Vestigial structures are those that seem to be leftover pieces from a previous ancestor but have no discernible function. Vestigial structures include things like the human appendix and a snake's pelvic bone.
Why are some characteristics regarded as vestigial?Certain characteristics are regarded as vestigial because they reduce biological fitness. Why did Darwin catalog and explain vestiges of traits? The presence of vestiges suggests that species change over time. The theory of special creation is incompatible with this significant pattern element of the theory of evolution.
What does the term "vestigial structure" mean?Vestigial structures are those that seem to be leftover pieces from a previous ancestor but have no discernible function.
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list the organs of the urinary system and locate them in the view. you may want to use the fade others tool to get a clearer view of the highlighted structures.
Among the organs of the urinary system are the ureters, bladder, kidney, renal pelvis, and urethra. Food nutrients are converted by the body into energy.
How do the kidneys function in the urinary system?In addition to producing urine as a waste material, the urinary system filters blood. The organs that make up the urinary system include the ureters, bladder, kidneys, renal pelvis, and urethra. Food ingredients are converted into energy by the body.
Why is blood seen in poop?Cellular respiration is the mechanism through which the body's cells convert the energy from food into usable energy. From the stored glucose, ATP draws its energy. Glucose and oxygen make up the reaction's formula. water and carbon dioxide.
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Four organs are connected to the urinary system. They include two kidneys, ureters, urine bladders, and urethras.
What are the urinary system's organs?The purpose of the urinary system is to filtering blood and urinary bladder as a waste byproduct. The kidneys, ureter, ureters, bladder, and urethra are among the urinary system's organs.
What are the roles of each urinary system organ?The kidney are the most intricate and important component of a urinary system. Ureter: Through tubes known as ureters, urine travels from of the renal tube to the bladder. Until the pee is allowed to exit the body via the urethra and the bladder, which is flexible, is utilized as storage.
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in a reaction that involves more than one step, the step that has the energy transition state is the slowest step. this step has the greatest effect on the overall reaction rate and is called the rate- step of the reaction.
The step with the highest energy transition state is the slowest step in a reaction that has more than one step. This process is known as the rate-determining step of the reaction because it has the greatest impact on the overall reaction.
What is the slowest step in a reaction mechanism?
The reaction mechanism's slowest step is the rate-determining one. By limiting the overall rate, the rate-determining step establishes the rate law for the overall reaction.
Why is the slowest step used to determine the rate?
This is because it takes longer for the slowest phase to finish since there may be several other processes involved. For instance, before another reaction can take place and a product is immediately produced, a reactant may need to diffuse or migrate to a particular reaction site.
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Did you find any sequences in the human genome that were statistically similar to your query sequence?.
The human genome has an estimated 1,000,000 instances of the Alu sequence, making it the most common SINE.
How similar are human DNA sequences?Any two people are 99.9% identical based on an analysis of their DNA. Several human tribes share the same minute genetic variations. Nevertheless, it just takes a quick glance to notice the incredibly wide range of individual differences in sizes, forms, and facial features.
Which four types of sequence repetitions are present in the human genome?Repetitive sequences, such as transposon-derived repetitions, processed pseudogenes, simple sequence repeats, and blocks of tandemly repeated sequences [1], which we shall refer to as common repeats, make up about 45% of the human genome.
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tubular re-absorption occurs from the nephron tubules into the . a. peritubular capillaries b. nephron loop c. renal corpuscle d. renal pyramid
From the nephron tubules into the peritubular capillaries, tubular reabsorption takes place.
Tubular reabsorption is the process that takes solutes and water out of the filtrate and puts them back into your circulation. Reabsorption refers to the fact that this is their second absorption, the first being when they entered the bloodstream from the digestive tract following a meal.
Your nephrons have the capacity to release undesired compounds from your bloodstream into the filtrate in addition to reabsorbing the substances you need. These procedures work together to convert the glomerular filtrate into the urine.
Resorption happens in two steps:
Water and other dissolved materials must first travel passively or actively from the fluid inside the tubule through the wall of the tubule and into the area outside.The second stage involves the return of water and these compounds, again via passive or active transport, through the capillary walls into your bloodstream.Choice A is the appropriate answer as a result.
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describe a positive coagulase test and its significance. describe how coagulase is a virulence factor. which pathogen produces coagulase
The coagulase test is beneficial for separating potentially pathogenic Staphylococci from other Gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci, such as Staphylococcus aureus.
When S. aureus comes into contact with blood, coagulase, which is closely linked to the surface of the bacterium, can coat the surface in fibrin. The fibrin clot might separate the bacterium from the host's other defenses and shield it from phagocytosis. Therefore, the fibrin covering may make the bacteria more pathogenic.
human pathogen clinical isolates Coa, a polypeptide secreted by Staphylococcus aureus, is a polypeptide that binds to and activates prothrombin, turning fibrinogen into fibrin and encouraging blood or plasma clotting.
The development of pseudocapsules that encourage abscess formation and infection persistence, as well as staphylococcal key virulence factors contributing to coagulases
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explain how glomerular hydrostatic pressure and glomerular colloid osmotic pressure act as opposing forces during glomerular filtration.
The blood within the glomerulus produces glomerular hydrostatic pressure, which forces fluid out of the glomerulus and into the glomerular capsule. The fluid in the glomerular capsule generates pressure, which pushes fluid out of the glomerular capsule and back into the glomerulus, thus opposing the glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
The glomerular filtration rate is the volume of filtrate produced by both kidneys per minute. The hydrostatic pressure and colloid osmotic pressure on either side of the glomerular capillary membrane influence GFR. Remember that filtration occurs when pressure forces fluid and solutes through a semipermeable barrier, with particle size limiting solute movement.
The pressure produced by a fluid against a surface is known as hydrostatic pressure. When a fluid is present on both sides of a barrier, it exerts pressure in opposite directions.The direction of net fluid movement will be in the direction of the lower pressure.
The movement of a solvent (water) across a membrane that is impermeable to a solute in the solution is referred to as osmosis. This produces osmotic pressure, which exists until the solute concentration on both sides of a semipermeable membrane is the same.
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the juxtaglomerular complex is: question 9 options: 1) pertaining to the kidney. 2) canal through which urine passes from the bladder to outside the body. 3) a smooth, collapsible, muscular sac that stores urine temporarily 4) cells of the distal part of the ascending limb of the loop of henle and afferent arteriole located close to the glomerulus; involved in blood pressure regulation (via release of the hormone renin) and autoregulation of gfr.
Juxtaglomerular apparatus is another name for the juxtaglomerular complex.
Because it is adjacent to (juxta) the glomerulus, the juxtaglomerular apparatus is so named.
It is composed of cells from the ascending limb of the loop of Henle's distal limb and an afferent arteriole that is placed close to the glomerulus.
It affects both the autoregulation of blood pressure (via the release of the hormone renin).
Renin is secreted by the juxtaglomerular apparatus. Renin responds to changes in blood flow. When blood pressure drops, renin-secreting cells are activated, which aids in maintaining a steady flow of blood through the nephron.
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A student is investigating thermal energy transfer. The student touches a piece of metal to a hot object, causing the metal to heat up. Which process of thermal energy transfer is the student demonstrating?.
When The student touches a piece of metal to a hot object, causing the metal to heat up. The thermal energy transfer process the student demonstrated is conduction.
There are basically three methods of heat transfer:
heat transfer by conductionheat transfer by convectionheat transfer by radiationHeat transfer by conduction requires real movement of the medium's molecules.
When a student touches a hot object with a piece of metal, molecules of the hot object move to the piece of metal. This type of heat transfer is called conduction.
Therefore, we can conclude that the thermal energy transfer process demonstrated by the student is conduction.
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Prokaryotes stain as gram-positive or gram-negative because of differences in the cell ___.
Due to variations in the cell wall, prokaryotes can either stain gram-positive or gram-negative.
Why are prokaryotes gram-positive or gram-negative stained?The thick, peptidoglycan coating of gram-positive bacteria's cell walls will hold onto the dye, causing them to stain violet. The bacteria will stain red if they are gram-negative and the dye leaks through the thin peptidoglycan coating.
What distinguishes gram-positive bacteria from gram-negative bacteria?The hue of a Gram stain is purple. The bacteria in a sample will either stay purple or turn pink or red when the stain and bacteria combine.
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you are interested in using crispr to edit a particular gene in the genome. select the correct order of events that must occur to introduce a double stranded dna break using crispr/cas9. 1. small guide rna (sgrna) hybridizes with the target dna 2. cas9 cuts dna 3. cas9/sgrna complex binds pam sequence 4. sgrna binds cas9 5. cas9 unzips dna 5, 4, 3, 1, 2 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 4, 3, 5, 1, 2 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
4. sgRNA binds Cas9
3. Cas9/sgRNA complex binds PAM
5. Cas9 unzips DNA
1. small guide RNA (sgRNA) hybridizes with the target DNA
2. Cas9 cuts DNA
Every live cell has a genome (DNA). DNA is a double helix structure kept together by the complementary base pairing rule, which states that adenine always pairs with thymine and guanine always pairs with cytosine.
Researchers have discovered thousands of genes that might cause sickness in our bodies. Changing these genes in our bodies is difficult, but it is now achievable thanks to the CRISPR method.
CRISPR:
This method is based on natural system used by bacteria against the DNA of bacteriophages by activating CAS9 protein which due to guide RNA recognizes the target DNA and cut it into pieces.
Mechanism of CRISPR:
Initially, tiny guide RNA forms a complex with the CAS9 endonuclease protein.
This results in the formation of a Cas9/sgRNA complex, which subsequently binds the PAM sequence found inside the target DNA.
Cas9 unzips DNA when it binds to the PAM sequence.
The CAS9 complex contains small guide RNA (sgRNA), which hybridizes with the target DNA.
Cas9, which chops the target DNA, detects this hybridization.
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how many chromosomes are there in a maize (corn) embryo cell nucleus as compared to a maize (corn) endosperm cell nucleus?
Two third chromosomes are there in a maize (corn) embryo cell nucleus as compared to a maize (corn) endosperm cell nucleus.
Maize and sorghum (Sorghum bicolor) both have 20 chromosomes (2n = 20). Maize endosperm is a large storage organ that accounts for 80-90% of the mature kernel dry weight. The mature maize kernel is the result of a coordinated developmental process that includes both the embryo and the endosperm. Endosperm development is prioritized in relation to overall kernel maturation. The endosperm is a triploid tissue made up of two sets of maternal chromosomes and one set of paternal chromosomes.
Over the course of 50-60 days, the maize grain grows from a fertilized ovule to a mature kernel. The developing kernel contains maternal tissues, such as the pericarp and nucellus, as well as tissues produced by double fertilization, such as the diploid embryo and triploid endosperm.
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You are interested in how gpr279, a gpcr, functions within keratinocytes. A drug that specifically targets gpr279 was recently developed. After purchasing the drug, you add increasing concentrations of the drug to your keratinocyte cultures. After 24 hours, the cells were fixed, the dna was stained with a fluorescent dye, and the cells were run on flow cytometry. The following cell cycle profiles were produced. What could you most likely conclude about the drug treatment?.
A freshly created medication precisely targets GPR279 in keratinocytes. You add increasing amounts of after buying the medicine.
Which of the following is not a component of the nucleus?Therefore, since DNA serves as the template strand, the processes of DNA replication and transcription occur inside the nucleus. The ribosomes read the mRNA that has been exported from the nucleus so that a polypeptide chain can be formed. So, the only activity that happens outside the nucleus is protein synthesis.
What happens solely in the nucleus?Only the last phase of gene expression, translation, is limited to the cytoplasm. DNA replication, transcription, and RNA processing all take place within the nucleus.
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in myasthenia gravis (mg), there is a decrease in the number of receptor sites of which neurotransmitter?
In myasthenia gravis, antibodies (immune proteins produced with the aid of using the body's immune system) block, alter, or break the receptors for acetylcholine on the neuromuscular junction, which prevents the muscle from contracting.
The junctional acetylcholine receptors had been decreased withinside the myasthenic muscle tissue in comparison with the controls. This discount in receptors may also account for the illness in neuromuscular transmission in myasthenia gravis.
Lambert-Eaton (myasthenic) syndrome is likewise called Eaton-Lambert syndrome. It is a unprecedented autoimmune ailment of maturity wherein antibodies abnormally assault sure proteins at the floor of nerve endings that adjust calcium levels (calcium channels), ensuing in insufficient launch of acetylcholine.
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explain what is meant by epigenetic inheritance and give an example of epigenetic changes discussed in the text or in class
Epigenetics is the study of how particular genes or proteins associated with particular genes are altered chemically in an organism.
What does biology mean by epigenetic inheritance?
When a cell divides and information is passed from one generation to the next, this process is referred to as epigenetic inheritance. For sustaining diverse gene expression patterns in differentiation, development, and disease, epigenetic inheritance is essential.
What is a case of epigenetic inheritance?It is crucial to demonstrate that the inherited phenotype requires passing through the gametes when considering transgenerational epigenetic inheritance (i.e., sperm and eggs). The fact that stressed-out moms generate stressed-out offspring is an instructive illustration.
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cancer results from cells that divide when they should not. a hallmark of cancer is high levels of dna methylation in cell genomes. methylation of which genes is most likely to lead to cancerous cell formation?
Genes that prevent cell division, Cancer results from cells that divide when they should not. A hallmark of cancer is high levels of DNA methylation in cell genomes.
A gene is the primary structural and functional element of heredity. Genes are made out of DNA. Some genes serve as the building blocks for making proteins. However, many genes do not encode proteins. A human gene can be made up of a few hundred DNA nucleotides or more than 2 million bases. According to the Human Genome Project, a global research effort to decipher the human genome's sequence and catalog its genes, humans are believed to have between 20,000 and 25,000 genes.
DNA methylation entails the insertion of methyl groups (-CH3) to sections of DNA where the Cytosine and Guanine bases occur often (often called CpG island). Genes that control the cell cycle, maintain chromosome stability, and control transcription is typically not methylated. Methylation in these areas can result in gene knowledge related to apoptosis and cell cycle regulation, and as a result, it can result in the development and growth of tumors.
The complete question is:
Cancer results from cells that divide when they should not. a hallmark of cancer is high levels of DNA methylation in cell genomes. methylation of which genes is most likely to lead to cancerous cell formation?
(A). Genes that produce transaction factors
(B). Genes that promote the formation of blood vessels
(C). Genes that promote ATP production
(D). Genes that promote cell division
(E). Genes that prevent cell division
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consider the following dna sequence, which codes for the first portion of a long protein beginning at the atg (aug in mrna) start codon. 5' atg ccc cgc agt agg ggg tgg aga3' a mutation occurs changing this sequence to: 5' atg ccc cgc agt agg ggg tga aga3' what type of mutation is this? (check all that apply.)
The appropriate responses are: 1. Point mutation 2. Transition 3. missense mutation.t The seventh codon is where the mutation is happening in this case. The first scenario it is TGG that codes for Tryptophan. Then, it is mutated to TGA that codes for Stop codon ( in bacteria) which terminates the process of protein translation.
What is mutation?
The nucleotide sequence of an organism's genome, that of a virus, extrachromosomal DNA, or other genetic components can change permanently, a process known as mutation.
Gene structural changes can be divided into two categories: small-scale changes and large-scale changes.
Gene mutations that impact only one or a few nucleotides in a tiny gene are known as small-scale mutations. Examples include:
Point mutations
When a mutation affects one or more nucleotides in the same gene, it is considered to be punctual.
Substitution mutations:
Missense mutations: A nucleotide is changed by another as a result of this point mutation. In some circumstances, this alteration results in a change in the amino acid encoded, which may or may not affect the function of the protein generated by the gene in the case of a gene encoding change or the affinity for a transcription factor in the case of a promoter region of the DNA.
Nonsense mutation: In this case, the changed DNA sequence prematurely instructs the cell to stop producing proteins rather than replacing one amino acid for another. A truncated protein produced by this kind of mutation may operate incorrectly or not at all.
Due to genetic code redundancy (the new triplet codes for the same amino acid as the original triplet), or because it affects a region of the DNA that does not code for a protein, such as an intron, silent mutations do not change the sequence of a protein.
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A progressively degenerative disease characterized by the destruction of elasticity of the alveolar walls, resulting in decreased ability of the lungs to expel air, and commonly seen in smokers, is known as ____.
Emphysema is a lung condition that develops when the alveolar walls in your lungs are harmed. It is possible for an obstruction (blockage) to form, trapping air in your lungs.
Which disease causes the alveolar walls to deteriorate?Emphysema is a gradual degenerative disease that affects the suppleness of the alveolar walls, which affects the lungs' capacity to exhale air.
What is the serous membrane covering and guarding the lungs?A serous membrane called a pleura folds back on itself to create a two-layered membranous pleural sac. The parietal pleura, the outer layer's name, connects to the chest wall. The visceral pleura, or inner layer, is what protects the lungs, blood vessels, nerves.
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a fisherman catches and removes one trout from each of two ponds. pond a contains 100 trout and pond b contains 1,000 trout. which population is more affected by the fisherman
Because the fisherman has a higher chance of entirely removing alleles from the gene pool by catching a fish from the smaller population, pond A with 100 trout is more impacted by the fisherman.
An area of DNA or RNA known as a gene encodes for a particular molecular cell product. Genes, which are normally passed down from generation to generation, control physical features and the genetic makeup of creatures belonging to the same species. A pair of genes known as an alleles can be found on a given chromosome in a place known as the gene locus. The same features in kids are under their control. Alleles are a pair of genes that govern a trait by occupying a certain position on a chromosome.
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which of the following is not one of the main hypotheses to explain primate origins? group of answer choices arboreal hypothesis aquatic ape hypothesis angiosperm hypothesis visual predation hypothesis
Three main theories have been put up to explain the genesis of primates and the characteristics that set our own order apart from other mammalian groups.
What are the two origin theories for the traits of primates?The Arboreal and Visual Predation Theories are two hypotheses for how various ape traits, like grasping or prehensile hands, forward-facing eyes, and depth perception, evolved.
Which theory about the origin of primates is the most plausible?The visual predation idea offers a potential justification for how primates first evolved. According to this view, primates originated from small mammals that lived in bushes on the forest floor. These tiny mammals consumed insects found on the forest floor.
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Which water quality most likely indicates eutrophication
Answer:
Nitrate levels
Fertilizer runoff
Explanation:
eutrophication is :
if there is a flood, water from a farm has a lot of fertilizer in it. fertilizer has a lot nitrates. nitrate is made from nitrogen
algae eat the nitrates and nutrients in the water
algae decreases the amount of oxygen in the water
too much algae consumes oxygen and blocks sunlight from underwater plants so low levels of photosynthesis
fish eat underwater plants and breathe oxygen thru its gills
can kill fish
eutrophication data example:
-high nitrate concentration
-pH of 10 (1 to 6 means its acid, 7 is Neutral, 8 to 14 is base)
-low dissolved oxygen levels
-temperature of 60°F
turbidity shows how cloudy is
pH shows
how much acid the water has
it shows how polluted the air is.
if air is polluted, the dirty air gets into the clouds and makes the rain acidic
quiziz
National Geographic
noaa
quizlet
Mammary glands...
a. sweat
b. sebum
c. milk
d. cerumen
Answer:
milk
Explanation:
Mammals are animals that produce milk to feed their young. Hence the word mammary gland
a molecule binds and blocks a potassium channel in a plant cell membrane. what would be its effects?
Large membrane-spanning proteins called ion channels allow for the selective movement of ions. Ions like potassium, calcium, and sodium may experience this.
These channels are in charge of the electrical conduction in neurological systems that enables the appropriate operation of nerve and muscle cells.
Drinking too much water might cause your body to lose potassium when your kidneys release sodium in your urine. Therefore, consuming too much salt may cause your healthy potassium levels to drop.
The ions move along the pore when they are being transported from one location to another. After passing through this filter, the potassium ions are once more encased in water molecules. In contrast, because sodium ions are a little bit smaller than oxygen, they do not interact with it.
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When Ras is activated, cells will divide. A dominant-negative form of Ras clings too tightly to GDP. You introduce a dominant-negative form of Ras into cells that also have a normal version of Ras. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) The cells you create will divide less frequently than normal cells in response to the extracellular signals that typically activate Ras.
(b) The cells you create will run out of the GTP necessary to activate Ras.
(c) The cells you create will divide more frequently compared to normal cells in response to the extracellular signals that typically activate Ras.
(d) The normal Ras in the cells you create will not be able to bind GDP because the dominant-negative Ras binds to GDP too tightly.
The correct answer (a) The cells you create will divide less frequently than normal cells in response to the extracellular signals that typically activate Ras.
Ras protein is a low-molecular-weight GDP/GTP-binding guanine triphosphatase produced by the Ras gene that plays an important role in cell growth and differentiation signaling. In the regular course of signal transduction.
What is the function of the RAS protein?
RAS proteins play a crucial role in proper development. Active RAS promotes cell growth, proliferation, and migration. RAS in normal cells receives and obeys signals to swiftly flip between active (GTP form) and inactive (GDP form) states.
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which of the following claims is best supported by the information above? choose 1 answer: choose 1 answer: (choice a) a e1b-55k causes infected cells to transition out of the cell cycle and into g 0 0 start subscript, 0, end subscript phase. (choice b) b e1b-55k causes infected cells to undergo programmed cell death. (choice c) c e1b-55k increases the likelihood of cell cycle arrest in infected cells. (choice d) d e1b-55k decreases the likelihood of apoptosis in infected cells.
Answer:
what is botany .and scope of botany
Which proteins lends structural support to the chromosome and helps activate or silence gene expression?.
Answer:
Explanation:
Histone proteins provide structural support to the chromosomes and help in DNA packaging.
What is the most important reason a cell exhibits tight transcriptional control over the regulation of gene expression?.
For the cell, regulation at the transcriptional level saves energy.
How does gene expression affect the regulation of transcriptional control?There are specifically two levels of control over gene expression. The amount of mRNA that can be produced from a particular gene is the first way transcription is controlled. The second level of regulation, post-transcriptional processes, control how mRNA is translated into proteins.
What mechanisms do cells use to control transcription?Both transcriptional activators and repressors control gene expression in eukaryotic cells. Eukaryotic repressors bind to specific DNA sequences and prevent transcription, just like their prokaryotic counterparts.
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Mendel concluded that one out of every four f2 pea plants is going to be short. How did he perform his experiment to come to that conclusion?.
Mendel reasoned that one in every four F2 pea plants would be short, so he self-pollinated the heterozygous Tt tall F1 plants. The correct option is 1.
What is Mendelian Principle?Mendel proposed that the inherited factors must separate into reproductive cells during reproduction.
He'd noticed that allowing hybrid pea plants to self-pollinate produced offspring that looked nothing like their parents.
The principles of Mendelian inheritance were named after and first derived by Gregor Johann Mendel, a Moravian monk who developed his ideas after conducting simple hybridization experiments with pea plants in the nineteenth century.
Mendel reasoned that one out of every four F2 pea plants would be short, so he self-pollinated the Tt tall heterozygous F1 plants.
Thus, the correct option is 1.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
A- He self-pollinated the heterozygous Tt tall F1 plants.
B- He cross-pollinated the homozygous TT tall F1 plants.
C- He self-pollinated the homozygous tt short F1 plants.
D- He cross-pollinated the heterozygous Tt tall F1 plants.
which intervention would be the best treatment option to prevent perinatal transmission of hiv antibodies to a fetus from the hiv-positive mother?
Combination therapy with HIV drugs (called antiretroviral therapy or ART) can prevent HIV transmission to babies and protect their health. Perinatal transmission of HIV is almost always preventable with good medical care.
Every pregnant woman should have her HIV tested and report test results to a pregnancy counselor. If a woman has not received prenatal care, she should request a prompt HIV test at the time of delivery. All newborns perinatally exposed to HIV should be given neonatal antiretroviral (ARV) medications to reduce her risk of perinatal infection and appropriate doses based on level of risk of infection. A suitable ARV regimen should be chosen. Prophylaxis with zidovudine (retrovir) is recommended for most infants exposed to HIV in utero to reduce the risk of vertical transmission. Beginning 8 hours after birth, these newborns should receive zidovudine at a dose of 2 mg/kg every 6 hours for at least 6 weeks.
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The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that.
The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that is diploid and haploid. The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that does most of the photosynthesis.
One generation is more obvious, more independent, and more photosynthetic than the other generations. the dominance of plant generations changes over evolutionary time. the evolutionary trend in land plants is to increase dominance in sporophyte generation. Nonvascular plants include mosses, liverworts, and hornwigs. They are the only plants with a life cycle in which the gametophyte generation is dominant. One generation is more obvious, more independent, and more photosynthetic than the other generations. The dominant generation of most plants is the diploid sporophyte. This means that the diploid generation is larger and longer-lived than the haploid gametophyte.
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true or false: in the process of cellular respiration, the high potential energy stored in c-h and c-c bonds in molecules like glucose is ultimately used to help transform energy into the form of atp.
The answer is True. In the process of cellular respiration, glucose is ultimately used in transforming the energy into the form of ATP.
All organisms use the process called cellular respiration to convert glucose into energy. During photosynthesis, autotrophs (like plants) create glucose and store in it. On the other hand heterotrophs eat other living things to obtain glucose as a source of food. The critical process in breaking down the glucose component to release energy for cellular catabolism and anabolism is known glycolysis. Glycolysis is a process that almost all living things engage in as part of their metabolism. Anaerobic means that there is no oxygen present during the procedure (processes that use oxygen are called aerobic). Eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells both undergo glycolysis in the cytoplasm. Two pathways allow glucose to enter heterotrophic cells.
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