Studying an interesting new unicellular organism (Cellbiology rulez (C.rulez)), you Identify a new polymer which you name Cables and discover the protein that makes up its subunits, which you name Bits. You reflect on your knowledge of actin and microtubules to try to better understand how Cables might be put together Question 6 1 pts Which of the following statement about microtubules and actin is TRUE. Choose the ONE BEST answer. O Microtubules and actin are each made up of monomer subunits that connect together in a head to tail fashion to make protofilaments which come together to form a polymer Nucleotide hydrolysis in actin and microtubule polymers is an essential component of their dynamic behaviors O Microtubules and actin polymers rely on strong bonds between subunits O Microtubules and actin preferentially add subunits to their minus ends A microtubule or actin polymer exposes the same part of its subunit on the plus and minus end You next do a turbidity assay to determine the steady state or critical concentration of Cables, which you determine to be 8UM. In another experiment, you determine that the critical concentration of the D form of Cables is 1uM. Question 7 1 pts Based on what you know for microtubules and actin, which of the following statement is TRUE. Choose the ONE BEST answer. At a subunit concentration below 1 UM. both ends of the Cable will be shrinking At a subunit concentration above 1 UM both ends of the Cable will be shrinking At a subunit concentration below 1 UM. both ends of the Cable will be growing O At a subunit concentration above 1 uM, both ends of the Cable will be growing Question 8 1 pts If Cables behave like microtubules, which of the following do you expect to occur in the presence of non-hydrolyzable GTP? Choose the ONE BEST answer. O Cables would exhibit dynamic instability Cables would increase in polymer mass O Cables would treadmill None of the above

Answers

Answer 1

The correct answer is "Nucleotide hydrolysis in actin and microtubule polymers is an essential component of their dynamic behaviors."

Microtubules and actin filaments are both composed of monomer subunits that connect together to form polymers. However, the arrangement and behavior of these polymers differ. Microtubules are composed of α-tubulin and β-tubulin heterodimers that assemble in a head-to-tail fashion to form protofilaments. Multiple protofilaments come together to form the microtubule polymer. Microtubules exhibit dynamic behavior and undergo constant assembly and disassembly, a process known as dynamic instability. Nucleotide hydrolysis of GTP (guanosine triphosphate) bound to β-tubulin is a crucial component of microtubule dynamics. Actin filaments, on the other hand, are composed of monomers called globular actin (G-actin) that polymerize to form filamentous actin (F-actin) in a head-to-tail manner. Actin filaments also exhibit dynamic behavior, and their assembly and disassembly are regulated by ATP (adenosine triphosphate) hydrolysis. Therefore, the correct statement is that "Nucleotide hydrolysis in actin and microtubule polymers is an essential component of their dynamic behaviors." Question 7: The correct answer is "At a subunit concentration above 1 uM, both ends of the Cable will be growing." Based on the behavior of microtubules and actin filaments, the critical concentration of a polymer corresponds to the concentration at which the polymer ends are in a dynamic equilibrium between growth and shrinkage. If the subunit concentration of Cables is below 1 uM (critical concentration), it means that the concentration is too low for the polymer to efficiently assemble, and both ends of the Cable will be shrinking.

Conversely, at a subunit concentration above 1 uM (above the critical concentration), it means that the concentration is sufficient for polymer assembly, and both ends of the Cable will be growing.

Therefore, the correct statement is that "At a subunit concentration above 1 uM, both ends of the Cable will be growing." Question 8: The correct answer is "None of the above." If Cables behave like microtubules, the presence of non-hydrolyzable GTP (guanosine triphosphate) would not cause Cables to exhibit dynamic instability, increase in polymer mass, or undergo treadmill-like movement. These behaviors are specific to microtubules and not necessarily shared by other polymers. The effects of non-hydrolyzable GTP on Cables would depend on the specific mechanisms and properties of Cables, which are currently not described in the given information. Therefore, based on the information provided, none of the given options can be determined as an accurate expectation if Cables behave like microtubules in the presence of non-hydrolyzable GTP.

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Related Questions

Explain how you would experimentally show that the production of a virulence factor of contributes to the infectious disease caused by a pathogen.

Answers

You can create a mutant strain of the pathogen and separate it from the wild-type strain to experimentally establish the role of a virulence factor in an infectious disease.

You can estimate the effect of the virulence factor by comparing disease development, severity, and other relevant factors between the two strains. Complementation studies, in which the mutant strain is genetically altered so that it is once again capable of producing the virulence factor, may further support its function.

Statistical analysis of the results is performed to see if there is a substantial difference between the mutant and wild-type strains, demonstrating the role of virulence factors of the pathogen in the disease.

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37) Which of the following statements is true?
A) As M-cyclin concentration increases, M-cdk activity decreases.
B) As M-cyclin concentration decreases, M-cdk activity increases.
C) M-cyclin concentration does not influence M-cdk activity.
D) As M-cyclin concentration increases, M-cdk activity increases.
38) Which statement is true regarding G-proteins?
A) They can act as an ATPase.
B) Has GTPase activity.
C) It is inactive as a monomer.
D) Are nuclear proteins.

Answers

37) The statement that is true regarding M-cyclin concentration and M-cdk activity is "D) As M-cyclin concentration increases, M-cdk activity increases.

38) The statement that is true regarding G-proteins is "A) They can act as an ATPase.

Explanation:

37) Mitosis is a crucial process that must be tightly regulated to ensure that daughter cells receive the correct chromosome number. The activation of M-cdk (mitosis-promoting factor) is essential for the progression of mitosis.M-cyclin concentration increases during the G2 phase of the cell cycle, resulting in M-cdk activation.

M-cyclin is degraded during mitosis, resulting in the inactivation of M-cdk. M-cyclin concentration and M-cdk activity are directly proportional, according to this data. As M-cyclin concentration increases, M-cdk activity increases, and vice versa.

38) G proteins are signal transducing molecules that are important in cell signaling. They are composed of three subunits: α, β, and γ. G proteins act as molecular switches that activate intracellular signaling pathways by binding to G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs).

The GTPase activity of Gα subunit hydrolyzes GTP to GDP and results in the inactivation of G proteins. Gα has intrinsic GTPase activity, which allows it to act as an ATPase and hydrolyze GTP to GDP.

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1. Which of the following is NOT a cooperative relationship to regulate adaptive, specific immune responses?
a. B cells interacting with T-helper cells .
b. B cells interacting with macrophages
c. Cytotoxic T cells interacting with T-helper cells.
d. T-helper cells interacting with antigen -presenting phagocytes .
e. T-helper cells interacting with other T-helper cells of the same type .
2. True or False: Even if they have never been infected with or been immunized against Ebola Virus, most people have the genetic ability to make a primary anti-Ebola adaptive, specific response
3. Smakers often develop respiratory infections when smoking limits the ability of cilia in the throat to remove particulatesThus, smoking leads to a loss
a. Acquired, specific immunity
b. A cellular second line of defense
c. An artificiallyacquired immune function
d. A cellular barrier function
e. A physical barrier function

Answers

1. e. T-helper cells interacting with other T-helper cells of the same type.

2. The statement is false.

The answer is d. A cellular barrier function.

1. The cooperative relationships mentioned in options a, b, c, and d are all involved in regulating adaptive, specific immune responses. B cells interacting with T-helper cells, B cells interacting with macrophages, cytotoxic T cells interacting with T-helper cells, and T-helper cells interacting with antigen-presenting phagocytes are all examples of cooperative interactions that play a role in coordinating and regulating the adaptive immune response. Option e, T-helper cells interacting with other T-helper cells of the same type, does not specifically contribute to the regulation of adaptive immune responses, making it the correct answer

2. False. The genetic ability to mount a primary anti-Ebola adaptive, specific immune response requires prior exposure to the Ebola virus or vaccination. Adaptive immune responses are acquired through the recognition of specific antigens, which requires prior exposure or immunization to generate a memory response. Therefore, individuals who have never been infected with or immunized against Ebola virus would not have the genetic ability to mount a primary anti-Ebola adaptive immune response.

3. The correct answer is d. A cellular barrier function. Smoking affects the cilia in the throat, which are cellular structures responsible for moving mucus and trapped particles out of the respiratory tract. By limiting the ability of cilia to perform their function, smoking compromises the cellular barrier function of the respiratory tract. This impairment can lead to an increased susceptibility to respiratory infections.

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Review the protocol for this lab and put the following steps in order.
Dry cells
Fix cells with formaldehyde
Image cells
Put mounting media on cells
Rinse cells with PBS
Treat cells with dynasore
Incubate 30 min
Incubate 10 min
Incubate 3 min

Answers

Here is the step-by-step explanation of the revised order for the lab protocol:

1. Rinse cells with PBS: This step is performed to remove any debris or substances that may interfere with subsequent procedures.

2. Fix cells with formaldehyde: Formaldehyde is a common fixative used to preserve cell structure and prevent degradation during the experiment.

3. Incubate 3 min: This short incubation period allows for specific interactions or reactions to occur between the cells and the substances used in the experiment.

4. Incubate 10 min: A slightly longer incubation period provides sufficient time for more complex processes to take place, such as protein interactions or signaling pathways.

5. Incubate 30 min: This extended incubation period allows for more comprehensive and time-consuming processes to occur, such as cellular uptake or expression changes.

6. Treat cells with dynasore: Dynasore is a specific treatment used in this experiment, likely to study its effects on cellular processes or pathways of interest.

7. Rinse cells with PBS: Another rinse with PBS is performed to remove any residual substances or treatments.

8. Dry cells: The cells are dried, possibly using techniques like air-drying or gentle blotting, to prepare them for the next step.

9. Put mounting media on cells: Mounting media is applied to the cells, which helps to preserve the specimen and provides a suitable medium for imaging.

10. Image cells: Finally, the cells are imaged using an appropriate imaging system or microscope to visualize and analyze the results of the experiment.

Thus, these steps must be followed in proper order.

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A means of detecting the presence of specific carbohydrate moieties on glycoprotines is O A. ferritin conjugated lectins OB.photobleaching O C. liposome formation O D. SDS-PAGE O E. The freeze fracture technique

Answers

The correct answer is O A. ferritin conjugated lectins. Ferritin conjugated lectins is a method of detecting the presence of specific carbohydrate moieties on glycoproteins.

What is glycoprotein Glycoproteins are proteins in which the carbohydrate group(s) are covalently bonded to the protein chain. Glycoproteins are mostly found on the outer membrane surface of animal cells, and they are involved in cellular recognition and signaling.

Because of their heterogeneity, the identification and characterization of glycoproteins necessitates careful analysis of their carbohydrate moiety. Ferritin conjugated lectins are widely used to detect specific carbohydrate moieties on glycoproteins and to characterize them.

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• Transcribe the following strand of DNA into mRNA CCTTACTTATAATGCTCAT GCTA GGAT GAATATTACGAGTACGAT Translate your mRNA strand above into a sequence of amino acids PRACTICE #2 How many nucleotides are required to code for the following sequence of amino acids Leu - Tyr - Arg - Trp - Ser Is it possible to determine the mRNA sequence that is responsible for producing the following sequence of amino acids? Explain... What does this illustrate?

Answers

DNA transcription is a biochemical process in which the DNA molecule's information is transferred to mRNA. This process is a significant part of protein synthesis. The process of protein synthesis is initiated by a transcribed mRNA strand that carries the genetic information from DNA.

The mRNA strand is produced through a transcription process in which the DNA sequence is transcribed into RNA, and the RNA polymerase molecule catalyzes the reaction. Once the mRNA strand is created, it moves out of the nucleus and travels to the cytoplasm, where it interacts with ribosomes to produce proteins.

Transcribe the following strand of DNA into mRNA:

CCTTACTTATAATGCTCATGCTAGGATGAATATTACGAGTACGAT.

The mRNA sequence will be:

GGAAUGAAUAUUACGAGUACGUAUCUAGACGUACGUAG.

The first step in the process of protein synthesis is transcription. The mRNA strand is then translated into a sequence of amino acids using the genetic code. The sequence of amino acids for the mRNA strand above is:

G - N - N - Y - L - S - E - V - D - S - T - R.

This can be calculated with the help of a genetic code chart. It's not possible to determine the mRNA sequence that is responsible for producing a particular sequence of amino acids. It is because there is more than one mRNA sequence that can encode the same protein.

This is due to the genetic code being degenerate, indicating that more than one codon can code for a single amino acid. This phenomenon is known as codon degeneracy. The sequence Leu - Tyr - Arg - Trp - Ser contains 15 nucleotides (5 amino acids × 3 nucleotides per codon = 15 nucleotides).

Hence, at least 15 nucleotides are required to code for this sequence.

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You make a list of all of the sources of genetic variation that are possible for your organism. Given that this is a prokaryote, this should include which of the following?
A) Mitotic errors and Single nucleotide polymorphisms (i.e., base-pair substitutions) ONLY
B) Single nucleotide polymorphisms (i.e., base-pair substitutions and Extrachromosomal DNA (i.e., plasmids) in the cell ONLY
C) Mitotic errors, Single nucleotide polymorphisms (i.e., base-pair substitutions), and Extrachromosomal DNA (i.e., plasmids) in the cell but NOT Prophages incorporated into the genome
D) Mitotic errors, Single nucleotide polymorphisms (i.e., base-pair substitutions), Prophages incorporated into the genome, and Extrachromosomal DNA (i.e., plasmids) in the cell
E) Single nucleotide polymorphisms (i.e., base-pair substitutions), Prophages incorporated into the genome, and Extrachromosomal DNA (i.e., plasmids) in the cell, but NOT mitotic errors

Answers

Prokaryotes have many genetic variation sources. Mitotic errors, single nucleotide polymorphisms (i.e., base-pair substitutions), extrachromosomal DNA (i.e., plasmids), and prophages integrated into the genome are all possible sources of genetic variation for prokaryotes.

Mitotic errors only occur in eukaryotes, thus eliminating option A. Extrachromosomal DNA (i.e., plasmids), prophages integrated into the genome, and single nucleotide polymorphisms (i.e., base-pair substitutions) are all sources of genetic variation in prokaryotes, but mitotic errors only happen in eukaryotes, therefore option E is also incorrect.

 So, the correct answer is option D, mitotic errors, single nucleotide polymorphisms (i.e., base-pair substitutions), prophages incorporated into the genome, and extrachromosomal DNA (i.e., plasmids) in the cell.

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Select the answer that describes the importance of visualization technologies in medicine. Select an answer and submit. For keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. Human anatomy is variable and this variability is the basis of most diseases and disorders. b They give us the ability to identify normal vs, abnormal body tissues, structures and organs. с Surgery is inherently dangerous so finding alternatives that could replace surgery is why we use visualization technologies. d Visualization technologies support a large industry in the US with many jobs.

Answers

Visualization technologies in medicine are important because they allow us to identify normal and abnormal body tissues, structures, and organs.

Visualization technologies play a crucial role in medicine by providing healthcare professionals with the ability to visualize and examine various aspects of the human body. One of the primary advantages of these technologies is their ability to help identify normal and abnormal body tissues, structures, and organs. By visualizing medical images such as X-rays, MRI scans, CT scans, ultrasound images, and endoscopic views, healthcare providers can accurately assess the presence of diseases, disorders, or anomalies in the body.

These visualization technologies enable healthcare professionals to make informed diagnoses, plan appropriate treatments, and monitor the progress of patients' conditions. They help identify the location, extent, and nature of abnormalities, guiding medical interventions and surgical procedures when necessary. Moreover, visualization technologies provide a non-invasive or minimally invasive means of exploring the internal structures of the body, reducing the risks and complications associated with invasive procedures.

In addition to their clinical benefits, visualization technologies also contribute to a significant industry in the United States, generating employment opportunities and supporting advancements in medical imaging and diagnostic techniques. Overall, the importance of visualization technologies lies in their ability to aid in the accurate assessment and understanding of the human body, ultimately improving patient care and outcomes.

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describe the major events of the menstrual cycle and
what triggers those events (be specific please).

Answers

The major events of the menstrual cycle can be divided into four phases - Menstruation, Follicular Phase, Ovulation Phase, and Luteal Phase. The phases are triggered by the hormones generated.

The menstrual cycle is a complex process that happens in females during their reproductive age. The process begins with the development of the egg and the release of the egg from the ovaries. The lining of the uterus is developed and if fertilisation does not occur, the lining of the uterus sheds and menstruation begins. The four phases of the menstrual cycle are described below:

Menstruation: Menstruation is the first phase of the menstrual cycle. It occurs when the egg from the previous cycle is not fertilized. The hormones estrogen and progesterone levels drop leading to the shedding of the uterus lining which was formed in the previous cycle. This leads to menstrual bleeding.

Follicular Phase: This cycle begins on the first day of the period with the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FCH) from the pituitary gland. FCH helps in the growth of follicles in the ovaries with each follicle containing an egg. Multiple follicles will develop during the phase and eventually, one egg would become the dominant one. This dominant follicle increases the estrogen level which helps in preparing the uterus lining.

Ovulation Phase: This phase begins with the release of the luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland. The ovulation phase is the period when the matured egg is released by the ovary into the fallopian tube. Ovulation occurs in the middle of the menstrual cycle and it is the period to get fertilised.

Luteal Phase: After the ovulation period, the follicle changes to the corpus luteum. This leads to the release of progesterone hormones which helps in the implantation process by thickening the uterus line. If fertilisation occurs, then the embryo gets implanted, else, the corpus luteum would gradually degenerate leading to a decrease in the estrogen and progesterone levels.

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The Cori cycle includes all of the following pathways except: The citric acid cycle O Glycolysis O Fermentation O Gluconeogenesis O The Cori cycle includes all of the above pathways.

Answers

The correct Option is A. The citric acid cycle

The Cori cycle includes all of the following pathways except the citric acid cycle. The Cori cycle refers to a metabolic pathway that occurs between the liver and skeletal muscle cells during periods of high energy demand or anaerobic conditions.

In the Cori cycle, glucose is initially converted to pyruvate through the process of glycolysis, which takes place in the skeletal muscle cells. Pyruvate is then converted to lactate through fermentation, which is an anaerobic process.

The lactate is then transported to the liver, where it undergoes gluconeogenesis, a process in which glucose is synthesized from non-carbohydrate sources.

The purpose of the Cori cycle is to maintain the supply of glucose to the muscles, even when the demand for energy exceeds the capacity of aerobic metabolism.

The lactate produced in the muscle cells is transported to the liver, where it is converted back to glucose and released into the bloodstream for use by other tissues, including the muscles.

The citric acid cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle, is not directly involved in the Cori cycle. It is a central pathway of aerobic metabolism that takes place in the mitochondria and is responsible for the complete oxidation of glucose and the generation of energy-rich molecules such as NADH and FADH2.

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"Explain what is characteristic for humans that produce
cytotoxic granules in their activated cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL)
but that cannot release the granules onto virally infected
cells?

Answers

Humans who produce cytotoxic granules in their activated cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) but cannot release the granules onto virally infected cells may have a deficiency in the process known as degranulation.

Degranulation is a crucial step in the immune response, where CTLs release their cytotoxic granules containing perforin and granzymes to induce apoptosis in the target cells. This inability to release cytotoxic granules onto infected cells can be caused by various factors, such as genetic mutations or defects in the molecular machinery involved in degranulation. One possible explanation could be a dysfunction in the docking and fusion of the cytotoxic granules with the plasma membrane of the CTLs, preventing their release. Without the ability to release the granules, these individuals' CTLs would be compromised in their ability to effectively eliminate virally infected cells.

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After doing Lesson 3 - Interactive Activity, answer this
question concerning the video clip Classical Hydrogen Atom: Answer
1 or 2 of these questions: (a) what are the parts of the atom and
where are

Answers

The parts of the atom are the nucleus (containing protons and neutrons) and electrons orbiting around the nucleus in energy levels or shells.

The classical model of the hydrogen atom describes it as consisting of two main parts:

1. Nucleus: The nucleus is located at the center of the atom and contains positively charged particles called protons and neutral particles called neutrons.

Protons have a positive electric charge, while neutrons have no electric charge.

2. Electrons: Electrons are negatively charged particles that orbit around the nucleus in specific energy levels or shells.

These shells are sometimes referred to as electron clouds. Each shell can hold a specific number of electrons, with the innermost shell being able to hold up to 2 electrons, the second shell up to 8 electrons, and so on.

It's important to note that the classical model is a simplified representation of the atom and does not account for the more complex behavior described by quantum mechanics.

In reality, the distribution of electrons within an atom is more accurately described by electron orbitals and probability clouds.

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Evolutionary trees (i.e. phylogenies), in general are properly understood by scientists to be A. theories B. hypotheses
C. dogmas
D. facts Which of the following is NOT an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A. No mutations occurring B. Non-random mating is occurring C. No selection occurring D. The population size is large What does "fitness" mean when speaking in terms of evolution?
A. Level of overall health of the individual relative to other in its population B. How many offspring an individual produces relative to other in its population C. Level of overall health of the population D. The size and diversity of the gene pool The red spotted damselfish and white spotted damselfish were once considered two different species. Recently they have been redescribed as a single species. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would be a cause for this new description? A. The two types interbreed in nature and produce viable offspring
B. The two types live in the same area and eat the same food C. The two types share a lot of genes
D. The two types look really similar in appearance. Which is/are FALSE regarding what you know about populations? 1. Groups of individuals of the same species II. Populations evolve over time III. Groups of individuals of different species IV. They are the units of evolution
A. II and III B. II and IV C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV

Answers

The answer is B. Non-random mating is occurring is NOT an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Evolutionary trees (i.e. phylogenies), in general are properly understood by scientists to be hypotheses. The assumption that is NOT of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is B. Non-random mating is occurring. When speaking in terms of evolution, "fitness" means how many offspring an individual produces relative to other in its population.

If the red spotted damselfish and white spotted damselfish were to interbreed in nature and produce viable offspring, it would be a cause for this new description. False statements about populations are II and III;

Populations evolve over time and Groups of individuals of different species

.What is the meaning of the term fitness in relation to evolution?

When speaking in terms of evolution, fitness means how many offspring an individual produces relative to others in its population. Fitness is determined by a combination of survival, mating success, and the number of offspring produced. The fittest individuals are the ones that are most successful in reproducing and passing their genes on to the next generation.

What is Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a fundamental concept in population genetics that describes the relationship between gene frequencies and genotype frequencies in a population. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a hypothetical population in which the frequencies of alleles and genotypes do not change over time. It is a model that can be used to test whether a population is evolving or not.

The assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are no mutations occurring, no selection occurring, random mating is occurring, the population size is large, and there is no gene flow. If any of these assumptions are violated, the population will not be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Therefore, the answer is B. Non-random mating is occurring is NOT an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

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Describe each type of infection in the following list and include the mode of transmission in each scenario. Use terms such as primary, secondary, healthcare-associated, STI. mixed, latent, toxemia, chronic, zoonotic, asymptomatic. local, and systemic to describe the types of infections (more than one term may apply, some may not apply to these conditions) I 1) The development of Pneumocystisis pneumonia in an AIDS patient 2) Salmonellosis 3) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome infection acquired while vacationing in a log cabin

Answers

In conclusion, Pneumocystis pneumonia is a systemic infection that can be transmitted via the airborne route, Salmonellosis is both a local and systemic infection that can be caused by contaminated food or water, and Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is a local and zoonotic infection that can be transmitted through the air.

Infections can be divided into several types based on their duration, mode of transmission, and causative agent. Here is the explanation of each infection in detail:1) The development of Pneumocystisis pneumonia in an AIDS patientPneumocystis pneumonia is caused by the Pneumocystis jirovecii fungus and is an opportunistic infection that affects individuals who have compromised immune systems, such as AIDS patients. Pneumocystis pneumonia can be transmitted from person to person via the airborne route, making it a local and systemic infection.2) SalmonellosisSalmonellosis is a type of bacterial infection caused by Salmonella bacteria, which are most commonly transmitted via contaminated food or water. Salmonella can cause both local and systemic infections.3) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome infection acquired while vacationing in a log cabinHantavirus pulmonary syndrome is caused by exposure to rodent droppings, urine, or saliva. This type of infection is zoonotic and can be transmitted through the air, making it a local infection. The symptoms are similar to the flu and can progress to acute respiratory failure, making it a systemic infection.In conclusion, Pneumocystis pneumonia is a systemic infection that can be transmitted via the airborne route, Salmonellosis is both a local and systemic infection that can be caused by contaminated food or water, and Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is a local and zoonotic infection that can be transmitted through the air.

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How did mitochondria and chloroplasts arise according to the endosymbiosis theory?

Answers

According to the endosymbiosis theory, mitochondria and chloroplasts originated from ancient free-living bacteria that were engulfed by a host cell, establishing a symbiotic relationship.

The endosymbiosis theory proposes that mitochondria and chloroplasts, the energy-producing organelles found in eukaryotic cells, have an evolutionary origin rooted in the symbiotic relationship between different types of cells.

Ancient free-living bacteria: According to the theory, billions of years ago, there were free-living bacteria capable of aerobic respiration (ancestors of mitochondria) and photosynthesis (ancestors of chloroplasts).

Engulfment: One type of cell, known as the host cell, engulfed these bacteria through a process called endocytosis, forming a symbiotic relationship rather than digesting them.

Symbiotic relationship: Over time, the engulfed bacteria continued to survive and multiply inside the host cell. They provided various benefits to the host, such as energy production or the ability to harness sunlight for photosynthesis.

Transfer of genetic material: As the symbiotic relationship evolved, some of the genetic material from the engulfed bacteria was transferred to the host cell nucleus.

This process, known as endosymbiotic gene transfer, allowed the host cell to control and regulate the functions of the engulfed organelles.

Coevolution: Through a process of coevolution, the host cell and the engulfed bacteria became mutually dependent on each other.

The bacteria lost certain functions as they relied on the host cell for resources, while the host cell became more efficient at utilizing the energy and products produced by the organelles.

Modern mitochondria and chloroplasts: Today, mitochondria and chloroplasts possess their own DNA, which is distinct from the host cell nucleus.

They replicate independently within cells, similar to bacteria, and continue to provide essential energy production and photosynthesis functions for eukaryotic organisms.

The endosymbiosis theory provides a compelling explanation for the origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts and has significant support from scientific evidence, including similarities between these organelles and free-living bacteria.

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Other than the acid-fast stain, what other technique might be
used to diagnose tuberculosis? What scientist developed this
test?

Answers

Other than the acid-fast stain technique, one of the other techniques that might be used to diagnose tuberculosis is culturing and identifying the bacterium from a clinical specimen. The scientist who developed this test was Robert Koch.

Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that affects the lungs. It is caused by a bacterium known as Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The bacterium can also affect other parts of the body such as the kidneys, bones, and brain. Tuberculosis is a highly infectious disease that is transmitted from person to person through the air. When an infected person coughs, sneezes or talks, they release bacteria into the air, which can be breathed in by other people.

Symptoms of tuberculosis include a persistent cough, chest pain, difficulty breathing, fever, fatigue, and weight loss. Diagnosis of tuberculosis can be done using a variety of methods including:

Acid-fast stain techniqueCulturing and identifying the bacterium from a clinical specimenBlood testsImaging tests such as chest X-rays or CT scans

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Why are high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) considered "good"?
a. The cholesterol transported by HDLs is destined for
destruction
b. HDLs transport cholesterol to the peripheral tissues for
biosynthesis

Answers

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are considered "good" because they are known to have a positive effect on human health by removing cholesterol from the bloodstream and transporting it back to the liver.

This mechanism helps to reduce the amount of cholesterol in the bloodstream and lower the risk of heart disease and stroke. Here is why high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are considered "good":a. The cholesterol transported by HDLs is destined for destructionThe cholesterol transported.

HDLs is destined for destruction because HDLs carry excess cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver, where it is broken down and removed from the body. This mechanism helps to reduce the amount of cholesterol in the bloodstream, which in turn lowers the risk of heart disease and stroke.

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Need answers in 15 mins
Question 15 Which artery/arteries supply the muscles of the posterior compartment of the thigh? Superficial branches of the femoral artery O Arterial anastomoses from the inferior gluteal artery O Per

Answers

The muscles of the posterior compartment of the thigh are primarily supplied by the perforating branches of the profunda femoris artery.

The muscles in the posterior compartment of the thigh include the hamstrings, which consist of the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus muscles. These muscles are responsible for flexing the knee joint and extending the hip joint. The main artery that supplies these muscles is the profunda femoris artery, also known as the deep femoral artery. The profunda femoris artery gives rise to several perforating branches that penetrate through the posterior thigh muscles, providing the necessary blood supply. These perforating branches distribute blood to the surrounding muscles and form an extensive network of arterial anastomoses, ensuring adequate blood flow to the posterior compartment of the thigh.

While the femoral artery does supply blood to the thigh, the superficial branches of the femoral artery primarily serve the muscles in the anterior and medial compartments of the thigh, such as the quadriceps muscles. The inferior gluteal artery, on the other hand, supplies blood to the gluteal muscles and does not directly supply the posterior compartment of the thigh. Therefore, the perforating branches of the profunda femoris artery are the main arteries responsible for supplying the muscles in the posterior compartment of the thigh.

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please give an in depth answer of the electron donors and acceptors for aerobic and anaerobic photoautotrophy
please explain why aerobic and anaerobic photoautotrophy may have these as electron donors and acceptors
AEROBIC PHOTOAUTOTROPHY
Electron Donor: H2O
Electron Acceptor: NADP+
ANAEROBIC PHOTOAUTOTROPHY
Electron Donor: anything except water
Electron Acceptor: NADP+

Answers

1. In aerobic photoautotrophy, the electron donor is water (H2O), and the electron acceptor is NADP+. 2. In anaerobic photoautotrophy, the electron donor can vary, electron acceptor aerobic photoautotrophy, is NADP+.

1. Aerobic photoautotrophy relies on water as the electron donor. During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll molecules, leading to the excitation of electrons. These excited electrons are passed through a series of electron carriers in the thylakoid membrane, ultimately reaching the photosystem II complex. Here, water molecules are split through a process called photolysis, releasing electrons, protons, and oxygen. The released electrons are used to generate ATP via electron transport chains, and NADP+ is reduced to NADPH, which acts as a coenzyme in the Calvin cycle for carbon fixation.

2. Anaerobic photoautotrophy occurs in environments where oxygen is absent or limited. In these conditions, organisms utilize alternative electron donors to sustain their photosynthetic processes. For example, purple sulfur bacteria use sulfur compounds such as hydrogen sulfide (H2S) as electron donors. Green sulfur bacteria can utilize organic molecules as electron donors. These organisms have specialized pigment systems that absorb light energy and transfer it to reaction centers, where electrons are excited. The electrons are then transferred through electron carriers, electron acceptor ultimately reducing NADP+ to NADPH. The exact mechanism and electron donors can vary among different groups of anaerobic photosynthetic organisms, allowing them to thrive in diverse ecological niches.

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Black children are children. 10 times more O 7-8 times more Oless Otwice as likely to die from asthma compared to white The likelihood of developing a chronic disease such as asthma, COPD, or heart disease is correlated most strongly with the gender of the person O the education level of the person Othe ZIP code a person lives in O the affluence of the person

Answers

Black children are 7-8 times more likely to die from asthma compared to white children. The likelihood of developing a chronic disease such as asthma, COPD, or heart disease is most strongly correlated with factors such as the ZIP code a person lives in and the affluence of the person, rather than their gender or education level.

Research has shown significant disparities in health outcomes among different racial and ethnic groups, particularly regarding childhood asthma. Black children are found to be 7-8 times more likely to die from asthma compared to white children. This disparity highlights the unequal burden of asthma and its related complications faced by Black communities.

When considering the likelihood of developing chronic diseases like asthma, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), or heart disease, various factors come into play. While gender and education level may have some influence on health outcomes, studies have consistently shown that social determinants of health play a significant role.

Factors such as the ZIP code a person lives in, which reflects the community's social and economic conditions, and the person's affluence or socio-economic status have a stronger correlation with the likelihood of developing chronic diseases.

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Due to large amounts of ATP available in a cell for hydrolysis, the linear forms of glucose monomers in cells can directly undergo dehydration reactions with each other to form glycosidic linkages producing glycogen, without having to isomerize into the ring forms of glucose monomers. a. True
b. False Cells lining the small intestine are specialized for absorbing nutrients from food. What type of structure might you expect these cells to have? a. A highly folded cell membrane to increase surface area b. Multiple nuclei c. Lots of mitochondria d. A thick cell wall to keep out the toxic molecules e. Lots of ribosomes

Answers

Question 1: This statement "Due to large amounts of ATP available in a cell for hydrolysis, the linear forms of glucose monomers in cells can directly undergo dehydration reactions with Glycogen is formed when multiple glucose molecules join together through glycosidic linkages without undergoing the process of isomerization into ring forms." is True.

Question 2:  The structure that might be expected is option is a. A highly folded cell membrane to increase surface area.

The presence of abundant ATP in cells allows for the direct dehydration reactions between linear glucose monomers, bypassing the need for isomerization into ring forms, resulting in the formation of glycogen through glycosidic linkages.

Question 2: Cells in the lining of the small intestine, which are specialized for nutrient absorption, are likely to possess a extensively folded cell membrane in order to maximize their surface area for efficient nutrient absorption.

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What issues in our modern society can lead to a damaging stress
response? list as many as you can think of.
pls help i need some ideas

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The few issues in present day society that can contribute to a harming stretch reaction is Work-related stretch: Tall work requests, long working hours, need of control, and work frailty can lead to inveterate stretch.

Society issues explained.

Certainly! Here are a few issues in present day society that can contribute to a harming stretch reaction:

Work-related stretch: Tall work requests, long working hours, need of control, and work frailty can lead to inveterate stretch.Money related weight: Financial insecurity, obligation, unemployment, and the fetched of living can all contribute to critical push.Social media and innovation over-burden: Steady network, comparison with others, cyberbullying, and data over-burden can lead to uneasiness and stretch.Relationship issues: Challenges in individual connections, clashes, separate, or need of social bolster can trigger push reactions.Scholarly weight: Unreasonable desires, competition, over the top workload, and execution uneasiness can lead to constant push among understudies.Natural concerns: Climate alter, contamination, characteristic calamities, and biological emergencies can cause push and uneasiness approximately long-term .Wellbeing concerns: Persistent sicknesses, inabilities, terminal illnesses, and the fear of ailment or passing can altogether affect mental well-being.Segregation and social treachery: Prejudice, sexism, homophobia, and other shapes of segregation can lead to constant push and passionate strain.Political distress and societal pressures: Living in politically unstable districts, encountering social distress, or confronting human rights issues can contribute to push.Overpowering desires: Unlikely magnificence guidelines, societal standards, and social weights to comply can lead to unremitting push.Child rearing challenges: Adjusting work and family, need of back, child rearing blame, and weight to raise effective children can cause stretch.Traumatic occasions: Encountering or seeing viciousness, mishaps, characteristic catastrophes, or other traumatic occasions can lead to post-traumatic push clutter (PTSD) or other stress-related disarranges.

It's critical to note that these are fair illustrations, and people may involvement stretch in numerous ways depending on their individual circumstances and flexibility. On the off chance that you're managing with stretch, it's continuously a great thought to look for bolster from companions, family, or mental wellbeing experts who can give direction and help.

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Assume that with your nucleic acid extraction procedure you successfully isolated the DNA from the biological material you are working with. Using the equation below calculate the molecular weight of the given partial DNA sequence:
5’-AGTGGTCCTGAGGTCGTAT-3’
Anhydrous Molecular Weight = (An x 313.21) + (Tn x 304.2) + (Cn x 289.18) + (Gn x 329.21) - 61.96 (g/mole)

Answers

Therefore, the approximate molecular weight of the given partial DNA sequence 5’-AGTGGTCCTGAGGTCGTAT-3’ is approximately 3583.03 g/mole.

To calculate the molecular weight of the given partial DNA sequence, we can use the provided equation and substitute the number of occurrences for each nucleotide.

Let's calculate the molecular weight:

An = number of adenine (A) nucleotides = 2

Tn = number of thymine (T) nucleotides = 4

Cn = number of cytosine (C) nucleotides = 4

Gn = number of guanine (G) nucleotides = 5

Anhydrous Molecular Weight = (An x 313.21) + (Tn x 304.2) + (Cn x 289.18) + (Gn x 329.21) - 61.96 (g/mole)

Substituting the values:

Anhydrous Molecular Weight = (2 x 313.21) + (4 x 304.2) + (4 x 289.18) + (5 x 329.21) - 61.96 (g/mole)

Calculating:

Anhydrous Molecular Weight = 626.42 + 1216.8 + 1156.72 + 1646.05 - 61.96 (g/mole)

Anhydrous Molecular Weight 3583.03 g/mole

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Phosphodiesterase is ____________
Select one:
a. a trimeric G protein
b. a photopigment
C. an enzyme that breaks down cGMP
d. an enzyme the synthesizes cGMPX
e. a 7 transmembrane receptor

Answers

Phosphodiesterase is option C. an enzyme that breaks down cGMP

Phosphodiesterase is a family of enzymes that hydrolyze cyclic nucleotides such as cGMP and cAMP. They break down cGMP into GMP and cAMP into AMP, thereby controlling their intracellular levels. PDEs (phosphodiesterases) are ubiquitous enzymes that play an important role in cellular signaling by regulating cyclic nucleotide levels.The intracellular levels of cyclic nucleotides, cAMP, and cGMP, are controlled by the action of PDEs.

They hydrolyze cyclic nucleotides to their inactive form, allowing cells to respond rapidly to new stimuli. The action of PDE inhibitors, such as sildenafil (Viagra), leads to an increase in cGMP levels, resulting in smooth muscle relaxation in the corpus cavernosum, leading to an erection.

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What is the Beer and Lambert Law and how does it relate to
premability of living membranes lab?

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The Beer and Lambert Law is a quantitative relation between the concentration of a solute and the light that passes through it. This law is commonly used in various fields, such as spectroscopy, physics, and chemistry, to determine the concentration of a solute in a solution.

The Beer and Lambert Law is a quantitative relation between the concentration of a solute and the light that passes through it. This law is commonly used in various fields, such as spectroscopy, physics, and chemistry, to determine the concentration of a solute in a solution. In other words, it is a way to determine the concentration of a solute in a solution based on how much light is absorbed by the solution. Premability of living membranes lab, on the other hand, refers to a laboratory experiment that involves studying the permeability of living membranes, which are biological barriers that regulate the movement of molecules and ions between cells and their environment. This experiment is typically performed using a solution of a solute, such as a dye, and a living membrane, such as a cell membrane.

The goal is to determine the permeability of the membrane and how it relates to the concentration of the solute used in the experiment. The Beer and Lambert Law is related to the permeability of living membranes lab because it is used to determine the concentration of the solute used in the experiment. By measuring how much light is absorbed by the solution, one can determine the concentration of the solute, which can then be used to study the permeability of the membrane. If the membrane is more permeable, more solute will be able to pass through, resulting in a higher concentration of the solute inside the cell. This can be measured using the Beer and Lambert Law.

Overall, the Beer and Lambert Law is an important tool for studying the permeability of living membranes and understanding how biological barriers regulate the movement of molecules and ions between cells and their environment.

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Which is the correct answer?
Genes control traits by ...
producing palindromes.
directing the production of proteins.
producing DNA.
governing the production of restriction sites.

Answers

Genes control traits by directing the production of proteins.

Genes are responsible for the traits that are inherited by offspring from their parents. They are made up of DNA, which carries the genetic information needed to produce proteins. Proteins are the key to gene expression, which is the process by which genes are activated and their instructions are carried out.

Therefore, genes control traits by directing the production of proteins. This is the main answer to the given question.

Genes control traits through a process known as gene expression, which involves the production of proteins. Proteins are responsible for carrying out the instructions encoded in a gene's DNA sequence, which in turn determines the traits that are expressed by an organism.

Each gene contains a sequence of DNA that codes for a particular protein. This sequence is transcribed into messenger RNA (mRNA), which is then translated into a protein. The sequence of amino acids in the protein determines its structure and function, which in turn determines the traits that are expressed by the organism.

Gene expression is tightly regulated to ensure that genes are only activated when they are needed. This is accomplished through a variety of mechanisms, including the binding of regulatory proteins to specific DNA sequences, the modification of chromatin structure, and the processing of mRNA transcripts before they are translated into proteins.

Overall, genes control traits by directing the production of proteins, which carry out the instructions encoded in a gene's DNA sequence.

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Criticise if the following statement is CORRECT: "Virus causing mumps is highly effective in release of newly synthesized virus after infecting the cells so that the subsequent adsorption and penetration is easily carried out, leading to a spreading from one infected cell to other uninfected cells." (10 marks)

Answers

Lack of clarity: The statement does not clearly specify which virus causing mumps is being referred to.

Mumps is primarily caused by the mumps virus, which belongs to the Paramyxoviridae family. It would be more accurate to specify the particular strain of the mumps virus if that is what is being discussed.

Inaccurate terminology: The term "highly effective" is not appropriate in this context. Instead, it would be more accurate to use terms like "efficient" or "capable" to describe the viral replication and release process.

Inconsistent language: The statement uses the phrase "newly synthesized virus" without prior explanation. It would be clearer to explain that the virus replicates within the infected cells and produces new virus particles.

Misleading information: The statement suggests that the primary role of the virus is to facilitate adsorption and penetration into uninfected cells. While adsorption and penetration are important steps in viral infection, they are not the sole purposes of the virus. The main objective of a virus is to replicate within host cells and produce more virus particles.

Incomplete explanation: The statement does not elaborate on the mechanisms or factors that make the virus effective in releasing newly synthesized viruses. It would be beneficial to provide additional information about the specific molecular or cellular processes involved in the release of viral particles.

Overgeneralization: The statement claims that the virus spreads from one infected cell to other uninfected cells. While this is generally true for many viruses, it does not apply to all viruses or infections. Different viruses employ various mechanisms for spreading within the host, such as direct cell-to-cell transmission or systemic dissemination.

Lack of evidence or references: The statement does not provide any supporting evidence or references to scientific literature. Without reliable sources, it is difficult to assess the accuracy and validity of the statement.

Lack of context: The statement does not mention the specific host organism or provide any contextual information. The effectiveness of viral replication and spread can vary depending on the host's immune response, viral strain, and other factors. Providing more context would help in better understanding the statement.

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Question 1 1 F Boiling a solution is an excellent way to sterilize as it will destroy all microbes. True False Question 2 1 pts Which group of organisms tend to be the most resistant to disinfectants? Gram postive organisms O Gram negative organisms Both are equally resistant No answer text provided

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Boiling a solution is an excellent way to sterilize as it will destroy all microbes. True/False. Boiling is one of the oldest and most widely used methods of sterilizing fluids and materials.

Boiling can be an effective way of sterilizing because it kills the bacteria, viruses, and fungi by denaturing their enzymes and other proteins. However, boiling is not a complete method of sterilization as some microbes can survive boiling at 100°C for several minutes.

For this reason, boiling is only used as a disinfectant for heat-resistant items like utensils, glassware, and some laboratory equipment.

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Which of the reactions in the TCA cycle reduce ubiquinone rather than NAD+?
O a-ketoglutarate → succinyl-CoA
O Oxaloacetate + acetyl-CoA → citrate
O Malate → oxaloacetate
O Succinate fumarate
O Isocitrate-a-ketoglutarate

Answers

The reaction in the TCA cycle that reduces ubiquinone rather than NAD+ is "Succinate → Fumarate."

In the TCA cycle, the reduction of NAD+ occurs in three reactions: Isocitrate → α-ketoglutarate, α-ketoglutarate → Succinyl-CoA, and Malate → Oxaloacetate. These reactions involve the transfer of electrons to NAD+, resulting in the formation of NADH.

However, the reaction "Succinate → Fumarate" is different. It involves the conversion of succinate to fumarate and the reduction of ubiquinone (also known as coenzyme Q) to ubiquinol. This reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase, which is associated with the inner mitochondrial membrane.

The reduction of ubiquinone to ubiquinol in this reaction is important for the electron transport chain, as it allows for the transfer of electrons to complex III, contributing to the generation of ATP during oxidative phosphorylation.

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Rhabdomyolysis is a pathologic process associated with
A.
localised scleroderma
B.
fibromyalgia
C.
Paget's disease
D.
polymyositis
E.
osteoarthrosis

Answers

Rhabdomyolysis is a pathologic process associated with polymyositis. It is a severe condition characterized by the breakdown of skeletal muscle fibers, leading to the release of muscle cell contents into the bloodstream.(option d)

Rhabdomyolysis is not associated with localized scleroderma, fibromyalgia, Paget's disease, or osteoarthrosis. Localized scleroderma is a condition that primarily affects the skin, fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder, Paget's disease is a bone disorder characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, and osteoarthrosis refers to degenerative joint disease.

Polymyositis, on the other hand, is an autoimmune disease that causes inflammation and weakness in the skeletal muscles. In some cases, the inflammation and muscle fiber breakdown can be severe enough to lead to rhabdomyolysis. Prompt recognition and treatment of rhabdomyolysis are crucial to prevent complications and manage the underlying cause, such as polymyositis, effectively.

In summary, rhabdomyolysis is a pathologic process associated with polymyositis, an autoimmune disease that causes muscle inflammation and weakness. It is important to differentiate rhabdomyolysis from other conditions and provide appropriate management to prevent further complications.

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Other Questions
The continuous flow in a horizontal, frictionless rectangular open channel is subcritical. A smooth step-up bed is built downstream on the channel floor. As the height of the step-up bed is increased, choked condition is attained. With further increase in the height of the step-up bed, the water surface over the step-up bed will decrease to the extent that it will be above the critical depth. flow will stop. upstream will increase to the extent that it will create supercritical flow over the step-up bed. over the step-up bed will decrease to the extent that it will be below the critical depth. Twenty-one members of the executive committee of the Student Senate must vote for a student representative for the college board of trustees from among three candidates: Greenburg (G), Haskins (H), and Vazquez (V). The preference table follows.Number of votes 8 2 7 4First: V G H HSecond: G H V GThird: H V G VAnother way to determine the winner if the plurality with elimination method is used is to eliminate the candidate with the most last-place votes at each step. Using the preference table given to the left, determine the winner if the plurality with elimination method is used and the candidate with the most last-place votes is eliminated at each step. Choose the correct answer below.A. GreensburgB. There is no winner. There is a tie between Vazquez and GreenburgC. VazquezD. HaskinsE. There is no winner. There is a three-way tie. A single stranded sequence of a gene is shown below. An investigator wants to amplify and isolate this small gene using PCR. Design two PCR primers, each 15 nucleotides long, that can be used to amplify this DNA segment. (remember that DNA sequences are written 5' to 3' by convention) ACTTTCCAAACGCCCCGTGTCGATACTGAACGAATCGATGCACGCTCCC TTCCTTGAAAACGCATAAACATACAAGTGGGCAGATGATGCGTACGCCC CTCTAATACATCCAACACTCTACGCCCTCTTCAAGAGCTGGAAGGGCA CCCTGCACTTGGATAGGGGATTATCTCGTAAGGCAAGCTCGTACCGTC ATTCATGCGGAAGAGTTAACACGATTGGAAGTAGGGATAGTTTCGAA CCTCGGTTACTAGTCCTAATAAGGGAACGCTGTCTGAAGGATGAGTGT CAGCCAGTGTA What comprises a household's purchasing power? O occupation and income O social class and education O age and gender O income and accumulated wealth O income and education An aluminum rod 30 mm in diameter and 6 m long is subjected to an axial tensile load of 75 kN. Compute (a) stress, (b) strain, (c) total elongation 1. Explain the reason why pulp sensation diminishes as ageprogresses. 1. (20pts) Schedule 80 PVC pipe has an outside diameter of 1.900in and an inside diameter of 1.476in. PVC has a yield strength of 8ksi and an elastic modulus of 400ksi. You intend to make a "potato cannon." a. (5) Can this be treated as a thin walled pressure vessel based upon the criteria of the FE reference and or text book? b. (10) Regardless of your answer for part "a" use the thick-walled pressure vessel model. Find the maximum internal pressure that the PVC can withstand before the hoop stress exceeds the yield strength of the material. c. (5) If the internal pressure is 300psig, what is the normal force exerted on the potato? Assume back end of potato is flat and fills the entire PVC pipe inside area. 23 Question (2 points) Compare the fuel values for one mole of benzene (C6H6) and three moles of acetylene (CH2). Compound C6H6( C2H2(8) 0(8) CO(g) HO(0) 1st attempt AH (kJ/mol) 49.0 226.7 Analgesics are used for the relief of:___ A Pain B. Ulcers C. Congestion In the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, in the ovary Select one: a. the follicle matures b. a corpus luteum forms c. progesterone is produced as the primary hormone d. insulin is produced as the Sodium bicarbonate decomposes to produce sodium carbonate, water and carbon dioxide gas. Classify the type of reaction. combustion B combination C single replacement D double replacement E decompositi Review the phospholipid bilayer. Understand the fluid mosaicmodel of plasma membranes. Make sure you know what moleculesmake-up the membrane and the functions of membrane proteins. 100 Points Major Construction Company has kept records of its past construction projects. Their records show the following information: Job 1: Asphalt Concrete Paving Quantity = 800 tons in 3 days Job Use Cramer's Rule to solve (if possible) the system of linear equations. 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