The preconventional level provides the reasoning, the child uses external and physical events (such as pleasure and pain) as the source for decisions about moral rightness or wrongness, his standards are based strictly on what will avoid punishment or bring pleasure.
Lawrence Kohlberg was inspired by Jean Piaget’s work on moral judgment to create a stage theory of moral development in childhood.
The theory includes three levels and six stages of moral thinking. Each level includes two stages. The levels are called preconventional morality, conventional morality, and postconventional morality.
Since it was initially proposed, Kohlberg’s theory has been criticized for overemphasizing a Western male perspective on moral reasoning.
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which are expected outcomes for a patient who is effectively implementing a decision tree to enhance their problem-solving abilities? select all that apply.
Visualizing the potential results, costs, and effects of a complex decision is part of decision tree analysis.
To choose the optimal course of action, decision tree analysis can assist you in visualizing the effects of your choices.
A decision tree is a flowchart that begins with a single central concept and branches out according to the outcomes of your choices. The model often resembles a tree with branches, therefore the name "decision tree."
These trees are employed in decision tree analysis, which entails graphically illustrating the probable results, expenses, and effects of a difficult decision.
Based on the choices and results that led to each outcome, you can use a decision tree to determine its expected value. The best course of action can then be quickly determined by comparing the results to one another.
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a nurse is reviewing the admission assessment data of a client diagnosed with acute gastritis. the nurse determines that the condition most likely occurred as a result of:
According to the nurse, the disease was probably caused by a strain of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori), environmental conditions, or family history.
What causes H. pylori to be so prevalent?Peptic ulcers, or stomach ulcers, are discussed individually. pylori is most likely spread by ingesting food or drink that has been tainted with the bacteria, which is expelled in infected people's feces.
What are the early indicators of acute gastritis?Stomach discomfort, appetite loss, nausea, and vomiting are common signs of acute gastritis. Gastrointestinal bleeding and ulceration can also happen in extreme circumstances. There are many symptoms that patients with gastritis can encounter, such as moderate nausea or an upper abdominal fullness.
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after exercising everybody has different heart rates, which means there is a lot of variability in heart rates. how much of that variability is explained by exercise time?
Heart rate variability can be a useful tool for maximizing your training, according to studies. Your HRV will drop after several days of intense exercise.
What heart rate is ideal for someone my age?Subtract your age from 220 to get a ballpark idea of your maximal age-related heart rate. For instance, the predicted maximum age-related heart rate for a 50-year-old person would be computed as 220 - 50 years = 170 beats per minute (bpm). The 64% level is 170 x 0.64, or 109 bpm, and the 76% level is.
What is an excessive heart rate?The medical word for a heartbeat that is greater than 100 beats per minute is tachycardia. Tachycardia can be brought on by a wide variety of heart rhythm abnormalities (arrhythmias). A rapid heartbeat doesn't always indicate danger.
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A nurse provides preoperative education to a client scheduled to undergo elective surgery. The nurse includes instructions about proper skin care. Which client statement indicates the need for further education?a) "On the morning of surgery, I won't use lotions or cosmetics."b) "On the morning of the surgery, I can shave my surgical area at home to save time."c) "I should begin to use an antibacterial soap a few days before my surgical procedure."d) "I'll shower before coming to the hospital on the day of the surgery."
A nurse will provide preoperative education to a client scheduled for elective surgery. The client's statement indicating the need for further education is c) "I should begin to use an antibacterial soap a few days before my surgical procedure."
What is surgery?Surgery is all treatment actions using invasive procedures, with the stages of opening or showing the part of the body being treated.
Not only treating, but surgery is also performed to prevent a condition that is even worse. For example, surgical removal of intestinal polyps which, if left untreated, can grow into cancer. So this operation is carried out with the aim of removing a number of tissues in the body.
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which nursing interventions are most appropriate for a client who survived a fire in the hospital and is found to have neck trauma, dyspnea, gasping breathing, and is unable to speak? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Using the jaw-thrust technique, Get ready to help with endotracheal intubation are nursing interventions .
The correct options are 1 and 2.
The jaw-thrust technique might be useful for clearing a patient's airway. Endotracheal intubation might help the patient breathe properly. Because it could enter the client's brain, a nasogastric tube shouldn't be inserted. After executing the jaw-thrust procedure, it is necessary to monitor the respiratory rate and oxygen saturation, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary in this circumstance. and heart rate The Because it could enter the client's brain, a nasogastric tube shouldn't be inserted.
Monitoring the respiratory rate and oxygen saturation is crucial after performing the jaw-thrust operation, and endotracheal intubation may be required in this case. Once the client's breathing has returned to normal, it's crucial to keep an eye on the patient's heart rate and rhythm to see how they are doing.
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The complete question is as follows
After a fire in the hospital, a client is found to have dyspnea and gasping breathing. The client also has neck trauma and is unable to speak. Which nursing interventions are most appropriate? Select all that apply.
1
Placing a nasogastric tube
2
Performing jaw-thrust maneuver
3
Prepare assist in performing endotracheal intubation
4
Monitoring respiratory rate and oxygen saturation
5
Monitoring the heart rate and rhythm continuously
the nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and agitated. when the client's family comes to visit the nurse asks how long the client has been confused. the family states that the client has been confused for a long time and the confusion is getting worse. the client is subsequently diagnosed with dementia. what is the most common cause of dementia in an older adult client?
The most common cause of dementia in an older adult client is alzheimer's disease.
Alzheimer's disease is a progressive medical specialty disorder that causes the brain to shrink (atrophy) and brain cells to die. Alzheimer's disease} is that the most typical explanation for dementia — an eternal decline in thinking, activity and social skills that affects somebody's ability to perform severally
During the moderate dementia stage of Alzheimers, folks grow additional confused, agitated and forgetful and start to wish additional facilitate with daily activities and self-care. Folks with the moderate dementia stage of Alzheimers may: Show more and more poor judgment and deepening confusion.
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when assessing a client who is at 12-weeks gestation, the nurse recommends that she and her husband consider attending childbirth preparation classes. when is the best time for the couple to attend these classes?
The best week for childbirth classes is at most 30 weeks.
Why are childbirth classes so important?The earliest that parents would be prepared for such sessions is at 30 weeks of gestation. An engaged student facilitates learning!
When the couple is psychologically prepared to end the pregnancy and the birth of their child is an imminent concern, that is when they are most interested in giving birth.
Women who have received childbirth education have the knowledge, abilities, and attitudes necessary to get ready for pregnancy, labor and delivery, and the first few weeks after giving birth.
Partners benefit from classes by learning what to expect and how to assist. Many mothers have reported feeling more confident about giving birth and labor.
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the nurse should explain to a 30-year-old primigravida client that alpha fetoprotein testing is recommended for which purpose?
A 30-year-old primigravida client should be informed by the nurse that alpha fetoprotein testing is advised to identify cardiovascular issues. Check for flaws in the neural tube.
Which observation shows the nurse that a baby who is 4 days old is getting enough breast milk?A minimum of 2 to 3 wet diapers and 2 stools4 during the course of the second and third days show that your baby is nursing successfully and obtaining the milk she or he requires.
What should the nurse do to stop a newborn from losing heat conduction?When a newborn is placed on a cold surface right after delivery, heat will be transferred to the cold surface. Whenever possible, a scale or resuscitation bed should be pre-warmed to reduce conductive heat loss.
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the nurse is caring for a woman with terminal breast cancer. which statement made by the client reflects the bargaining stage of grief?
There are no choices provided, but it is most likely the statement made by the client with terminal breast cancer that reflects the bargaining stage of grief, such as "Let me live long enough to see my child (or grandchild), please".
What is the bargaining stage of grief?According to the American Psychological Association, or APA, the bargaining stage of grief is a moment in which someone might try to bargain with themselves or with a higher power in order to reverse the loss. When humans are in pain, it might be difficult to realize that there is nothing we can do to change the situation.
Bargaining is the process by which humans begin to form agreements with themselves or, if they are religious, with God. Humans want to think that if they do certain things, they will feel much better.
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accumulation of nitrogenous wastes such as urea in the circulatory system is an early sigh of chronic kidney disease (ckd). the nurse knows that normal levels of urea in blood are approximately:
The nurse knows that normal levels of urea in the blood are approximately 20 mg/dL.
What causes chronic kidney disease?
Kidney disease is most frequently brought on by diabetes. diabetes of both types 1 and 2. However, obesity and heart disease can also contribute to the harm that results in renal failure. The long-term functional decline can also be brought on by problems with the urinary system and inflammation in various kidney regions. High blood pressure indicates that your blood vessels' blood pressure is too powerful, which can harm them and cause CKD.
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the nurse is caring for a client who recently experienced a myocardial infarction and has been started on clopidogrel. the nurse should develop a teaching plan that includes which points? select all that apply.
The nurse should develop a teaching plan that includes :any unexpected bleeding or bleeding that lasts a long time, bruise, bleeding gums etc.
What is clopidogrel ?Clopidogrel works by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming a clot.
It is an antiplatelet drug called clopidogrel. It stops platelets, a kind of blood cell, from congregating and creating a potentially harmful blood clot. If you have a higher risk of developing blood clots, using clopidogrel can help. There may be negative effects from clopidogrel.
In individuals who have already experienced a heart attack, stroke, or have certain cardiovascular disorders, clopidogrel, an antiplatelet blood-thinning medication, may help prevent future heart attacks, strokes, and other clot-related ailments.
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a patient says that her visitor is unable to come during visitor hours and asks if she could be accommodated. the nursing assistant:
While the nurse assistant is changing the client, a visitor enters the space. Please wait in the lobby, thanks. When the visitor inquires about accommodations, the sufferer replies that her visitor is unable to arrive.
Are CNAs and nurses the same thing?
The range of work varies between an RN and a CNA. Compared to CNAs, who serve as the RNs' and other medical professionals' assistants, RNs have more freedom to carry out their duties. CNAs have a more constrained job description and are supervised, but they lighten the load on other staff members, improving patient care in general.
What distinguishes NA and CNA from one another?
A certified nurse assistant is known as a CNA. The state that issues certification has examined and tested them
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The branch of medical science that deals with the structure, function, and diseases of the eye.
Branch of medical science that deals with the structure, function, and diseases of the eye is called : ophthalmology.
What do you understand by ophthalmology?Ophthalmic and vision science is the study of vision disorders, diseases of the eye and the visual pathway. Working in ophthalmic and vision science, you will assess the structure and function of the eye and also the visual system.
An ophthalmologist specializes in ophthalmology and the branch of medical science dealing with the structure, functions, and diseases of the eye. An ophthalmologist is a physician but optometrist is not. Ophthalmologists can also do vision tests and prescribe corrective lenses just like optometrists does.
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in which order would the nurse perform initial assessments to manage immediate threats in the client who was admitted to an emergency unit with a critical injury from a bomb blast?
Positioning, suctioning, and oxygen administration as necessary to create a patent airway and evaluating the sound and difficulty of breathing in emergency unit.
Establishing a patent airway is the most important intervention for any injured client who survived a bomb blast. By positioning, suctioning, and providing oxygen as needed, a patent airway is created. The next step is to listen for oxygen breathing sounds and respiratory exertion to determine ventilation once the patent airway has been created. After ensuring efficient ventilation, circulation becomes more important. By keeping an eye on key indicators like blood pressure and heart rate, circulation is evaluated in emergency unit. The next step is to use the GCS to determine the client's degree of awareness after measuring circulation. The removal of all clothing to allow for a full physical evaluation is the last step in the assessment process.
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a patient, who has intermittent claudication, has been taking 100 mg of cilostazol twice daily with meals for 2 weeks. the patient calls the clinic and reports continued pain in both legs during exercise. how will the nurse advise the patient?
Over the next weeks, expect side effects to diminish as medication effects increase as the nurse advice to the patient.
Patients need to be made aware that it could take up to three months for the anticipated therapeutic outcomes to materialize. The patient's mild side effects do not require that the medicine be stopped.
Intermittent claudication is the medical word for calf and, less frequently, thigh and buttock pain that becomes worse with exercise and gets better with rest. Moderate to severe symptoms are possible. Intermittent claudication is caused by muscle ischaemia brought on by restricted arterial flow during exercise.
Intermittent claudication is most frequently caused by peripheral vascular disease (PAD). That condition is brought on by atherosclerosis, an accumulation of a wax-like substance called plaque inside your arteries. There is less room for blood to pass through those arteries as the accumulation intensifies.
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like other methods used to get information about the harmful effects of chemicals on human health, measuring dose-response curves has its limitations and benefits. what are the limitations to these types of studies? check all that apply.
Some disadvantages of BMD modeling are as follows:
(1) The BMD approach performs better when many dose groups with different response levels are available;
(2) The modelling results may be unnecessarily conservative because it consistently provides BMDLs below the NOAELs;
(3) For data sets with small sample sizes, limited number of dosing levels, and limited information on mechanisms of toxicity, the modelling may result in linearization (Faustman).
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a new grad is exploring the role of the community health nurse. what services might be provided by this person? select all that apply.
Running a clinic for children without insurance, keeping an eye on polio epidemics in a certain area, and teaching diabetics at the senior center.
What the campaign to educate people about diabetes includes ?By monitoring your blood sugar frequently, eating healthily, getting active, taking your medications as directed, and managing stress, you can learn how to manage your diabetes more effectively by taking part in a self-management education (SME) program.
What assistance can the local community provide for diabetics?The development of type 2 diabetes can be slowed down or reversed with your assistance. The National Diabetes Prevention Programs (National DPP) change of lifestyle program is something that CBOs can promote or assist local residents in enrolling in.
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a warehouse worker is experiencing trouble with incontinence, especially when lifting heavy objects. what intervention is most appropriate for this client's needs? administration of alpha-adrenergic agonist drugs as ordered administration of diuretics as ordered to promote frequent bladder emptying intermittent catheterization bladder ultrasonography two to three times daily
A warehouse worker is experiencing trouble with incontinence, especially when lifting heavy objects so intervention which is most appropriate for this client's needs is administration of alpha-adrenergic agonist drugs as ordered.
Trouble with incontinence means the loss of bladder management — may be a common and is embarrassig. The severity ranges from often leaky excretory product once you cough or sneeze to having an urge to urinate that is thus unexpected and robust you do not get to a rest room in time.
Alpha-adrenergic agonists are a category of adrenergic agents that by selection stimulates alpha adrenergic receptors. The alpha-adrenoceptor has 2 subclasses α₁ and α₂. Alpha a pair of receptors ar related to sympatholytic properties. Alpha-adrenergic agonists have the alternative operate of alpha blockers.
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the nurse is providing education for a client diagnosed with hypothyroidism. what information about diet should the nurse be sure to include in this information?
the nurse is providing education for a client diagnosed with hypothyroidism. the information about diet should the nurse be sure to include in this information is Increase in appetite.
What is hypothyroidism?
When your thyroid gland does not generate enough hormones, this condition is known as hypothyroidism. Fat gain, fatigue, and depressive symptoms are typical indicators of an underactive thyroid.
Cause:The main cause is an autoimmune disorder termed as Hashimoto's thyroiditisHence, the nurse is providing education for a client diagnosed with hypothyroidism. the information about diet should the nurse be sure to include in this information is Increase in appetite.
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after assessing the patient and identifying the need for headache relief, the nurse administers acetaminophen. which action by the nurse is priority for this patient?
For this patient, the nurse's top priority is to reevaluate the patient's level of pain in 30 minutes.
What nursing procedures will the nurse carry out during the evaluation stage?Evaluation is the last stage of the nursing process. To determine whether the objectives have been achieved, it occurs after the interventions. How the goals and interventions are successful will be determined by the nurse during the evaluation phase.
What stage of the nursing process does the nurse's patient care interventions take place?Giving patients both direct and indirect nursing care interventions is part of the implementation phase of the five-step nursing approach. During the assessment stage, the nurse collects data. During the planning phase, everyone establishes goals and orders the care according to importance.
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the nurse is caring for a patient who has experienced head trauma in a motor vehicle accident. the patient is having excessive output of dilute urine. the nurse will notify the provider and will anticipate administering which medication?
Vasopressin (Pitressin) will be administered in brain tumours or head injuries. The antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland (vasopressin and desmopression).
Patients who have a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone ADH, which can be brought on by brain tumours or head injuries, produce a lot of urine (diabetes insipidus). In order to prevent fluid imbalance, antidiuretic hormone ADH replacement is required. Parathyroid diseases are treated with calcifediol. Prednisone and corticotropin do not stop diuresis.
Any trauma to the scalp, skull, or brain is considered a head injury. Both closed and open head injuries are possible (penetrating). A closed head injury occurs when you strike your head against something hard, yet the skull was not broken. Typical reasons for head injuries include:
Accidents at work, home, outdoors, or at athletic eventsa physical attacktraffic collisionsBecause the skull shields the brain, the majority of these wounds are small. Some injuries are serious enough to necessitate a hospital stay.Learn more about ADH
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Elevated blood levels of homocysteine increase the risk of cardiovascular disease. Homocysteine metabolism requires which of the following nutrients?
Check all that apply
A. Thiamin
B. vitamin B-6
C. Vitamin B-12
D. FolateB. vitamin B-6
C. Vitamin B-12
D. Folate
Answer:
Explanation: Homocysteine metabolism requires the participation of folate as well as vitamin B12 and vitamin B6 coenzymes. Reduction of homocysteine levels in plasma requires that all three of these vitamins be supplemented.
cough and cold medications that contain a sympathomimetic decongestant such as phenylephrine should be used cautiously in what population:
Sympathomimetic decongestants such as phenylephrine should be used with caution in clients who have a history of diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, are prone to narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hypertrophy, liver and kidney disorders, and ischemic heart disease.
What is Phenylephrine?Phenylephrine is a drug used to relieve nasal congestion which can be caused by the flu, colds, allergies, sinusitis, or bronchitis. However, these drugs cannot cure the disease that causes nasal congestion.
This drug works by reducing the swelling of the blood vessels in the nasal passages. That way, the airways become more open and breathing becomes relieved. Phenylephrine for nasal congestion is available in tablet and syrup form.
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patients with diabetes mellitus who neglect insulin therapy rapidly metabolize lipids, and there may be an accumulation of the acidic by-products of lipid metabolism in the blood. what effect would this have on respiration? a. increase in respiratory rate b. decrease in respiratory rate c. decrease in respiratory rate if oxygen is reduced d. no infl uence on respiratory rate
b. decrease in respiratory rate effect would this have on respiration.
What happens to extra glycerol and fatty acids in the body?If there is too much fat, the liver gets ready to store it. Fats, which are made up of fatty acids and glycerol, are transformed during the metabolic process known as lipogenesis and then stored in subcutaneous tissue and other storage depots.
In summary, lipid metabolism is crucial for controlling the ageing process. Age-related disorders and ageing are modulated by lipid-related therapies in a variety of model species, according to experimental evidence that lipid metabolism is altered throughout ageing.
Defects in the structural proteins of lipoprotein particles, in the cell receptors that identify the various types of lipoproteins, or in the enzymes that break down fats can all contribute to disorders that impair lipid metabolism.
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a nurse is teaching a client about maintaining a healthy heart. the nurse should include which point in teaching?
Answer:
Exercise one or two times per week.
Explanation:
the preoperative nurse is preparing a client for surgery. what actions will the nurse perform? select all that apply.
Answer:
Inform the family to wait in the surgical waiting room.
Remove the client's dentures and contact lenses
Describe who will be in the operating suite.
Explanation:
the nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with down's syndrome. which explanation of this syndrome should the nurse provide the parents?
The correct option (4) Moderate to severe intellectual disability and linkage to an extra chromosome 21, group G.
Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes minor to severe physical and developmental issues.
Down syndrome is caused by the presence of one extra chromosome at birth. Chromosomes are gene bundles, and your body depends on having the appropriate amount of them.
This extra chromosome causes a variety of disorders that impact you both mentally and physically in people with Down syndrome.
Symptoms of Down Syndrome:
Down syndrome can have a variety of impacts, which vary from person to person. Some may grow up to be able to live nearly fully on their own, while others will require more assistance in caring for themselves.
Although mental capacities vary, most persons with Down syndrome struggle with thinking, reasoning, and comprehending. They will learn and develop new skills throughout their lives, but it may take them longer to achieve important goals such as walking, talking, and developing social skills.
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Full question :The nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with Down syndrome. Which explanation of this syndrome should the nurse provide the parents?
1.Subaverage intellectual functioning with a congenial nature
2 .Above-average intellectual functioning with deficits in adaptive behavior
3.Average intellectual functioning and the absence of deficits in adaptive behavior
4.Moderate to severe intellectual disability and linkage to an extra chromosome 21, group G
a client with severe peptic ulcer disease has undergone surgery and is several hours postoperative. during assessment, the nurse notes that the client has developed cool skin, tachycardia, labored breathing, and appears to be confused. which complication has the client most likely developed? perforation
The client has most likely developed Hemorrhage.
What is hemorrhage?
In medicine, blood loss is caused by damaged blood vessels. A hemorrhage can be internal or external, and it typically involves a significant amount of bleeding quickly. injuries include bone fractures, traumatic brain injury, or cuts and puncture wounds. Physical abuse or acts of violence, like a knife or bullet wound. viruses like a viral hemorrhagic fever that target blood vessels. These three types of hemorrhage differ from one another in terms of location, flow, and intensity. In particular, capillary bleeding trickles from the body whereas venous bleeding flows gradually. Arterial bleeding spews out in spurts. The severity of bleeding from the arteries and veins varies.
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which is the most important action for the nurse to perform when assessing bowel sounds? (select all that apply.)
The most important action for the nurse to perform when assessing bowel sounds is to listen for up to 5 minutes when auscultating for bowel sounds.
What action should be taken when assessing bowel sounds?Always follow this sequence for the assessment of bowel sounds: inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation and changing the order of these assessment techniques can alter the frequency of bowel sounds and make findings less accurate.
Auscultate for bowel sounds by beginning in the right lower quadrant, and move in sequence up to the right upper quadrant, left upper quadrant and finally the left lower quadrant. Change in bowel sounds indicates problems with the patient before other signs emerge.
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a patient is prescribed codeine as an antitussive. which symptom will the nurse observe for as an adverse effect of this medication?
Drowsiness, dizziness, dizziness, drowsiness, difficulty breathing, nausea, vomiting, sweating, with constipation are the most often reported adverse effects to codeine administration.
How much time can you go between bowel movements?Constipation happens when it becomes difficult to pass stools, which reduces the frequency of bowel movements. It frequently results from routine or dietary changes, a lack of fiber intake, or any combination of these. If you have extreme discomfort, blood in you stools, or constipation that lasts longer than three weeks, call your doctor.
What are some natural remedies for constipation?Try eating easily digestible, high-fiber foods, such as strawberries, bananas, prunes, or avocados, to help alleviate moderate episodes of constipation. Consume a lot of fiber-rich foods, such as fruits, whole grains, and vegetables, in your diet to avoid future issues.
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