s

= 1.15 m/s (approx).

Hence, the speed of the raft is 1.15 m/s.

To know more about speed  , visit;

https://brainly.com/question/13943409

#SPJ11

The impulse that the wall gave the ball is equal to the change in momentum, so:

Impulse = Change in momentum = -0.9 kg m/s

The impulse that the wall gave the ball can be calculated using the impulse-momentum theorem. The impulse-momentum theorem states that the impulse exerted on an object is equal to the change in momentum of the object. Mathematically, this can be written as:

Impulse = Change in momentum

In this case, the ball collides with the wall and rebounds in the opposite direction. Therefore, there is a change in momentum from the initial momentum of the ball to the final momentum of the ball. The change in momentum is given by:

Change in momentum = Final momentum - Initial momentum

The initial momentum of the ball is:

Initial momentum = mass x velocity = 0.5 kg x 1 m/s = 0.5 kg m/s

The final momentum of the ball is:

Final momentum = mass x velocity

= 0.5 kg x (-0.8 m/s) = -0.4 kg m/s (note that the velocity is negative since the ball is moving in the opposite direction)

Therefore, the change in momentum is:

Change in momentum = -0.4 kg m/s - 0.5 kg m/s = -0.9 kg m/s

The impulse that the wall gave the ball is equal to the change in momentum, so:

Impulse = Change in momentum = -0.9 kg m/s

learn more about velocity here

https://brainly.com/question/25749514

#SPJ11

The force exerted by the water on the bottom of tank A is less than the force exerted by the water on the bottom of tank B.

The force exerted by a fluid depends on its pressure and the surface area it acts upon. In this case, although the water level and height of the tanks are equal, tank A has the greatest surface area at the bottom, tank B has a middle surface area, and tank C has the least surface area.

The force exerted by the water on the bottom of a tank is directly proportional to the pressure and the surface area. Since the water pressure at the bottom of the tanks is the same (as they are filled to the same depth), the force exerted by the water on the bottom of tank A would be greater than the force exerted on tank B because tank A has a larger surface area at the bottom.

The pressure exerted on the bottom of tank A is equal to the pressure on the bottom of the other two tanks. Pressure in a fluid is determined by the depth of the fluid and the density of the fluid, but it is not affected by the surface area. Therefore, the pressure at the bottom of all three tanks is the same, regardless of their surface areas.

The force due to the water on the bottom of tank B is true and equal to the weight of the water in the tank. This is because the force exerted by a fluid on a surface is equal to the weight of the fluid directly above it. In tank B, the water exerts a force on its bottom that is equal to the weight of the water in the tank.

The water in tank C does not exert a downward force on the sides of the tank. The pressure exerted by the water at any given depth is perpendicular to the sides of the container. The force exerted by the water on the sides of the tank is a result of the pressure, but it acts horizontally and is balanced out by the pressure from the opposite side. Therefore, the water in tank C exerts an equal pressure on the sides of the tank but does not exert a net downward force.

The pressure at the bottom of tank A is less than the pressure at the bottom of tank C. This is because pressure in a fluid increases with depth. Since tank A has a greater depth than tank C (as they are filled to the same level), the pressure at the bottom of tank A is greater.

Learn more about Force

brainly.com/question/30507236

#SPJ11

The position of the second maximum (second-order maximum) in this double-slit experiment would be 0.05 mm.

To find the position of the second maximum (second-order maximum) in a double-slit experiment, we can use the formula for the position of the maxima:

[tex]\[ y = \frac{m \cdot \lambda \cdot L}{d} \][/tex]

Where:

- [tex]\( y \) is the position of the maxima[/tex]

- [tex]\( m \) is the order of the maxima (in this case, the second maximum has \( m = 2 \))[/tex]

-[tex]\( \lambda \) is the wavelength of the laser light (500 nm or \( 500 \times 10^{-9} \) m)[/tex]

-[tex]\( L \) is the distance from the slits to the screen (1 m)[/tex]

- [tex]\( d \) is the slit width (20 mm or \( 20 \times 10^{-3} \) m)[/tex]

Substituting the given values into the formula:

[tex]\[ y = \frac{2 \cdot 500 \times 10^{-9} \cdot 1}{20 \times 10^{-3}} \][/tex]

Simplifying the expression:

[tex]\[ y = \frac{2 \cdot 500 \times 10^{-9}}{20 \times 10^{-3}} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ y = 0.05 \times 10^{-3} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ y = 0.05 \, \text{mm} \][/tex]

Therefore, the position of the second maximum (second-order maximum) in this double-slit experiment would be 0.05 mm.

Learn more about experiment at https://brainly.com/question/25303029

#SPJ4

A resistance of approximately 2.06 kΩ should be connected in series with the given inductance and capacitance for the maximum charge on the capacitor to decay to 95.5% of its initial value in 72.0 cycles.

To find the resistance R required in series with the given inductance L = 197 mH and capacitance C = 15.8 uF, we can use the formula:

R = -(72.0/f) / (C * ln(0.955))

where f is the frequency of the circuit.

First, let's calculate the time period (T) of one cycle using the formula T = 1/f. Since the frequency is given in cycles per second (Hz), we can convert it to the time period in seconds.

T = 1 / f = 1 / (72.0 cycles) = 1.39... x 10^(-2) s/cycle.

Next, we calculate the angular frequency (ω) using the formula ω = 2πf.

ω = 2πf = 2π / T = 2π / (1.39... x 10^(-2) s/cycle) = 452.39... rad/s.

Now, let's substitute the values into the formula to find R:

R = -(72.0 / (1.39... x 10^(-2) s/cycle)) / (15.8 x 10^(-6) F * ln(0.955))

= -5202.8... / (15.8 x 10^(-6) F * (-0.046...))

≈ 2.06 x 10^(3) Ω.

Therefore, a resistance of approximately 2.06 kΩ should be connected in series with the given inductance and capacitance to achieve a decay of the maximum charge on the capacitor to 95.5% of its initial value in 72.0 cycles.

Learn more about circuit from the given link:

https://brainly.com/question/12608516

#SPJ11

The received frequency would be approximately 55.74 Hz, higher than the emitted frequency, due to the Doppler effect caused by the torpedo moving towards the submarine.

The received frequency in Hz would be different from the emitted frequency due to the relative motion between the submarine and the torpedo. This effect is known as the Doppler effect.

In this scenario, since the torpedo is moving toward the submarine, the received frequency would be higher than the emitted frequency. The formula for calculating the Doppler effect in sound waves is given by:

Received frequency = Emitted frequency × (v + vr) / (v + vs)

Where:

"Emitted frequency" is the frequency emitted by the torpedo (50 Hz in this case).

"v" is the speed of sound in the medium (approximately 343 m/s in seawater).

"vr" is the velocity of the torpedo relative to the medium (40 m/s in this case, assuming it is moving directly towards the submarine).

"vs" is the velocity of the submarine relative to the medium (assumed to be at rest, so vs = 0).

Plugging in the values:

Received frequency = 50 Hz × (343 m/s + 40 m/s) / (343 m/s + 0 m/s)

Received frequency ≈ 55.74 Hz

Therefore, the received frequency in Hz would be approximately 55.74 Hz.

To learn more about frequency

https://brainly.com/question/254161

#SPJ11

The mirror required is concave. The radius of curvature of the mirror is -1.1 m. The mirror should be positioned at a distance of 0.7458 m from the object.

Given,
Image height (hᵢ) = 5.9 times the object height (h₀)
Screen distance (s) = 4.40 m

Let us solve each part of the question :
Is the mirror required concave or convex? We know that the magnification (M) for a spherical mirror is given by: Magnification,

M = - (Image height / Object height)
Also, the image is real when the magnification (M) is negative. So, we can write:

M = -5.9

[Given]Since, M is negative, the image is real. Thus, we require a concave mirror to form a real image.

What is the required radius of curvature of the mirror? We know that the focal length (f) for a spherical mirror is related to its radius of curvature (R) as:

Focal length, f = R/2

Also, for an object at a distance of p from the mirror, the mirror formula is given by:

1/p + 1/q = 1/f

Where, q = Image distance So, for the real image:

q = s = 4.4 m

Substituting the values in the mirror formula, we get:

1/p + 1/4.4 = 1/f…(i)

Also, from the magnification formula:

M = -q/p

Substituting the values, we get:

-5.9 = -4.4/p

So, the object distance is: p = 0.7458 m

Substituting this value in equation (i), we get:

1/0.7458 + 1/4.4 = 1/f

Solving further, we get:

f = -0.567 m

Since the focal length is negative, the mirror is a concave mirror.

Therefore, the radius of curvature of the mirror is:

R = 2f

R = 2 x (-0.567) m

R = -1.13 m

R ≈ -1.1 m

Where should the mirror be positioned relative to the object? We know that the object distance (p) is given by:

p = -q/M Substituting the given values, we get:

p = -4.4 / 5.9

p = -0.7458 m

We know that the mirror is to be placed between the object and its focus. So, the mirror should be positioned at a distance of 0.7458 m from the object.

Thus, it can be concluded that the required radius of curvature of the concave mirror is -1.1 m. The concave mirror is to be positioned at a distance of 0.7458 m from the object.

to know more about mirror visit:

brainly.com/question/1160148

#SPJ11

If an applied force on an object acts antiparallel to the direction of the object's movement, the work done by the applied force is negative.

The transfer of energy from one object to another by applying a force to an object, which makes it move in the direction of the force is known as work. When the applied force acts in the opposite direction to the object's movement, the work done by the force is negative.

The formula for work is given by: Work = force x distance x cosθ where,θ is the angle between the applied force and the direction of movement. If the angle between force and movement is 180° (antiparallel), then cosθ = -1 and work done will be negative. Therefore, if an applied force on an object acts antiparallel to the direction of the object's movement, the work done by the applied force is negative.

Learn more about work done here:

https://brainly.com/question/32263955

#SPJ11

The maximum amplitude of the table at which the block does not slip on the surface is 0.0727m.

As the table is undergoing simple harmonic motion, the acceleration of the block towards the center of the table can be given as a = -ω²x, where r of the block from the center of the table. The maximum acceleration is when x = A, where A is the amplitude of the motion, and can be given as a_max = ω²A.

To prevent the block from slipping, the maximum value of the frictional force (ffriction = μN) should be greater than or equal to the maximum value of the force pulling the block (fmax = mamax). Therefore, we have μmg >= mω²A, where m is the mass of the block and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Rearranging the equation, we get A <= (μg/ω²).

Substituting the given values, we get

A <= (0.729.8)/(2π3) = 0.0727m.

Therefore, the maximum amplitude of the table at which the block does not slip is 0.0727m.

To learn more about amplitude click brainly.com/question/3613222

#SPJ11

The angle of reflection at point A is 40°, which is equal to the angle of incidence.

When a beam of light encounters an interface between two different materials, it undergoes reflection and refraction. The angle of incidence, which is the angle between the incident beam and the normal to the interface, is equal to the angle of reflection, which is the angle between the reflected beam and the normal to the interface.

In this case, the incident beam makes an angle of 40° with the interface, so the angle of reflection at point A is also 40°. When light travels from one medium to another, it changes its direction due to the change in speed caused by the change in refractive index.

The law of reflection states that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. This means that the angle at which the light ray strikes the interface is the same as the angle at which it bounces off the interface.

In this scenario, the incident beam of light strikes the interface between material 1 and material 2 at an angle of 40°. According to the law of reflection, the angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence, so the light ray will bounce off the interface at the same 40° angle with respect to the normal.

Learn more about reflection

brainly.com/question/30031394

#SPJ11

Answer:

Vout / Vs = |(R - j(ωL - 1 / ωC)) / (R + (ωL - 1 / ωC)² - j(2ωL + 1 / ω

Explanation:

To derive the expression for Vout / Vs, the ratio of the output and source voltage amplitudes in a low-pass filter, we can analyze the behavior of the

circuit.

In an L-R-C series circuit, the impedance (Z) of the circuit is given by:

Z = R + j(ωL - 1 / ωC)

where R is the

resistance

, L is the inductance, C is the capacitance, j is the imaginary unit, and ω is the angular frequency of the source.

The output voltage (Vout) can be calculated using the voltage divider rule:

Vout = Vs * (Zc / Z)

where Vs is the source voltage and Zc is the impedance of the capacitor.

The impedance of the capacitor is given by:

Zc = 1 / (jωC)

Now, let's substitute the expressions for Z and Zc into the voltage divider equation:

Vout = Vs * (1 / (jωC)) / (R + j(ωL - 1 / ωC))

To simplify the expression, we can multiply the numerator and denominator by the complex conjugate of the denominator:

Vout = Vs * (1 / (jωC)) * (R - j(ωL - 1 / ωC)) / (R + j(ωL - 1 / ωC)) * (R - j(ωL - 1 / ωC))

Expanding the denominator and simplifying, we get:

Vout = Vs * (R - j(ωL - 1 / ωC)) / (R + jωL - j / (ωC) - jωL + 1 / ωC + (ωL - 1 / ωC)²)

Simplifying further, we obtain:

Vout = Vs * (R - j(ωL - 1 / ωC)) / (R + (ωL - 1 / ωC)² - j(2ωL + 1 / ωC))

The magnitude of the output voltage is given by:

|Vout| = |Vs * (R - j(ωL - 1 / ωC)) / (R + (ωL - 1 / ωC)² - j(2ωL + 1 / ωC))|

To find the ratio Vout / Vs, we divide the magnitude of the output voltage by the magnitude of the source voltage:

Vout / Vs = |(R - j(ωL - 1 / ωC)) / (R + (ωL - 1 / ωC)² - j(2ωL + 1 / ωC))|

Now, let's simplify this expression further.

We can write the complex quantity in the numerator and denominator in polar form as:

R - j(ωL - 1 / ωC) = A * e^(-jφ)

and

R + (ωL - 1 / ωC)² - j(2ωL + 1 / ωC) = B * e^(-jθ)

where A, φ, B, and θ are real numbers.

Taking the magnitude of the numerator and denominator:

|A * e^(-jφ)| = |A| = A

and

|B * e^(-jθ)| = |B| = B

Therefore, we have:

Vout / Vs = |(R - j(ωL - 1 / ωC)) / (R + (ωL - 1 / ωC)² - j(2ωL + 1 / ωv

Vout / Vs = |(R - j(ωL - 1 / ωC)) / (R + (ωL - 1 / ωC)² - j(2ωL + 1 / ω

Learn more about

voltage

here:

brainly.com/question/32002804

#SPJ11

When expressed as a fraction of more than 1, 18/4 is equivalent to 4 and 1/2.

To express 18/4 as a fraction of more than 1, we need to rewrite it in the form of a mixed number or an improper fraction.

To start, we divide the numerator (18) by the denominator (4) to find the whole number part of the mixed number. 18 divided by 4 equals 4 with a remainder of 2. So the whole number part is 4.

The remainder (2) becomes the numerator of the fraction, while the denominator remains the same. Thus, the fraction part is 2/4.

However, we can simplify this fraction further by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 2. Dividing 2 by 2 equals 1, and dividing 4 by 2 equals 2. Therefore, the simplified fraction is 1/2.

Combining the whole number part and the simplified fraction, we get the final expression: 18/4 is equivalent to 4 and 1/2 when expressed as a fraction of more than 1.

To learn more about fractions

https://brainly.com/question/10354322

#SPJ8

The stone reaches the bottom of the cliff approximately 4.20 seconds later. The speed just before hitting the bottom is approximately 40.6 m/s.

Part A: To find how much later the stone reaches the bottom of the cliff, we can use the kinematic equation for vertical motion. The equation is:

h = ut + (1/2)gt^2

Where:

h = height of the cliff (75.0 m, negative since it's downward)

u = initial velocity (15.6 m/s)

g = acceleration due to gravity (-9.8 m/s^2, negative since it's downward)

t = time

Plugging in the values, we get:

-75.0 = (15.6)t + (1/2)(-9.8)t^2

Solving this quadratic equation, we find two values for t: one for the stone going up and one for it coming down. We're interested in the time it takes for it to reach the bottom, so we take the positive value of t. Rounded to three significant figures, the time it takes for the stone to reach the bottom of the cliff is approximately 4.20 seconds.

Part B: The speed just before hitting the bottom can be found using the equation for final velocity in vertical motion:

v = u + gt

Where:

v = final velocity (what we want to find)

u = initial velocity (15.6 m/s)

g = acceleration due to gravity (-9.8 m/s^2, negative since it's downward)

t = time (4.20 s)

Plugging in the values, we get:

v = 15.6 + (-9.8)(4.20)

Calculating, we find that the speed just before hitting is approximately -40.6 m/s. Since speed is a scalar quantity, we take the magnitude of the value, giving us a speed of approximately 40.6 m/s.

Part C: To find the total distance traveled by the stone, we need to calculate the distance covered during the upward motion and the downward motion separately, and then add them together.

Distance covered during upward motion:

Using the equation for distance covered in vertical motion:

s = ut + (1/2)gt^2

Where:

s = distance covered during upward motion (what we want to find)

u = initial velocity (15.6 m/s)

g = acceleration due to gravity (-9.8 m/s^2, negative since it's downward)

t = time (4.20 s)

Plugging in the values, we get:

s = (15.6)(4.20) + (1/2)(-9.8)(4.20)^2

Calculating, we find that the distance covered during the upward motion is approximately 33.1 m.

Distance covered during downward motion:

Since the stone comes back down to the bottom of the cliff, the distance covered during the downward motion is equal to the height of the cliff, which is 75.0 m.

Total distance traveled:

Adding the distance covered during the upward and downward motion, we get:

Total distance = 33.1 + 75.0

Rounded to three significant figures, the total distance traveled by the stone is approximately 108 m.

To know more about distance:

https://brainly.com/question/13034462

#SPJ11

A)Draw a PV diagram

PV diagram is drawn by considering its constituent processes i.e. adiabatic process, isochoric process, and isothermal expansion process.

PV Diagram: From the initial state, the gas is compressed adiabatically to 1/4th its volume. This is a curve process and occurs without heat exchange. It is because the gas container is insulated and no heat can enter or exit the container. The second process is cooling at a constant volume. This means that the volume is constant, but the temperature and pressure are changing. The third process is isothermal expansion, which means that the temperature remains constant. The gas expands from its current state back to its original state at a constant temperature.

B) Find the Heat, Work, and Change in Energy for each process

Heat for Adiabatic Compression, Cooling at constant volume, Isothermal Expansion  will be 0, -9600J, 9600J respectively. work will be -7200J, 0J, 7200J respectively. Change in Energy will be -7200J, -9600J, 2400J.

The Heat, Work and Change in Energy are shown in the table below:

Process                                       Heat      Work         Change in Energy

Adiabatic Compression                0         -7200 J          -7200 J

Cooling at constant volume     -9600 J      0                 -9600 J

Isothermal Expansion               9600 J    7200 J           2400 J

Net Work Done = Work Done in Adiabatic Compression + Work Done in Isothermal Expansion= 7200 J + (-7200 J) = 0

Net Heat = Heat Absorbed during Cooling at Constant Volume + Heat Released during Isothermal Expansion= -9600 J + 9600 J = 0

C) What is net heat and work done?

The net heat and work done are both zero.

Net Work Done = Work Done in Adiabatic Compression + Work Done in Isothermal Expansion = 0

Net Heat = Heat Absorbed during Cooling at Constant Volume + Heat Released during Isothermal Expansion = 0

Therefore, the net heat and work done are both zero.

Learn more about work: https://brainly.in/question/22847362

#SPJ11

In problem 1, the x and y components of the vector F are found to be 50.19 N and 51.95 N, respectively. In problem 2, the polar coordinate form of vector A is determined to be 11.01 m at an angle of -48.92 degrees, while vector v is expressed as 76.46 m/s at an angle of -197.65 degrees.

In problem 1a, the vector force F, is given with a magnitude of 67.9 N and an angle of 38 degrees. To find the x and y components, we use the trigonometric functions cosine (cos) and sine (sin).

The x component is calculated as Fx = F * cos(θ), where θ is the angle, yielding Fx = 67.9 N * cos(38°) = 50.19 N. Similarly, the y component is determined as Fy = F * sin(θ), resulting in Fy = 67.9 N * sin(38°) = 51.95 N.

In problem 1b, the vector v is given with a magnitude of 8.76 m/s and an angle of -57.3 degrees. Using the same trigonometric functions, we can find the x and y components.

The x component is calculated as vx = v * cos(θ), which gives vx = 8.76 m/s * cos(-57.3°) = 4.44 m/s. The y component is determined as vy = v * sin(θ), resulting in vy = 8.76 m/s * sin(-57.3°) = -7.37 m/s.

In problem 2a, the vector components Ax = 7.87 m and Ay = -8.43 m are given. To express this vector in polar coordinate form, we can use the Pythagorean theorem to find the magnitude (r) of the vector, which is r = √(Ax^2 + Ay^2).

Substituting the given values, we obtain r = √((7.87 m)^2 + (-8.43 m)^2) ≈ 11.01 m. The angle (θ) can be determined using the inverse tangent function, tan^(-1)(Ay/Ax), which gives θ = tan^(-1)(-8.43 m/7.87 m) ≈ -48.92 degrees.

Therefore, the polar coordinate form of vector A is approximately 11.01 m at an angle of -48.92 degrees.In problem 2b, the vector components vx = -67.3 m/s and vy = -24.9 m/s are given.

Following a similar procedure as in problem 2a, we find the magnitude of the vector v as r = √(vx^2 + vy^2) = √((-67.3 m/s)^2 + (-24.9 m/s)^2) ≈ 76.46 m/s.

The angle θ can be determined using the inverse tangent function, tan^(-1)(vy/vx), resulting in θ = tan^(-1)(-24.9 m/s/-67.3 m/s) ≈ -197.65 degrees. Hence, the polar coordinate form of vector v is approximately 76.46 m/s at an angle of -197.65 degrees.

Learn more about  force here ;

https://brainly.com/question/30507236

#SPJ11

The image distance is 14.8 cm and it is virtual and upright. Image distance, di = -14.8 cm.

Part A: An expression for image distance, di The formula used to calculate the image distance in terms of the focal length is given as follows;

d = ((1 / f) - (1 / do))^-1

where;f = focal length do = object distance

So, we need to write an expression for the image distance in terms of the object distance and the radius of curvature, R.As we know that;

f = R / 2From the mirror formula;1 / do + 1 / di = 1 / f

Substitute the value of f in the above formula;1 / do + 1 / di = 2 / R Invert both sides; do / (do + di)

= R / 2di

= Rdo / (2do - R)

So, the expression for image distance is; di = Rdo / (2do - R)Substitute the given values;

di = (21.1 cm)(5.1 cm) / [2(5.1 cm) - 21.1 cm]

= -14.8 cm (negative sign indicates that the image is virtual and upright)

To know more about virtual visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31674424

#SPJ11

Carbon has 6 electrons. To determine the number of valence electrons, we need to look at the electron configuration of carbon, which is 1s² 2s² 2p². The third-row element that has the same number of valence electrons as carbon is silicon (Si).

In the case of carbon, the first shell (1s) is fully filled with 2 electrons, and the second shell (2s and 2p) contains the remaining 4 electrons. The 2s subshell can hold a maximum of 2 electrons, and the 2p subshell can hold a maximum of 6 electrons, but in carbon's case, only 2 of the 2p orbitals are occupied. These 4 electrons in the outermost shell, specifically the 2s² and 2p² orbitals, are called valence electrons. The electron configuration describes the distribution of electrons in the different energy levels or shells of an atom.

Therefore, carbon has 4 valence electrons. Valence electrons are crucial in determining the chemical properties and reactivity of an element, as they are involved in the formation of chemical bonds.

The third-row element that has the same number of valence electrons as carbon is silicon (Si). Silicon also has 4 valence electrons, which can be seen in its electron configuration of 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p². Carbon and silicon are in the same group (Group 14) of the periodic table and share similar chemical properties due to their comparable valence electron configurations.

To learn more about, valence electrons, click here, https://brainly.com/question/31264554

#SPJ11

Carbon has 6 electrons in total, with 4 of them being valence electrons. Silicon is the third-row element that shares the same number of valence electrons as carbon.

Carbon has 6 electrons in total. The electron configuration and orbital diagram for carbon are 1s²2s²2p¹, where the 1s and 2s orbitals are completely filled and the remaining two electrons occupy the 2p subshell. This means that carbon has 4 valence electrons.

The third-row element that has the same number of valence electrons as carbon is silicon (Si). Silicon also has 4 valence electrons.

https://brainly.com/question/33829891

#SPJ3