Solve for x&y using substitution but do it step by step

Answer:

Solution given in the photo

Answer:

6x = 54; x = 9 times older

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

12 / 13 = x / 13

Cross Multiply,

12 * 13 = 13 * x

x = ( 12 * 13 ) / 13

x = 12

Answer:

x = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

2x+15 = 4x+5 (because they are corresponding angles)

10 = 2x

x = 5

Answer:

x = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

  N is at -2 on the number line

Step-by-step explanation:

The location of point N can be found by writing the segment lengths as a proportion.

  ON : NP = 4 : 8

  8(ON) = 4(NP) . . . . . . . . "cross multiply"

  2(N -O) = (P -N) . . . . . divide by 4, show lengths ON and NP

  2(N -(-7)) = 8 -N . . . . . use given values of O and P

  3N = -6 . . . . . . . . . . . add N-14 and simplify

  N = -2 . . . . . . . . . . divide by 3

Point N is at -2 on the number line.

If the ratio of ON to NP is 4:8, point N lie on the -2 at the number line.

Point O is at -7.

Point P is at 8.

The ratio of ON to NP is 4:8.

The ratio 4:8 simplifies to 1:2. This means that ON is one-third of the total distance from O to P, and NP is two-thirds of the total distance.

The total distance from O to P is the sum of the distances between O and N, and between N and P.

As the ratio of ON to NP is 1:2, and the total distance is 15 (8 - (-7) = 15), we can set up the following equation:

ON/NP = 1/2

ON/(15 - ON) = 1/2

Now we can solve for ON:

2 × ON = 15 - ON

3 × ON = 15

ON = 5

So, ON is 5 units away from O.

Now O is at -7, point N is at -7 + 5 = -2 on the number line.

So, N is at -2.

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Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

diameter is the radius times 2

Answer:

84% decrease

Step-by-step explanation:

100 - 80 = 20%

80% = 4/5

300 * 4/5 = 240

100 - 40 = 60%

60% = 3/5

240 * 3/5 = 48

48/300 = 4/25 = 16%

100 - 16 = 84%

Step-by-step explanation:

I assume you mean how do you divide a fraction by a whole number

In order to divide a fraction by a whole number we must use the KFC rule or the "Keep, flip, change" rule

The "Keep" means we keep the first fraction the same.

Next, we "flip" the second fraction (or in this case number; however it can be made into a fraction by putting it over 1). So now we have 4/10 divided by 1/2

Then we "change" the symbol so instead of dividing the fraction, we change the divide to a multiply.

Lastly, you just multiply the fractions as you usually would and you should end up with 4/20 which simplifies to 1/5 if my maths is correct.

Hope this helps.

Answer:

you can use KCF for this answer as well

Step-by-step explanation:

2 as a fraction would be 2/1

you need 4/10 divided by 2/1

applying KCF, you change it to be 4/10 multiplied by 1/2

solve to get 4/20 or simplified 1/5

hope this helped :)

Answer:

To find the value of sin 450 degrees using the unit circle, represent 450° in the form (1 × 360°) + 90° [∵ 450°>360°] ∵ sine is a periodic function, sin 450° = sin 90°.

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the value of sin 450 degrees using the unit circle, represent 450° in the form (1 × 360°) + 90° [∵ 450°>360°] ∵ sine is a periodic function, sin 450° = sin 90°.

Rotate ‘r’ anticlockwise to form a 90° or 450° angle with the positive x-axis.

The sin of 450 degrees equals the y-coordinate(1) of the point of intersection (0, 1) of unit circle and r.

Hence the value of sin 450° = y = 1

[tex]\begin{array}{ccll} \stackrel{guys}{good}&\stackrel{guys}{bad}\\ \cline{1-2} 15&4\\ 75&x \end{array}\implies \cfrac{15}{75}=\cfrac{4}{x}\implies \cfrac{1}{5}=\cfrac{4}{x}\implies x = 20[/tex]

Number of bad guys = 12

The ratio is defined as the comparison of two quantities of the same units that indicates how much of one quantity is present in the other quantity.

Given,

Ratio of good to bad guys = 15:4 = 15/4

No. of good guys = 75

Let the no. of guys be x

⇒ 15:4 = 75:x

⇒ 15/4 = 75/x

Cross multiplying

15 x = 75×4

x = (75/15)×4

No. of bad guys = (75/15)×4

                           = 3 × 4

No. of bad guys = 12

Hence, there are 12 bad guys.

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The current depth of the hole is at least 20 feet below ground level.

Inequality is an expression that shows the non equal comparison of numbers and variables.

Let d represent the current depth of the hole.

To be at least 40 feet below ground level, he need more than 2 times its current depth.

2d < -40

d < -20

Hence the current depth of the hole is at least 20 feet below ground level.

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Answer:

20 feet below

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

22.40 feeds

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply it

Answer:

[tex]y_1=0,y_2=\frac{3}{2},y_3=\frac{3}{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]4y^3-9y=0[/tex]

[tex]y(4y^2-9)=0[/tex]

[tex]y(2y-3)(2y+3)=0[/tex] <-- Difference of squares

[tex]y_1=0,y_2=\frac{3}{2},y_3=\frac{3}{2}[/tex]

Answer:

(1/5 x 5) to the 5th power = 1

71.8

71.841:

The 4 represents the number that we'll be looking at since 4 is the next position to the right of 8, 8 is in the Tenths place. 4 is in the Hundredths place, and 4 will be the only number that could round up the 8.

In order to round, we need to remember how to round numbers:

First, 4<5, meaning that 4 is less than 5.

#1 above is stating that the number to the left of 4 stays the same.

If we use that rule:

71.8 is our answer.

we have: -10/4 = -2.5 ⇒ -2 > -2.5 > -3

ANSWER : -2 and -3

ok done. Thank to me :>

Answer:

-5x - 6y

Step-by-step explanation:

Firstly,  you remove any uncessary parentheses and collect like terms.

So that becomes -8x - 6y + (3x)

Hence, the brackets can be removed, which means we can continue to collect like terms which gives the final answer of -5x - 6y

[tex]8(6x-7)<5(9x-4)\\\\\implies 48x- 56<45x -20\\\\\implies 48x-45x -56<-20\\\\\implies 3x < -20 +56\\\\\implies 3x<36\\\\\implies x < \dfrac{36}3\\\\\implies x<12\\\\\text{Interval,}~ (-\infty,12)[/tex]

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

its just twelve beliebe me

Answer:

1 1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

LQ = 5

Median = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{n+1}{2}[/tex] gives us 5.5, so we do the average of position 5 and 6. This gives us 6, so the median is 6.

Now we find the median of the bottom half of the numbers, which is 5, so the LQ is 5.

Now we find the median of the upper half of the numbers, which is 7, so the UQ is 7.

Answer:

Factors of 42: 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 14, 21 and 42.

Step-by-step explanation:

:)

Answer:

-2) -14

0) -8

2) -2

4) 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug in each input for x, and solve for y

Answer: 2) -140) -82) -24) 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B. conversion of feet to inches

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 12 inches in one foot.

Answer:

Your anwser would be A mark brainliest please and thank you

Step-by-step explanation: