The client informs Meet the client of a lack of appetite, weariness, nocturia, and sporadic shortness of breath.
What is the main cause of diabetes?Diabetes in its majority has no recognized definite cause. In every circumstance, glucose builds up in the bloodstream. This is a result of the pancreas' insufficient insulin production. Both types of diabetes may be brought on by a combination of genetic and environmental factors.
Does stress cause diabetes?Diabetes is not solely brought on by stress. However, there is evidence suggesting that stress as well as the risk of developing type 2 diabetes may be related. Excessive stress hormone levels may prevent insulin-producing cells within the pancreas from functioning properly and decrease the quantity of insulin they produce, according to our study.
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the safe dosage of the iv antibiotic ceftriaxone for children weighing more than is per kilogram of body weight. suppose a pediatric nurse has available of a ceftriaxone solution with a concentration of . how can she calculate the volume of this solution that she should administer to a child weighing ?
The amount of this solution she ought to give a kid who weighs is 30 mL of antibiotic solution (41 x 60)
What do you mean by antibiotics?
Antibiotics are a type of medication used to treat bacterial infections. They work by either killing the bacteria or preventing the growth of the bacteria. Antibiotics are usually taken by mouth, but can also be administered intravenously, intramuscularly, or topically.
Ceftriaxone should be taken at a safe dose of 60 milligrams per kilogram of body weight.Now, if we need 60 mg of antibiotic per 1 kg of body weight, then we need X mg of antibiotic every 41 kg of body weight for a child.Antibiotic dosage: X = (41 60) / 1 = 41 60 mgIf we convert the antibiotic solution's 0.030 g/mL concentration to milligrams, we get a concentration of 30 mg/mL.If 1 mL of solution has 30 mg of antibiotic, then Y = (41 60 1) / 30 = (41 60) / 30 mL of solution will contain 41 60 mg of antibiotic.To learn more about antibiotics refer to:
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which information would the nurse include when instructing a client with a rash to use baths to help decrease itching and promote comfort? select all that apply. one: some, or all responses may be correct.
Therefore, the nurse would inform the client with a rash to utilize baths to assist minimize itching and increase comfort, and to (B) apply a moisturizer to the skin daily to help reduce irritation.
What exactly causes itching?Skin responses or allergies bites and stings from insects, parasitic infestations like scabies. athlete's foot and vaginal thrush are examples of fungal infections. As a result, whenever you scratch your skin with your fingernails, you temporarily damage the receptors that allow your brain to deliver pain-relieving chemicals to a skin (Serotonin is one such naturally occurring hormone that induces emotions of happiness.). Scratching is enjoyable because of this.
What foods cause itchy skin?Among the most common triggers of food allergies include shellfish, cow's milk, soy, wheat, and peanuts. These foods may itch, and additional scratching may worsen or cause dermatitis symptoms to flare up.
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The complete question is:which information would the nurse include when instructing a client with a rash to use baths to help decrease itching and promote comfort? select all that apply. one: some, or all responses may be correct.
A. "Wear plenty of warm clothes to keep moisture in the skin."
B. "Use a moisturizer on the skin daily to help reduce itching."
C. "Take hot tub baths only twice a week to reduce drying of the skin."
D. "Expose the skin to the air to help reduce the sensation of itching."
the nurse is teaching the breast self-examination technique to women. in which order should the nurse instruct the steps of breast self-examination technique?
Gently yet firmly press down on the entire right breast making little movements with your left hand's middle fingers. Then either stand or sit. Breast tissue is located there, so feel about there.
How do you begin a breast self-examination?Your right shoulder should be supported by a pillow, as should your right arm behind your head. Gently wrap your left hand's finger pads around your right breast, covering the entire breast and armpit region. Apply gentle, moderate, and hard pressure.
How should I conduct a breast self-exam correctly?Your right arm should be behind your head as you recline. Put your left hand's three middle fingers on your right breast. Circular finger movements motion, first applying little pressure, then medium pressure, and finally forceful pressure. Check your breast for any lumps or thickening by feeling.
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the nurse is assisting in monitoring a client who may be started on parenteral nutrition (pn). the nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that the client is at risk of severe malnutrition if the report indicates which critical level?
After reviewing the client's test results, the nurse concludes that severe malnutrition is a possibility because the albumin level report suggests a crucial threshold of 2.8 g/dL.
Who is most at risk of malnutrition?Malnutrition is most common in women, newborns, kids, and teenagers. Long-term advantages result from early nutrition optimization, which includes the first 1000 days of a child's life, from conception to their second birthday. The hazards of malnutrition and its consequences are increased by poverty. The danger is low for a patient if they earn a score of 0. A patient is regarded to be high risk if they receive a score of 2 or more, whereas a patient with a score of 1 is considered to be medium risk. If the subject's E/P figures fall below the 10th percentile and their AKS value falls below 1.12 in a group of slim people with weight for stature under 90%, the subject is likely undernourished.
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Extraoral film is used for ALL of the following projections EXCEPTone. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Lateral jaw radiographs
b. Occlusal radiographs
c. Cephalometric radiographs
d. Panoramic radiographs
The extraoral film is used for Lateral jaw radiographs, Cephalometric radiographs, and Panoramic radiographs except one that is an option(b)i.e, Occlusal radiographs.
There are two main types of dental X-beams: intraoral (the X-ray film is inside the backtalk) and extraoral film. Extraoral radiography resources that two together the image indicator and the X-ray motor are established outside the patient's backtalk. The X-ray beginning and the countenance indicator should be joined in order to create the asked countenance character.
Occlusal X-rays are created to capture come to pass on inside the house or floor of the opening, which helps the dental surgeon visualize adequate denticle happening and installation. Panoramic radiography, also called panoramic x-ray, is a two-spatial (2-D) dental radioactivity test that captures the complete opening in an alone representation, containing the dentition, upper and lower jaws, encircling forms, and tissues.
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the nurse observes that an older client seldom eats the meat on the meal trays. the nurse discusses this observation with the client, and the client states, il only eat meat once a week because old people don't need protein every day.' which need would the nurse address in her or his reply?
If you only eat meat once per week because elderly people will not need protein every single day, the nurse will respond with (2) Foods that satisfy your body's essential nutritional requirements.
What do you understand by the term nurse?A person who looks after sick or disabled people. A qualified health care provider who is experienced in promoting and keeping health and who either works independently or under the supervision of a doctor, surgeon, or dentist is more specifically referred to as a licensed practical nurse or registered nurse. The Latin word nutire, which meant to suckle, is the source of the word nurse. This is because it originally solely referred to a wet-nurse and didn't change to refer to someone who looks after the sick until the 16th century.
What does a nurse do in simple words?A registered nurse's primary duty is to ensure that each patient receives the specific and direct care they need. Before implementing their medical plans & treatments and monitoring them, registered nurses (RNs) assess and determine the needs of their patients.
All throughout life, people require nutrients, including protein, to meet their fundamental nutritional demands. Although home-delivered meals might be one strategy to ensure proper nutrition, educating the client should come first. The specific nutrients required are unaffected by aging; however, digestion or food absorption may be affected. Every day, we need protein, but it doesn't always come from meat.
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The complete question is:The nurse observes that an older client seldom eats the meat on the meal trays. The nurse discusses this observation with the client, and the client states, "I only eat meat once a week because old people don't need protein every day." What does the nurse determine that the client needs to be taught about?
1) Need for home-delivered meals
2) Foods that meet basic nutritional needs
3) Effect of aging on the need for some foods
4) Need for meat at least once per day throughout life
the nurse is recording a nursing hands-off (end-of-shift) report for a client. which information needs to be included?
A nursing hands-off (end-of-shift) report is being recorded for a client by the nurse. "As needed medications given that shift" is the information that must be included. Thus, the correct answer is option 1.
The nurse's hands-off report needs to be an effective and accurate summary of the patient's status during the previous shift. It is necessary for it to include essential information about the patient, such as diagnoses and procedures; as needed medications administered or therapies performed over the course of the last twenty-four hours. The nurse "hands-off report", also known as the "bedside shift report", is a process that has been described in the literature as the act of exchanging vital patient data, accountability, and responsibility between the off-going and overtaking nurses in an attempt to ensure safe care continuity and the delivery of the better clinical practices.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
As needed medications given that shiftNormal vital signs that have been normal since admissionAll of tests and treatments the client has had since admissionTotal number of scheduled medications that the client received on that shiftThe correct answer is Option 1.
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a child is admitted to the hospital, and a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis is suspected. a lumbar puncture is performed, and the results reveal cloudy cerebrospinal fluid (csf) with high protein and low glucose levels. the nurse determines that these results are indicative of which finding?
When a child was admitted to a hospital with bacterial meningitis suspected, the nurse judges that these data are suggestive of the diagnosis being confirmed.
What is cloudy cerebrospinal fluid?If the CSF seems foggy, there may be an infection, an accumulation of protein or white blood cells, or both. A spinal cord blockage or bleeding may be indicated if the CSF has a crimson or red appearance. It can be an indication of increased CSF protein or earlier bleeding if it is brown, orange, or yellow (more than 3 days ago). Normal CSF is clear, colorless, and sterile. Although often at lesser proportions, it contains the majority of the same chemical components as blood. The CSF should be as transparent as a comparable test tube filled with water when held up to a white, printed page.
What infections can be found in CSF?Tests to identify infectious disorders of the spinal cord and brain such as meningitis and encephalitis, may be included. White blood cells, bacteria, as well as other elements in the cerebrospinal fluid are examined in CSF tests for infections. autoimmune diseases like multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barré syndrome (MS)
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a patient who was found face-down in a pond is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. friends state that the patient was hot and wanted to take a swim in the pond. which intervention should be included in your care of this patient?
Put a long board and cervical collar in the water to take safeguards against spine mobility.
How to perform CPR on an adult?
Kneel down next to the person on the ground so that your chest is at their level.One hand's heel should be placed in the middle of their chest, at the end of their breastbone.Interlock your fingers while keeping the fingers away from the ribs and place the heel of your second hand on top of the first hand.Press down vertically on the breastbone while leaning over the subject with your arms straight, pushing the chest down by 5 to 6 cm (2 12 in).Release the pressure on their chest without releasing your hands. One compression is to fully allow the chest to rise again.Repeat 30 times at a rate of roughly two repetitions per second, or at the tempo of the song "Staying Alive."Take two breaths to help.To learn more about CPR refer to:
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which information would be given to a client about her position while an internal fetal monitor is in place?
When an internal fetal monitor is in place, a client will be advised to assume the most comfortable position possible, which can be assumed.
This is because the internal fetal monitor is inserted into the uterus through the cervix and is used to measure the fetal heart rate and contractions of the uterus. The monitor should remain in place during labor and delivery to ensure the well-being of the baby. However, it is important to note that certain positions, such as lying flat on the back, may not be comfortable for the mother and may impede the progress of labor. The healthcare provider will work with the mother to find the most comfortable position for her during labor and delivery.
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atropine sulfate is prescribed for the client diagnosed with gastrointestinal hypermotility, and the nurse reviews the client's record before administering the medication. which finding, if noted on the client's record, most indicates the need to contact the primary health care provider before administering the medication?
Through certification, the scope of practice for LPNs and LVNs is being expanded in several states to include administering intravenous (IV) fluids & drugs.
Which medication out of the following should a patient with such a peptic ulcer avoid?Stop using NSAIDs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medicines) — The avoidance of NSAIDs should be recommended to patients with peptic ulcers. Aspirin and other NSAIDs raise the chance of developing peptic ulcer disease or are linked to a higher risk for peptic ulcer complications.
Omeprazole/amoxicillin/clarithromycin (Omeclamox-Pak)
H pylori eradication is recommended for the treatment of individuals with duodenal ulcer illness and H pylori infection (active or up to a year history). It involves twice daily exercise.
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your bivad patient is awake and alert, with warm, dry skin and pink mucous membranes. he has called you because he had a persistent vad alarm, which resolved by replacing his external controller with a spare prior to your arrival. the cardiac monitor shows ventricular tachycardia. your next step should be to:
Ventricular tachycardia is seen on the heart monitor. An VAD Coordinator there at hospital should be contacted to receive further instructions.
What are the main causes of tachycardia?Tachycardia is frequently brought on by: diseases that affect the heart, such excessive blood pressure (hypertension). coronary artery diseases (atherosclerosis), cardiac disease, cardiac arrest, heart muscle illness (cardiomyopathy), malignancies, or infections that reduce the amount of blood that reaches the heart muscle.
What is tachycardia and how is it treated?Tachycardia is the term used to describe a heartbeat that is more than 100 beats per minute when at repose. It can start in your brain's superior or inferior valves and range in severity from minor to severe. Treatments available include taking medications, having an ablation procedure performed, and having an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) installed.
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which is an anticipated finding for the pediatric patient who is dignosed with turners syndrome
Short stature is the anticipated finding for the pediatric patient diagnosed with Turner's syndrome.
Turner's syndrome is a genetic disease recognized by the presence of only X chromosome. The disease affects only the females. The first recognizable symptom of the disease is short stature. Other symptoms include delayed puberty, infertility, heart conditions, etc.
Pediatrics is the branch of science, specifically medical science that deals with the development, care and diseases of the children and adolescents. It includes all the people from newborns up to 18 years of age. The term pediatrics is Greek in origin: "pais" meaning child and "iatros" meaning doctor and healer.
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the nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks' gestation who reports enjoying her usual slow, long daily walk. the nurse should point out which recommendation to this client?
Continue this as long as she enjoys it. if the nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks' gestation who reports enjoying her usual slow, long daily walk.
What is gestation period?Gestational age is the common term used during pregnancy to describe how far along the pregnancy is. It is measured in weeks, from the first day of the woman's last menstrual cycle to the current date. A normal pregnancy can range from 38 to 42 weeks.
What is day 1 of gestation?Your weeks of pregnancy are dated from the first day of your last period. This means that in the first 2 weeks or so, you are not actually pregnant your body is preparing for ovulation (releasing an egg from one of your ovaries) as usual.
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a person is developing shock resulting from an injury that has caused severe bleeding. which of the following would occur first? group of answer choices skin appearing pale. increased perspiration. increased breathing rate. increased heart rate.
A person's heart rate will increase if they are experiencing shock due to heavy bleeding from an accident. Hence, choice "d" increasing heart rate is right.
The heart rate is what?Adults typically have resting heart rates between 60 and 100 per minute. Better cardiac health and function are frequently indicated by a lower resting heart rate. A well-trained athlete, for instance, might have a typical resting heart rate that is close to 40 per minute.
An unhealthy heart rate is what?The body's cardiac problems are reflected in irregular heart rates and heart beats. This can occasionally be lethal if discovered and if untreated. conditions in which the heartbeat drops below 60 beats a minute or exceeds 120–140 beats per minute.
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which si the most effective professional leadership and management strategy nurses implement to improve safety
The most effective professional leadership and management strategy nurses implement to improve safety is a contemporary model.
With the help of this care model, medical-surgical units may increase patient safety and care quality while also benefiting from the leadership and management of frontline nurses. The objective is to provide nurses and other healthcare team members the authority to change work processes in order to increase patient care quality and reduce turnover.
Transformational leadership, dependable and safe care, vitality and teamwork, patient-centered care, and value-added care procedures are the five themes.
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a nurse is caring for an older client with osteoarthritis who is recovering from the west nile virus. isometric exercises have been prescribed. what will the nurse teach the client about isometric exercises?
A senior client with osteoarthritis who is recovering from the west Nile virus is being cared for by a nurse. The prescribed isometric exercises are here.
Isometric exercises, which the nurse will instruct the client in, will improve muscle tone and strength.
What is the most common reason for osteoarthritis?When the cartilage and other components of the joint deteriorate or undergo structural change, osteoarthritis occurs. This cannot be caused by simple joint deterioration. Alterations in the tissue may instead trigger the disintegration, which typically occurs gradually over time.
Isometric exercises are recommended to improve muscular strength in clients who are getting ready to walk, recovering from a life-altering illness, or battling a chronic condition. Isometric exercises might help the client recover from the West Nile virus and has osteoarthritis in this situation. Aerobic exercise enhances cardiovascular fitness. Muscle performance cannot be measured with isometric exercises. Similar to this, encouraging tissue perfusion through isometric exercises is not recommended.
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barbara's daughter was recently diagnosed with diabetes. the best course of action her family could take is to
The actions taken by her family when Barbara was diagnosed with diabetes were paying attention to food portions, reducing sugary drinks, and having blood tests done by the doctor.
What is diabetes?Diabetes is a chronic disease characterized by high blood sugar levels. Glucose is the main source of energy for human body cells. However, in diabetics, glucose cannot be used by the body.
The level of sugar (glucose) in the blood is controlled by the hormone insulin, which is produced by the pancreas. However, in diabetics, the pancreas is unable to produce insulin according to the body's needs. Without insulin, the body's cells cannot absorb and process glucose into energy.
Diabetes usually appears due to a combination of hereditary factors and environmental factors, so if a family has a history of diabetes, it is necessary to do blood tests and pay attention to food portions.
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the nurse is delegating a task of measuring a patient's oxygen saturation. which instruction would n
The instruction to be provided to the NAP about measuring a patient's oxygen saturation is: to select the appropriate sensor site for measurement.
NAP refers to the Nursing Assistive Person. They are usually the unlicensed person who are assigned by the licensed nurse to take care of the patients. These people are trained for assisting the nurses and provide the care to patients as instructed by the nurse.
Oxygen saturation is the measurement of fraction of hemoglobin bound to the oxygen molecules to that hemoglobin which remains unbound. For a safe and healthy body oxygen saturation must always remain above 92%.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The nurse is delegating a task of measuring a patient's oxygen saturation. What instruction should be provided to the nursing assistive person (NAP)?
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desmopressin acetate is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. the nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response?
Following the delivery of desmopressin acetate, the nurse observes the patient for a therapeutic response, such as decreased urine output and increased urine concentration. This is because desmopressin acetate, a synthetic analog of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), reduces urine production and raises urine concentration in people with diabetes insipidus by regulating the quantity of water expelled by the kidneys.
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also referred to as vasopressin, is a synthetic analogue found in desmopressin acetate. Diabetes insipidus, a condition marked by extreme thirst and the generation of huge amounts of diluted urine, is treated with it.
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The above question is incomplete. The complete question is given below-
Desmopressin acetate is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response?
a 3-year-old boy from south america presents to your office with his father for a well-child exam. while listening to his lungs you notice that his back is covered with circular lesions approximately 3-4 cm in diameter with central ecchymosis and petechiae. which of the following is the next best step?
The next big step is to ask about the traditional medicinal practices being used by the father for the child who is having a lesion.
A lesion represents any area of damaged tissue. Other brain lesions can be caused by stroke, trauma, encephalitis, and arteriovenous malformations. Larger lesions destroy healthy tissue, weakening bones and making them more likely to fracture. Most bone lesions are benign, non-life threatening, and do not spread to other parts of the body. However, some of the bone lesions are malignant, or cancerous. Skin lesions are common and can be the result of injuries or skin damage, such as B. Sunburn. They may be signs of underlying conditions such as infections or autoimmune diseases.
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A nursing student is reviewing for an upcoming anatomy and physiology examination. Which of the following would the student correctly identify as a function of the liver? Select all that apply.
A. Carbohydrate metabolism
B. Ammonia conversion
C. Zinc storage
D. Protein metabolism
E. Glucose metabolism
For an impending anatomy and physiology test, a nursing student is studying. The liver's roles include protein metabolism, glucose metabolism, and ammonia conversion.
The liver is important for the body's metabolism, digestion, detoxification, and removal of toxins. Alanine transaminase and aspartate transaminase, alkaline phosphatase, gamma-glutamyl transferase, serum bilirubin, prothrombin time, the international normalized ratio, total protein, and albumin are some of the common liver function tests. These tests can aid in identifying a potential site of liver damage and, based on the pattern of elevation, aid in organizing a differential diagnosis. Hepatocellular disease is indicated by increases in ALT and AST that do not correspond to increases in bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase.
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A nurse is reinforcing diet teaching to a client who has type 2 DM. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply.A. Carbs should comprise 55% of daily caloric intakeB. Use hydrogenated oils for cookingC. Table sugar may be added to cerealsD. Drink an alcoholic beverage w/mealsE. Protein foods can be substituted for carb foods
According to the research, the correct answer are Options A and D. The nurse should include in the diet teaching to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus: Carbs should comprise 55% of daily caloric intake and the client may drink an alcoholic beverage w/meals.
What is type 2 diabetes mellitus?It is the clinical syndrome characterized by a metabolic disorder that occurs in people with varying degrees of insulin resistance, that is, the body's cells are not capable of responding to insulin as they should.
In this sense, in already diagnosed diabetic patients, carbohydrates play a key role in their daily lives to manage their blood sugar level where complex carbohydrates, which have the characteristic of slow absorption, and drinking alcohol with a Carbohydrate-rich food is allowed but they should not consume more than one serving of alcohol per day.
Therefore, in case of type 2 diabetes mellitus, carbohydrate-rich foods should be consumed and alcohol is safe in moderation w/meals, thus the correct options are A and D.
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Which of the following is a pathognomonic (especially indicative) clinical sign for classical swine fever?
Vesicles and ulcers
Fever
Reddened Skin
All of the above.
None of the above.
None of the above are pathognomonic (particularly suggestive) clinical signs of classical swine fever.
Classical swine fever (CSF) is a highly infectious viral illness that is economically significant in pigs. The severity of the sickness varies according on the virus strain, the age of the pig, as well as the herd's immunological condition. Acute infections are much more likely to be identified quickly since they are caused by extremely virulent strains and have an high death rate in naïve herds.
Infections caused by less virulent isolates, on the other hand, might be more difficult to detect, especially in older pigs. Classical swine fever can be difficult to diagnose due to the variety of clinical indications and clinical similarities to other infections. While classical swine fever was formerly ubiquitous, it has now been eliminated from domesticated pigs in many areas. CSF was eliminated from the United States in 1978.
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a client suffered a 45% total body surface area (tbsa) burn and was intubated. twelve hours later, bowel sounds were absent in all four abdominal quadrants. which is the nurse's best action?
Twelve hours later, bowel sounds were absent in all four abdominal quadrants. the nurse's best action Prepare to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube.
What is nasogastric used for?A nasogastric (NG) tube is a thin, soft tube that goes in through the nose, down the throat, and into the stomach. They're used to feed formula to a child who can't get nutrition by mouth. Sometimes, kids get medicine through the tube.
What is a nasogastric procedure?A nasogastric tube (NG tube) is a type of medical catheter that's inserted through your nose into your stomach. It's used for limited periods to deliver substances such as food or medications to your stomach or to draw substances out.
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which area is most important for the nurse to assess for fluid balance in a client with full-thickness burns of the anterior trunk and thigh when monitoring fluid balance during the first 2 to 3 days after the burn?
Calculating fluid balance entails determining how much fluid enters the body and contrasting it with how much fluid leaves. The objective is to ascertain whether
Describe fluid.
Fluid definition (Entry 2 of 2): a material that tends to flow or shape-fit into the contours of its container, like a liquid or a gas Alternative Words for fluid Antonyms and Synonyms Additional Sample Sentences Study More about fluid Alternative Words for fluid
What does fluid dynamics entail?
The study of forces acting on fluids and their motion is known as fluid mechanics. Fluid statistics and fluid dynamics are two subfields of fluid mechanics. Fluid dynamics refers to the study of flow of fluids, while fluid statics focuses on fluids at rest.
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which assessment findings would the nurse most likely expect in a client diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism? select all that apply.
High ventilation/low perfusion, Increased cardiac output, Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance, Pulmonary hypertension, and Reduced left ventricular preload are the finding the nurse most likely expect in a client diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism
A blood clot called a pulmonary embolism prevents blood from flowing through a lung artery. The blood clot typically originates in a deep leg vein and goes to the lung. The clot very rarely develops in a vein in another area of the body.
Typically, a blood clot from one of your body's deep veins, commonly in the leg, travels up to create a pulmonary embolism. Deep vein thrombosis is the medical term for this type of blood clot (DVT). Sometimes, a change in your physical state, such pregnancy or a recent operation, causes the blood clot to form.
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The nurse would expect to find respiratory assessment findings of shortness of breath, tachycardia, chest pain, and hypoxemia on assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.
These findings are indicative of the blockage of a pulmonary artery due to a clot. Other findings that may be present include pleuritic chest pain, which is a sharp pain experienced with inspiration or expiration, cough, and hemoptysis, which is the coughing up of blood.
Additionally, on physical assessment, the nurse may also find signs of leg pain, swelling, or tenderness, which are often the result of a deep vein thrombosis that is associated with the pulmonary embolism.
Blood tests may be conducted to confirm the diagnosis, such as a D-dimer test that measures clot formation in the body. It is important that the nurse assesses the client with a pulmonary embolism thoroughly to ensure a proper diagnosis and to ensure that the client receives appropriate treatment.
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a client placed on bed rest has acute arthritis and reports bilaterally painful hips and swollen knee joints. which position prevents flexion deformities during the acute phase of the client's care?
The prone posture enables the hip and knee joints to extend. Hip and knee flexion are encouraged in the side-lying posture. The hip and knee joints continue to flex in the contour posture. Flexibility contractures are not prevented by the Trendelenburg posture.
What is flexion deformities?The stresses across the patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints are increased by fixed flexion abnormalities, which are a mix of ligamentous, capsular, and bony deformities.
The majority of flexion abnormalities are modest and may be passively corrected after surgery. Although they are uncommon, total knee arthroplasty (TKA) can be used to treat severe flexion contractures that are higher than 80 degrees. It is difficult to remove these contractures and fully extend the knees.
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which condition(s) in the client indicate(s) need of nursing care that supports homeostatic regulation? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct
Damaged tissue and an obstructed airway .
Yes, a requirement for nursing care that promotes homeostatic regulation can also be indicated by injured tissue and an obstruction of the airway. Inflammation, infection, and other problems can result from damaged tissue and disturb homeostasis .
What is homeostatic regulation?
The ability of the body to maintain a constant internal environment in spite of changes in the external environment is known as homeostatic control. Temperature, blood sugar levels, blood pressure, and electrolyte balance are a few examples of physiological factors that are controlled.
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The above question is incomplete. The complete question is given below-
Which condition in the client indicates need of nursing care that supports homeostatic regulation? (Select all that apply)
A. Damaged Tissue
B. Obstructed Airway
C. Poor nutritional status
D. Restricted body movement
E. Altered patterns of urinary elimination
the nurse reviews the medical reports of four clients. which client may have secondary | dysmenorrhea?
Clients who may have secondary dysmenorrhea are clients who have a history of uterine cysts or polyps.
What is dysmenorrhea?Dysmenorrhea is a term used to describe complaints of painful cramps that generally appear during menstruation or menstruation. Dysmenorrhea is one of the most common problems related to menstruation.
Women who experience primary dysmenorrhea have abnormal uterine contractions. This is due to chemical imbalances in the body. For example, prostaglandin chemicals control uterine contractions.
Meanwhile, secondary dysmenorrhea is caused by other medical conditions, for example, such as endometriosis, uterine cysts, or polyps. To diagnose dysmenorrhea, the doctor will evaluate your medical history and perform several complete physical and pelvic examinations.
Learn more about first-line treatment for dysmenorrhoea here :
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