Students held a six-mole strip of copper strip over a flame until a


combustion began. Students were provided the balanced chemical


reaction for the combustion of copper and asked to describe the limiting


reactant.


2Cu + O2 + 2Cuo


Student Description of Limiting Reactant


Student 1 The limiting reactant is copper because all of the oxygen


combusted and the room still contained oxygen.


Student 2 The limiting reactant is oxygen because the oxygen will be


used up before the copper.


Student 3 The limiting reactant is copper because twice as much oxygen


is needed compared to oxygen.


Student 4 The limiting reactant cannot be determined because the


number of moles of oxygen was not known.


Which student correctly describes the limiting reactant?

Answers

Answer 1

Student 2 correctly describes the limiting reactant. In the balanced chemical equation provided (2Cu + O2 → 2CuO), the stoichiometric ratio between copper and oxygen is 2:1. This means that for every 2 moles of copper, 1 mole of oxygen is required for complete combustion.

In Student 1's response, they incorrectly state that the limiting reactant is copper because all the oxygen combusted and oxygen was still present in the room. However, the presence of oxygen in the room does not determine the limiting reactant.

In Student 3's response, they incorrectly state that the limiting reactant is copper because twice as much oxygen is needed compared to oxygen. This statement is confusing and does not accurately reflect the stoichiometric ratio in the balanced equation.

In Student 4's response, they incorrectly state that the limiting reactant cannot be determined because the number of moles of oxygen was not known. The limiting reactant can still be determined based on the stoichiometry of the balanced equation, even if the specific number of moles is not known.

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Related Questions

I. When does the development of a child's nervous system begin? *

1 point

a month after fertilization

as soon as fertilization

second week after fertilization

third week after fertilization

2. Homeostasis is better understood as the_____. *

1 point

balance of flow in the substances that sustain life

exchange of substances that sustain life

overall functions of life in the womb

energy flow within the embryo

3. What does regulation mean? *

1 point

To adjust something so that it works correctly as required

To control or direct something by rules

To allow passage of air, gas, etc. To make something to go faster or slower. 4. Which part of the brain handles the incoming and outgoing messages? *

1 point

cerebrum

cerebellum

hypothalamus

thalamus

5. Which among the protective measures of the nervous system serves a cushion to minimize damage? *

1 point

bones

tissues

cerebrospinal fluid

meninges

TRUE or FALSE

1. Neurons travel through synapses in order to pass on information. *

1 point

True

False

2. When we are out on a jog, it is our somatic nervous system that is controlling our jogging movement. *

1 point

True

False

3. The nervous system is made up of these three major parts: the brain spinal cord, and nerves. *

1 point

True

False

4. When the blood sugar level is too high, the body performs negative feedback by producing more glucagon. *

1 point

True

False

5. The dendrite is the protective layer around the body of a neuron. *

1 point

True

False

Answers

1. The development of nervous system begins as soon as fertilization. 2. Homeostasis is better understood as balance of flow in substances that sustain life. 3. Regulation means to control something by rules. 4. cerebrum. 5. Cerebrospinal fluid serves as a cushion to minimize damage as a protective measure of the nervous system.

1. The development of a child's nervous system begins as soon as fertilization occurs. The nervous system is one of the earliest systems to develop in the embryo and plays a crucial role in the overall development and functioning of the body.

2. Homeostasis refers to the balance of flow in the substances that sustain life. It involves the regulation and maintenance of stable internal conditions necessary for optimal functioning of the body. This balance ensures that various physiological processes, such as body temperature, blood pressure, and pH levels, remain within a narrow range. 3. Regulation means to control or direct something by rules. In the context of the nervous system, regulation refers to the control and coordination of various bodily functions to maintain homeostasis. It involves the communication and integration of signals within the nervous system to initiate appropriate responses to internal and external stimuli.

4. The part of the brain that handles incoming and outgoing messages is the cerebrum. It is the largest part of the brain and is responsible for higher-order functions such as perception, cognition, and voluntary movement. The cerebrum processes sensory information and sends motor commands to initiate appropriate actions. 5. Among the protective measures of the nervous system, cerebrospinal fluid serves as a cushion to minimize damage. Cerebrospinal fluid surrounds and protects the brain and spinal cord, acting as a shock absorber. It provides a physical barrier and helps distribute nutrients, remove waste, and regulate pressure within the central nervous system.

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a person standing a certain distance from eleven identical loudspeakers is hearing a sound level intensity of 112 db. what sound level intensity would this person hear if two are turned off? in dB

Answers

The person would hear a sound level intensity of 138 dB if two of the eleven identical loudspeakers are turned off.

If the person is standing at a certain distance from eleven identical loudspeakers and hearing a sound level intensity of 112 dB, we can use the inverse square law to find the sound level intensity when two loudspeakers are turned off. The inverse square law states that the sound intensity decreases in proportion to the square of the distance from the source. Let's assume that the distance between the person and the loudspeakers is d. When all eleven loudspeakers are turned on, the sound intensity at the person's location is 112 dB. If two loudspeakers are turned off, there are nine remaining loudspeakers. The new distance from the person to each of the remaining nine loudspeakers is still d, so the new sound intensity, I_2, can be calculated using the inverse square law: I_1/I_2 = (d_2/d_1)^2

where I_1 is the initial sound intensity, d_1 is the initial distance, d_2 is the new distance, and I_2 is the new sound intensity.

We can rearrange this equation to solve for I_2: I_2 = I_1 * (d_1/d_2)^2

When two loudspeakers are turned off, there are nine remaining loudspeakers. Therefore, we can calculate the new sound intensity as:

I_2 = 112 dB * (11/9)^2 = 138 dB (approximately).

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If a person is standing at a certain distance from eleven identical loudspeakers, the sound intensity they hear will depend on several factors, including the distance from the loudspeakers, the power output of the loudspeakers, and the number of loudspeakers in operation.

Assuming that all eleven loudspeakers are producing the same level of sound intensity, and the person is equidistant from each speaker, turning off two of the speakers would result in a reduction of sound intensity at the person's location.

The reduction in sound intensity would depend on the specific configuration of the loudspeakers and the distance from the person to the loudspeakers, but we can estimate the reduction in sound intensity using the inverse square law.

The inverse square law states that the sound intensity at a given distance from a point source is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. Therefore, if we assume that the person is equidistant from each of the eleven loudspeakers and the sound intensity at that distance is x, then the sound intensity at the person's location with two speakers turned off would be:

I = x * (9/11)^2

where I is the new sound intensity in watts per square meter.

To convert the sound intensity into decibels (dB), we can use the following equation:

L = 10 log10(I/I0)

where L is the sound level in dB, I is the sound intensity in watts per square meter, and I0 is the reference sound intensity of 10^−12 watts per square meter.

Using this equation and assuming a sound intensity of 1 watt per square meter at the person's location with all eleven speakers turned on, we can calculate the sound level with two speakers turned off as:

L = 10 log10((1 * (9/11)^2)/10^-12) ≈ 67 dB

Therefore, with two loudspeakers turned off, the person would hear the sound at a level of approximately 67 dB.

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Consider an alumina fiber reinforced magnesium composite. Calculate the composite stress at the matrix yield strain. The matrix yield stress 180 MPa, Em=70 GPa, and Poisson ratio v=0.3. Take volume fraction of fiber Vf=50%.

Answers

If an alumina fiber reinforced magnesium composite the composite stress at the matrix yield strain is 153 MPa.

To calculate the composite stress at the matrix yield strain, we need to use the rule of mixtures, which assumes that the composite behaves as a homogeneous material with properties that are a weighted average of the individual constituents. The composite stress can be calculated using the following formula:

σc = (1-Vf)σm + Vfσf

Where:
- σc is the composite stress
- Vf is the volume fraction of fiber
- σm is the matrix stress at yield
- σf is the fiber stress at yield

First, we need to calculate the fiber stress at yield. We can assume that the fiber remains elastic and does not yield. Therefore, the fiber stress at yield is equal to its maximum yield stress, which we do not have in this question. However, we can assume a typical maximum yield stress for alumina fibers of around 3 GPa.

σf = 3 GPa

Now, we can calculate the composite stress at the matrix yield strain:

σc = (1-0.5) x 180 MPa + 0.5 x 3 GPa
σc = 90 MPa + 1.5 GPa
σc = 153 MPa

Therefore, the composite stress at the matrix yield strain is 153 MPa.

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A 1.5-cm-tall candle flame is 61cm from a lens with a focal length of 22cm .A. What is the image distance?B. What is the height of the flame's image? Remember that an upright image has a positive height, whereas an inverted image has a negative height.

Answers

The image distance is approximately 37.9 cm, and the height of the flame's image is approximately -0.93 cm (inverted).



The thin lens equation:
1/f = 1/di + 1/do
where f is the focal length of the lens, di is the image distance, and do is the object distance.
A. What is the image distance?
First, we need to convert the height of the flame from centimeters to meters, as the focal length is given in meters:
h = 1.5 cm = 0.015 m
The distance from centimeters to meters as well:
do = 61 cm = 0.61 m
Now we can plug in the values into the thin lens equation and solve for di:
1/0.22 = 1/di + 1/0.61
di = 0.155 m
A. The image distance is 0.155 meters.
B. The height of the flame's image is 0.00381 meters, or 3.81 millimeters.
1. Lens formula: 1/f = 1/u + 1/v
2. Magnification formula: M = h'/h = v/u
A. Image distance (v):
Given, focal length (f) = 22 cm and object distance (u) = 61 cm.
1/f = 1/u + 1/v
1/22 = 1/61 + 1/v
61v = 22v + 22*61
v = (22*61)/(61-22)
v ≈ 37.9 cm
B. Height of the flame's image (h'):
Given, object height (h) = 1.5 cm.
Now, using the magnification formula:
M = h'/h = v/u
h'/1.5 = 37.9/61
h' = (1.5 * 37.9) / 61
h' ≈ 0.93 cm (inverted image, since it's real)

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A pair of parallel conducting rails that are separated by a distance d=3 m lies at a right angle to a uniform magnetic field B=0.5 T directed into the paper. resistor R=2.5Ω is connected across the rails. A conducting bar is moving to the right at speed v=5 m/s across the rails. What is the direction and magnitude of the current in the resistor?

Answers

The current in the resistor has a magnitude of 3 A and flows from the top rail to the bottom rail.

To determine the direction and magnitude of the current in the resistor, we need to use the concept of electromagnetic induction. .
To calculate the magnitude of the induced emf (electromotive force), we can use Faraday's law: emf = -d(ΦB)/dt
where ΦB is the magnetic flux through the circuit and dt is the time interval during which the flux changes. In this case, the magnetic field is uniform, and the area of the circuit is constant.

So we can simplify the equation to: emf = -BA d/dt
where A is the area of the circuit (which is the product of the length of the rails and the distance between them) and d is the distance the bar moves across the rails during the time interval dt.

emf = -0.5 T * (3 m * 2.5 Ω) * (5 m/s)/(3 m) = -2.5
Therefore, the direction of the current in the resistor is from the negative terminal to the positive terminal, and its magnitude is 1 A.
EMF = B * d * v = 0.5 T * 3 m * 5 m/s = 7.5 V
I = EMF / R = 7.5 V / 2.5 Ω = 3 A

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0.10 mol of argon gas is admitted to an evacuated 42 cm3 container at 20∘c. the gas then undergoes an isobaric heating to a temperature of 290 ∘c. What is the final volume of the gas?

Answers

The final volume of the gas is 77.7 cm3. To solve this problem, we can use the combined gas law which relates the initial and final conditions of pressure, volume, and temperature of a gas. The combined gas law is expressed as : (P₁V₁)/T₁ = (P₂V₂)/T₂.

P₁, V₁, and T₁ are the initial pressure, volume, and temperature, respectively, and P₂, V₂, and T₂ are the final pressure, volume, and temperature, respectively.

In this case, we know that the initial pressure is zero since the container was initially evacuated. We are also given the initial volume, temperature, and amount of gas. Therefore, we can calculate the initial pressure using the ideal gas law:

PV = nRT

where P is the pressure, V is the volume, n is the amount of gas (in moles), R is the universal gas constant, and T is the temperature (in Kelvin).

First, we need to convert the temperature from Celsius to Kelvin by adding 273.15:

T₁ = 20 + 273.15 = 293.15 K

Next, we can substitute the values given into the ideal gas law:

P₁V₁ = nRT₁
P₁ = nRT₁/V₁
P₁ = (0.10 mol)(8.31 J/mol K)(293.15 K)/(0.042 L)
P₁ = 5828.57 Pa

Now that we have the initial pressure, we can use the combined gas law to find the final volume:

(P₁V₁)/T₁ = (P₂V₂)/T₂

Since the process is isobaric (constant pressure), the final pressure is the same as the initial pressure:

P₂ = P₁ = 5828.57 Pa

We also need to convert the final temperature to Kelvin:

T₂ = 290 + 273.15 = 563.15 K

Now we can solve for V₂:

(P₁V₁)/T₁ = (P₂V₂)/T₂
V₂ = (P₁V₁T₂)/(P₂T₁)
V₂ = (5828.57 Pa)(0.042 L)(563.15 K)/(5828.57 Pa)(293.15 K)
V₂ = 0.0777 L or 77.7 cm3 (rounded to 3 significant figures)

Therefore, the final volume of the gas is 77.7 cm3.

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The distance between two consecutive crests is 2. 5 meters. Which characteristic of the wave does this distance represent? A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Period D. Wavelength E. Phase.

Answers

D. Wavelength. The distance between two consecutive crests represents the wavelength of a wave. Wavelength is defined as the distance between two corresponding points on a wave, such as two crests or two troughs.

It is typically measured in meters and determines the spatial extent of one complete cycle of the wave. In this case, the distance of 2.5 meters between the crests indicates the length of one full wavelength in the wave. The characteristic of the wave represented by the given distance is the wavelength (D). Wavelength is the distance between two consecutive points with the same phase, such as two crests or two troughs. It is a measure of the spatial extent of one complete cycle of the wave. In this case, the distance of 2.5 meters represents the length of one complete wavelength. Amplitude (A) refers to the maximum displacement of the wave from its equilibrium position, frequency (B) is the number of complete cycles of the wave occurring in one second, period (C) is the time taken for one complete cycle of the wave, and phase (E) represents the position of the wave at a particular point in time.

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light is emitted by a hydrogen atom as its electron falls from the n = 5 state to the n = 2 state.

Answers

Therefore, the emitted light has a frequency of 3.03 x 10^15 Hz and a wavelength of 98.4 nm, which corresponds to ultraviolet light

What is the frequency or wavelength of the light emitted by a hydrogen atom?

When an electron in a hydrogen atom falls from a higher energy level to a lower one, it emits a photon of light with a specific energy that corresponds to thebetween the two levels. The energy of the photon can be calculated using the formula:

E = hf

where E is the energy of the photon, h is Planck's constant (6.626 x 10^-34 joule-seconds), and f is the frequency of the light.

The energy difference between the n = 5 and n = 2 states in a hydrogen atom is given by the Rydberg formula:

ΔE = Rh(1/n2^2 - 1/n1^2)

where ΔE is the energy difference, Rh is the Rydberg constant (1.097 x 10^7 m^-1), n1 is the initial energy level (n1 = 5), and n2 is the final energy level (n2 = 2).

Substituting these values into the equation, we get:

ΔE = Rh(1/2^2 - 1/5^2)

   = Rh(1/4 - 1/25)

   = Rh(21/100)

The energy of the photon emitted when the electron falls from the n = 5 state to the n = 2 state is equal to the energy difference between these two states:

E = ΔE = Rh(21/100)

Finally, we can calculate the frequency of the emitted light using the formula:

f = E/h

Substituting the values we obtained, we get:

[tex]f = (Rh/ h)(21/100)\\ = (1.097 x 10\^\ 7 m\^\ -1 / 6.626 x 10\^\ -34 J s) (21/100)\\ = 3.03 x 10\^\ 15 Hz[/tex]

Therefore, the light emitted by a hydrogen atom as its electron falls from the n = 5 state to the n = 2 state has a frequency of 3.03 x 10^15 Hz. This corresponds to a wavelength of approximately 99.2 nanometers, which is in the ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

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how to calculate conformers from free energy differences

Answers

Calculating conformers from free energy differences involves understanding the relationship between the energy of a molecule and its different conformations. Conformers are different arrangements of atoms in a molecule that can be interconverted without breaking any covalent bonds.

These different conformers have different energy levels, which can be calculated using computational methods. To calculate the free energy differences between conformers, one needs to use thermodynamic equations that relate the energy of the molecule to its entropy and temperature. These equations can then be used to determine the relative stability of each conformer. Once the free energy differences between conformers have been calculated, one can use this information to predict which conformer is most likely to be present in a given environment. This is important in many areas of chemistry, such as drug design, where the effectiveness of a drug can depend on the specific conformer of the molecule.

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Select all the correct answers. Which two objects have stored energy? a ball rolling on the ground a small rock sitting on top of a big rock a stretched rubber band a stone lying on the ground.

Answers

The first question regarding the number of wavelengths in the sound wave cannot be answered without any visual representation or specific details about the wave.

Regarding the second question, the two objects that have stored energy are a stretched rubber band and a ball rolling on the ground.

A stretched rubber band possesses potential energy due to its stretched state, which can be released and transformed into kinetic energy when the band is released. The ball rolling on the ground has both potential and kinetic energy. It possesses potential energy due to its position above the ground, and as it rolls, this potential energy is gradually converted into kinetic energy.

On the other hand, a small rock sitting on top of a big rock and a stone lying on the ground do not have stored energy in the same way. While they may have potential energy relative to their position in a gravitational field, they are not actively storing energy that can be released or transformed like the rubber band or the rolling ball.

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You push with a steady force of 18 N on a 44-kgdesk fitted with casters (wheels that swivel) on its four feet.
A.) How long does it take you to move the desk 5.1 m across a warehouse floor?

Answers

It takes approximately 4.99 seconds to move the desk 5.1 meters across the warehouse floor.

It takes you 2.5 seconds to move the desk 5.1 m across the warehouse floor with a steady force of 18 N.
To answer your question, we will first need to calculate the acceleration of the desk, then use that to find the time it takes to move 5.1 meters.
1. Calculate the acceleration (a) using Newton's second law of motion:
F = m * a
where F is the force applied (18 N), m is the mass of the desk (44 kg), and a is the acceleration.
a = F / m = 18 N / 44 kg = 0.4091 m/s²
2. Use the equation of motion to find the time (t) it takes to move the desk 5.1 meters:
s = ut + 0.5 * a * t²
where s is the distance (5.1 m), u is the initial velocity (0 m/s since the desk starts from rest), a is the acceleration (0.4091 m/s²), and t is the time.
5.1 m = 0 * t + 0.5 * 0.4091 m/s² * t²
Solving for t, we get:
t² = (5.1 m) / (0.5 * 0.4091 m/s²) = 24.9 s²
t = √24.9 ≈ 4.99 s

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A scientist observed two basketballs roll and collide with each other. One was a 2. 0 kg basketball traveling at a speed of 0. 60 m/s north and the other was a 4. 0 kg basketball traveling south at a speed of 0. 90 m/s. After the collision, the final velocity of the 4. 0 kg basketball is 0. 50 m/s north, find the final velocity of the 2. 0 kg basketball?

Answers

In the given scenario, a scientist witnessed a collision between two basketballs. One basketball, weighing 2.0 kg, was moving at a velocity of 0.60 m/s towards the north, while the other basketball, weighing 4.0 kg, was moving towards the south at a velocity of 0.90 m/s.

After the collision, the scientist wants to determine the final velocity of the 2.0 kg basketball.To solve this problem, we can apply the principle of conservation of momentum. According to this principle, the total momentum before the collision is equal to the total momentum after the collision. Since momentum is a vector quantity, we need to consider the direction as well.

The initial momentum of the system before the collision can be calculated by multiplying the mass of each basketball by their respective velocities. The total momentum before the collision is given by (2.0 kg × 0.60 m/s) + (4.0 kg × -0.90 m/s), where the negative sign indicates the opposite direction.

After the collision, the total momentum is still conserved, so the sum of the momenta of the two basketballs must be equal to the sum of their momenta before the collision. We can set up an equation as follows: (2.0 kg × final velocity of the 2.0 kg basketball) + (4.0 kg × 0.50 m/s) = (2.0 kg × 0.60 m/s) + (4.0 kg × -0.90 m/s).

By rearranging the equation and solving for the final velocity of the 2.0 kg basketball, we find that it is approximately 0.30 m/s towards the north.

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a pitot tube measures a dynamic pressure of 540 pa. find the corresponding velocity of air in m/s, V=__m/s

Answers

A pitot tube measures a dynamic pressure of 540 so the corresponding velocity of air in m/s, V=23.5 m/s.

To determine the corresponding velocity of air in m/s, we can use the Bernoulli's equation which relates the dynamic pressure to the velocity of the fluid.

The equation is expressed as: P + 0.5ρ[tex]V^2[/tex] = constant, where P is the static pressure, ρ is the density of the fluid, and V is the velocity.

We assume that the static pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure, which is approximately 101,325 Pa.

Solving for V, we get V = [tex]\sqrt{(2*(540))/1.225)}[/tex] = 23.5 m/s. Therefore, the velocity of air in m/s is approximately 23.5 m/s.

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To find the corresponding velocity of air (V) in m/s, we can use the formula for dynamic pressure:

Dynamic pressure (q) = 0.5 * air density (ρ) * air velocity (V)²

We are given the dynamic pressure (q) as 540 Pa. For air at standard conditions, we can use an approximate air density (ρ) of 1.225 kg/m³. We need to solve for air velocity (V).

Rearrange the formula to solve for V:

V² = (2 * q) / ρ
V = √((2 * q) / ρ)

Now, plug in the given values:

V = √((2 * 540 Pa) / 1.225 kg/m³)
V = √(1080 / 1.225)
V ≈ 30.06 m/s

The corresponding air velocity (V) is approximately 30.06 m/s.

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m What If? The 21.1 cm line, corresponding to emissions from hyperfine transitions in hydrogen, plays an important role in radio astronomy. m (c) What would be the angular resolution (in degrees) of the telescope receiving dish from part (a) for the 21.1 cm line?

Answers

The angular resolution of a telescope receiving dish for the 21.1 cm line would be approximately 1.21 degrees.



The 21.1 cm line is an important emission line in radio astronomy because it corresponds to hyperfine transitions in hydrogen. This line is used by astronomers to study the interstellar medium, including the distribution of neutral hydrogen gas in our galaxy and beyond.
To determine the angular resolution of a telescope receiving dish for the 21.1 cm line, we need to use the formula:
θ = λ / D
where θ is the angular resolution in radians, λ is the wavelength of the radiation, and D is the diameter of the telescope dish.
The wavelength of the 21.1 cm line is 0.211 meters. If we assume a telescope dish diameter of 10 meters, then the angular resolution would be:
θ = 0.211 / 10 = 0.0211 radians
To convert this to degrees, we can use the formula:
θ (degrees) = θ (radians) x (180 / π)
where π is the mathematical constant pi.
Plugging in the values, we get:
θ (degrees) = 0.0211 x (180 / π) = 1.21 degrees
Therefore, the angular resolution of a telescope receiving dish for the 21.1 cm line would be approximately 1.21 degrees.

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) Water flowing at a speed of 2. 8m/s flows for a 9cm diameter pipe to a 4. 5cm diameter pipe. What is the speed of the water in the 4. 5cm diameter pipe?​

Answers

The speed of water in the 4.5cm diameter pipe is approximately 15.56 m/s. When water flows through a pipe, the principle of conservation of mass states that the mass flow rate remains constant at any point along the pipe.

In this case, the diameter of the pipe changes from 9cm to 4.5cm, resulting in a decrease in the cross-sectional area. To find the speed of the water in the 4.5cm diameter pipe, we can use the equation of continuity, which states that the product of the cross-sectional area and the velocity of the fluid remains constant. The equation is given as:

[tex]\[A_1 \cdot v_1 = A_2 \cdot v_2\][/tex]

where [tex](A_1\) and \(A_2\)[/tex] are the cross-sectional areas of the 9cm and 4.5cm diameter pipes, respectively, and [tex]\(v_1\) and \(v_2\)[/tex] are the velocities of the water in the 9cm and 4.5cm diameter pipes, respectively.

Using the given values, we can substitute [tex]\(A_1 = \pi (0.09/2)^2\)[/tex] and [tex]\(A_2 = \pi (0.045/2)^2\)[/tex] into the equation and solve for [tex]\(v_2\)[/tex].

By rearranging the equation, we find:

[tex]\[v_2 = \frac{A_1 \cdot v_1}{A_2} = \frac{(\pi (0.09/2)^2) \cdot 2.8}{(\pi (0.045/2)^2)}\][/tex]

Evaluating this expression, we find that the speed of the water in the 4.5cm diameter pipe is approximately 15.56 m/s.

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A flat plate of width 1 m and length 0. 2 m is maintained at a temperature of 32C. Ambient fluid at 22C flows across the top of the plate in parallel flow. Determine the average heat transfer coefficient, the convection heat transfer rate from the top of the plate, and the drag force on the plate.

Answers

Using Reynolds analogy, we know that Nusselt number = (1.86 × Re × Pr × (d/L) × (1/2) ) / (1 + 0.48 × (Pr^(1/2)−1) × (Re×(d/L))^(1/2) × (1/2) ).Here, d = 0.2 m (since the fluid flows across the top surface of the plate).

So, the Nusselt number becomes: Nu = (1.86 × Re × Pr × (0.2/1) × (1/2)) / (1 + 0.48 × (0.71^(1/2)−1) × (Re×(0.2/1))^(1/2) × (1/2)).

Putting all the given values, we get Nu = 172.75.

Therefore, the average heat transfer coefficient, h is given as h = (Nu × k) / d= (172.75 × 0.16) / 0.2= 138.2 W/m2K.

Taking surface area, A = w × L = 1 × 0.2 = 0.2 m2.

Heat transfer rate, Q is given as Q = h × A × (Tp − T∞)= 138.2 × 0.2 × (32 − 22)= 276.4 W.

Finally, the drag force on the plate can be calculated using the formula: Drag force = (Cd × ρ × V^2 × A) / 2,

where Cd is the drag coefficient, ρ is the fluid density, and V is the fluid velocity.

Since the fluid is flowing in parallel over the plate, the velocity of the fluid is equal to the free stream velocity, V∞.

The drag coefficient for a flat plate in parallel flow is 1.328.

Drag force = (1.328 × 1.225 × V∞^2 × 0.2) / 2 = 0.164 × V∞^2.

Average heat transfer coefficient, h = 138.2 W/m2K, Convection heat transfer rate from the top of the plate, Q = 276.4 W and Drag force on the plate = 0.164 × V∞^2.

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if an electron of mass 9.1x10-31 kg is fired under applied voltage of 300 v between two plates separated by 20 mm, reaches to positive plate in 3.9 ns what is the charge of the electron?

Answers

Therefore, the charge of the electron is 5.85 x 10^-5 Coulombs.

To calculate the charge of an electron, we need to use the equation Q=I*t, where Q is the charge, I is the current, and t is the time taken.
First, we need to calculate the current. We can use the equation I = V/d, where V is the applied voltage and d is the distance between the plates.
I = 300/0.02

= 15000 A
Next, we need to convert the time taken from nanoseconds to seconds:
t = 3.9 x 10^-9 s
Now we can calculate the charge:
Q = I*t

= 15000 x 3.9 x 10^-9

= 5.85 x 10^-5 C  
In this question, we were given the mass of an electron and the voltage and distance between two plates. Using this information, we were able to calculate the current and time taken for the electron to reach the positive plate. We then used the equation Q=I*t to calculate the charge of the electron.
The charge of an electron is a fundamental constant in physics and plays a crucial role in understanding the behavior of matter and energy. It is a fundamental unit of electric charge and is denoted by the symbol "e". The charge of an electron is negative, and its absolute value is 1.602 x 10^-19 C.
Electrons are negatively charged subatomic particles that are found in the outer shell of atoms. They are responsible for the flow of electricity in conductors and play a vital role in chemical bonding.
In summary, the charge of an electron is an essential concept in physics and has significant implications for our understanding of the natural world. Through the use of equations such as Q=I*t, we can determine the charge of electrons in a given scenario, allowing us to further explore the behavior of matter and energy.

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a thirsty woman opens the refrigerator and picks up a cool canned drink at 40°f. do you think the can will ""sweat"" as she enjoys the drink in a room at 70°f and 38 percent relative humidity?

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It is likely that the can will sweat when the woman enjoys the drink in a room at 70°F and 38 percent relative humidity.

When a cold object, such as a can of chilled drink, is taken from a cold environment (in this case, the refrigerator at 40°F), and is placed in a warmer environment (the room at 70°F), the air around the can will cool and condensation will form on the surface of the can. This is because the colder air cannot hold as much moisture as the warmer air, and the excess moisture condenses on the colder surface of the can.

The relative humidity of the room (38%) indicates that the air is not particularly humid, which means that there is not a lot of moisture in the air to begin with. This could reduce the amount of condensation that forms on the can, but it is still likely that some amount of condensation will occur, especially if the can is very cold.

Therefore, it is likely that the can will ""sweat"" as the woman enjoys the drink.

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if the temperature at a point (x, y, z) in a body is u(x, y, z), then the heat flow is defined as the vector field f = −k∇

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The negative sign in the equation indicates that heat flows from regions of higher temperature to regions of lower temperature. The gradient, u(x, y, z), represents the spatial rate of change in temperature, and the thermal conductivity, k, is a proportionality constant that determines how easily heat flows through the material.

Now, to understand the concept of heat flow, we need to first understand what a gradient is. In calculus, the gradient of a function represents the direction and magnitude of the steepest increase of the function at a given point. In the case of temperature, the gradient of the temperature function represents the direction and magnitude of the steepest increase in temperature at a given point.

The negative sign in the equation indicates that heat flows from regions of higher temperature to regions of lower temperature. The gradient, u(x, y, z), represents the spatial rate of change in temperature, and the thermal conductivity, k, is a proportionality constant that determines how easily heat flows through the material.

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When we look at the unprocessed Cosmic Microwave Background signal, we notice that there is a bright region that lies on a plane and goes all around. This bright region: is caused by light from the disk of our own Galaxy Indicates the direction of movement of our galaxy relative to the sphere of the CMB O is showing us the structure and distribution of matter right after the birth of the Universe

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The bright region that lies on a plane and goes all around when looking at the unprocessed Cosmic Microwave Background signal is showing us the structure and distribution of matter right after the birth of the Universe.

The Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) is the afterglow of the Big Bang and is the oldest light in the Universe. It is essentially the leftover radiation from the hot, dense plasma that filled the Universe immediately after the Big Bang. By studying the CMB, astronomers can learn about the early Universe, including its composition, structure, and evolution.

The bright region that lies on a plane and goes all around in the unprocessed CMB signal is called the "ecliptic plane." This plane is caused by light from the disk of our own Galaxy, which emits microwaves that are then scattered by electrons in the interstellar medium. However, this bright region is not just a random artifact of our own Galaxy; it is actually an important signal that tells us about the structure and distribution of matter in the early Universe. In fact, the orientation of the ecliptic plane can indicate the direction of movement of our galaxy relative to the sphere of the CMB.
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Question 22 1 points Save Answer A beam of electrons, a beam of protons, a beam of helium atoms, and a beam of nitrogen atoms cach moving at the same speed. Which one has the shortest de-Broglie wavelength? A. The beam of nitrogen atoms. B. The beam of protons, C. All will be the same D. The beam of electrons. E the beam of helium atoms

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The beam of protons has the shortest de Broglie wavelength (option B). We can use the de broglie to know each wavelength.

The de Broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle is given by:

λ = h/p

where h is Planck's constant and p is the momentum of the particle. Since all the beams are moving at the same speed, we can assume that they have the same kinetic energy (since KE = 1/2 mv²), and therefore the momentum of each beam will depend only on the mass of the particles:

p = mv

where m is the mass of the particle and v is its speed.

Using these equations, we can calculate the de Broglie wavelength for each beam:

For the beam of electrons, λ = h/mv = h/(m * 4*10⁶ m/s) = 3.3 x 10⁻¹¹ m.

For the beam of protons, λ = h/mv = h/(m * 4*10⁶ m/s) = 1.3 x 10⁻¹³ m.

For the beam of helium atoms, λ = h/mv = h/(m * 4*10⁶ m/s) = 1.7 x 10⁻¹¹ m.

For the beam of nitrogen atoms, λ = h/mv = h/(m * 4*10⁶ m/s) = 3.3 x 10⁻¹¹ m.

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8.4 air at 200 °f flows at standard atmospheric pressure in a pipe at a rate of 0.08 lb/s. determine the minimum diameter allowed if the flow is to be laminar..

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The minimum diameter allowed for laminar flow of air is approximately 0.0674 ft or 0.809 inches.

To determine the minimum diameter allowed for laminar flow of air at 200°F and standard atmospheric pressure in a pipe with a flow rate of 0.08 lb/s, we can use the Reynolds Number equation.

Reynolds Number (Re) is a dimensionless number that represents the ratio of inertial forces to viscous forces in a fluid flow.

For laminar flow, the Re value should be less than 2300. The formula to calculate Reynolds Number is:

Re = (density x velocity x diameter) / viscosity.

Given the values, density of air at standard conditions is 0.0765 lb/ft³, viscosity is 1.05 x 10⁻⁵ lb-s/ft², velocity is 0.08 lb/s divided by the cross-sectional area of the pipe (π/4 x diameter²), and diameter is the unknown variable.

Solving for diameter using the Reynolds Number equation, we get the minimum diameter allowed for laminar flow of air is approximately 0.0674 ft or 0.809 inches.

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Aria is deciphering a cryptic clue in a difficult crossword puzzle. an eeg of her brain would indicate _____ waves.

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Aria is deciphering a cryptic clue in a difficult crossword puzzle. an eeg of her brain would indicate Beta waves . An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a test that measures electrical activity in the brain using electrodes attached to the scalp.

When Aria is deciphering a cryptic clue in a difficult crossword puzzle, her brain is likely to produce brain waves with a frequency in the beta range (13-30 Hz). Beta waves are associated with cognitive processes such as attention, focus, and problem-solving. They are typically observed in the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain, which are involved in executive functions and decision-making.

In addition to beta waves, other types of brain waves may also be present during problem-solving tasks, such as alpha waves (8-12 Hz) and gamma waves (30-100 Hz). Alpha waves are associated with relaxation and a passive state of mind, but they may also be observed during tasks that require mental focus and attention.

Gamma waves are the fastest brain waves and are thought to be involved in higher-order cognitive processes such as perception, consciousness, and learning.

Overall, the specific type and frequency of brain waves that Aria produces during her crossword puzzle task will depend on the complexity of the puzzle, her level of engagement and attention, and individual differences in brain function

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Galileo's Telescope Galileo's first telescope used a convex objective lens with a focal length f=1.7m and a concave eyepiece, as shown in the figure. (Figure 1)When this telescope is focused on an infinitely distant object, and produces an infinitely distant image, its angular magnification is +3.0.A. What is the focal length of the eyepiece? in cmb.How far apart are the two lenses? in mExpress your answer using two significant figures.

Answers

The focal length of Galileo's Telescope Galileo's first telescope used a convex objective lens with a focal length f=1.7m and its angular magnification is +3.0 is -57 cm, and the distance between the two lenses is 2.27 m.

To answer your question about Galileo's first telescope with an angular magnification of +3.0:

A. The focal length of the eyepiece can be found using the formula for angular magnification.

M = -f_objective / f_eyepiece

Rearranging the formula to solve for f_eyepiece, we get:

f_eyepiece = -f_objective / M

Plugging in the values.

f_eyepiece = -(1.7m) / 3.0, which gives

f_eyepiece = -0.57m or -57cm.

B. The distance between the two lenses can be found by adding the focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece lenses.

d = f_objective + |f_eyepiece|.

In this case, d = 1.7m + 0.57m = 2.27m.

So, the focal length of the eyepiece is -57 cm, and the distance between the two lenses is 2.27 m.

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a mass-spring system with a damper has mass 0.5 kg, spring constant 60 n/m, and damping coefficient 10 ns/m. is the system underdamped, critically damped, or overdamped?

Answers

Since the damping ratio is approximately 0.58, this mass-spring-damper system is underdamped.

To determine if the system is underdamped, critically damped, or overdamped, we need to calculate the damping ratio.

The damping ratio (ζ) is calculated using the formula:

ζ = c / (2 * √(mk)) where c is the damping coefficient, m is the mass, and k is the spring constant.

Substituting the given values:

ζ = 10 / (2 * √(0.5 * 60)) ζ ≈ 0.58

A system is underdamped if ζ < 1, critically damped if ζ = 1, and overdamped if ζ > 1.

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An 8.0-mH inductor and a 2.0 ohm resistor are wired in series to a 20-V ideal battery. A switch in the circuit is closed at time 0, at which time the current is zero. After a long time the current in the resistor and the current in the inductor are

Answers

The current in the resistor and the current in the inductor will both approach a steady state value. The steady state current in the resistor will be I = V/R = 20/2 = 10 A.

The steady state current in the inductor will be I = V/XL, where XL is the inductive reactance. XL = 2πfL, where f is the frequency of the AC voltage across the inductor (which in this case is zero since it is a DC voltage).
When an 8.0-mH inductor and a 2.0-ohm resistor are wired in series to a 20-V ideal battery, and the switch is closed at time 0, the current initially starts at zero. After a long time, the inductor behaves like a short circuit (no resistance), allowing the full voltage from the battery to be applied across the resistor. Using Ohm's Law (V = IR), the current in the resistor and the inductor after a long time will be:
I = V / R = 20 V / 2.0 ohms = 10 A

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A proton of energy 900GeV collides with a stationary proton. Find the available energy Ea. The rest energy of the proton is 938MeV. Express your answer in billions of electron volts to two significant figures.
A proton and an antiproton have equal energies of 450GeV. The particles collide head-on. Find the available energy Ea. The rest energy of the proton is 938MeV. Express your answer in billions of electron volts to two significant figures.

Answers

The rest energy of the proton is 938MeV is Ea = E - 2E0 = 1.797 x 10^11 eV and The total available energy is Ea = E - 2E0 = 8.998 x 10^10 eV.

For the first question, we can use the conservation of energy and momentum to find the available energy Ea. Since one proton is stationary, its momentum is zero. The momentum of the other proton can be found using the equation p = mv, where p is the momentum, m is the mass, and v is the velocity. The velocity of the proton can be found using the equation E = mc^2, where E is the energy, m is the mass, and c is the speed of light. Therefore, the velocity of the proton is v = c * sqrt(1 - (m*c^2/E)^2), where m is the rest energy of the proton and E is the energy of the proton. Plugging in the given values, we get v = 0.9999999968c. The momentum of the proton is then p = mv = 8.99111 x 10^-19 kg m/s. The total energy of the system is E = 2E0 + Ea, where E0 is the rest energy of the proton. Therefore, Ea = E - 2E0 = 1.797 x 10^11 eV. Rounded to two significant figures, the answer is 180 billion electron volts.


For the second question, we can again use the conservation of energy and momentum. Since the particles have equal energies, they have equal momenta. The total energy of the system is E = 2E0 + Ea, where E0 is the rest energy of the proton and Ea is the available energy. Using the same equation as before, we can find that the velocity of the particles is v = c * sqrt(1 - (m*c^2/E)^2), where m is the rest energy of the proton and E is the energy of the particles. Plugging in the given values, we get v = 0.9999999783c. The momentum of each particle is then p = mv = 4.5007 x 10^-19 kg m/s. The total available energy is Ea = E - 2E0 = 8.998 x 10^10 eV. Rounded to two significant figures, the answer is 90 billion electron volts.

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1. For the principle quantum number n = 5, what is the greatest number of values the spin quantum number can have? a. 5 b. 25 c. 11 d. 2 e. 4

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For the principle quantum number n = 5, the greatest number of values the spin quantum number can have is 2 (d.)

The spin quantum number can have only two values, +1/2 or -1/2, regardless of the value of the principle quantum number. Therefore, the correct answer is d. 2. This is because the spin quantum number describes the intrinsic angular momentum of the electron, and it is independent of the other quantum numbers.

The other quantum numbers that describe the electron's state are the principle quantum number, azimuthal quantum number, and magnetic quantum number. Together, these quantum numbers define the electron's energy, shape, orientation, and spin in an atom. Therefore, understanding the different quantum numbers is crucial in understanding the electronic structure of atoms and their properties.

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1. (T/F with explanation) Block designs result only from observing subjects several times, each time with a different treatment.
2. Why is it that in a randomized complete block design, the factor of interest is nearly always experimental rather than observational?
3. Give one example each (from the examples in the chapter) of three kinds of block designs: one that creates blocks by reusing subjects, one that creates blocks by matching subjects, and one that creates blocks by subdividing experimental material. For each, identify the blocks and the experimental units.

Answers

1. False. Block designs can be created in different ways. One common way is by observing subjects several times with different treatments, but they can also be created by grouping subjects based on a certain characteristic or using pre-existing groups.

2. In a randomized complete block design, the factor of interest is nearly always experimental because the purpose of the design is to control for extraneous variables that could affect the results. By grouping similar experimental units together in blocks and randomly assigning treatments within each block, the design ensures that any differences in the results between treatments are due to the treatment itself and not other variables. This makes it easier to draw conclusions about the effects of the experimental factor.
3. One example of a block design that creates blocks by reusing subjects is a crossover design in which each subject receives each treatment in a different order. The blocks would be the different orders in which the treatments are administered, and the experimental units would be the subjects. An example of a block design that creates blocks by matching subjects is a matched-pairs design in which pairs of subjects are matched based on a certain characteristic (e.g. age, gender) and each subject receives a different treatment. The blocks would be the pairs of subjects, and the experimental units would be the individuals within each pair. An example of a block design that creates blocks by subdividing experimental material is a split-plot design in which different treatments are applied to different subplots within each block. The blocks would be the different sections of the experimental material, and the experimental units would be the subplots within each section.
In conclusion, block designs can be created in different ways, the factor of interest in randomized complete block designs is nearly always experimental, and there are different types of block designs that can be used depending on the research question and experimental material.

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A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then isolated. The effect of increasing the plate separation, the charge, potential, and capacitance respectivelyA. constant, decreases, decreases.B. increases, decreases, decreases.C. constant, decreases, increases.D. constant, increases, decreases.

Answers

The correct answer is (A) constant, decreases, decreases. The charge on the plates remains constant, but the potential difference and capacitance of the capacitor both decrease as the plate separation is increased.

When the plate separation in a parallel plate capacitor is increased while the capacitor remains isolated, the charge on the plates remains constant, but the potential difference across the plates decreases. As a result, the capacitance of the capacitor decreases as the plate separation is increased.

This can be explained by the equation for capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor, which is:

C = εA/d

where C is the capacitance, ε is the permittivity of the dielectric material between the plates, A is the area of the plates, and d is the separation distance between the plates.

As the plate separation is increased, the capacitance decreases because the distance between the plates in the denominator of the equation increases, while the other parameters (area and permittivity) remain constant.

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C. constant, decreases, increases.

When a parallel plate capacitor is charged and then isolated, the charge (Q) on the plates remains constant because no external source is supplying or removing charge from the plates. However, as the plate separation (d) increases, the capacitance (C) decreases, according to the formula C = εA/d, where ε is the permittivity of the medium between the plates and A is the area of the plates.

Since the capacitance is decreasing and the charge is constant, the potential (V) across the plates increases. This is because the relationship between capacitance, charge, and potential is given by the formula Q = CV. With a constant charge and decreasing capacitance, the potential must increase to maintain the equality.

So, in summary: charge remains constant, capacitance decreases, and potential increases when the plate separation of an isolated parallel plate capacitor is increased.

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