SOLVE FOR T
t+3/2 = -2
T =

The area of the shaded region will be 150 square kilometers.

In Euclidean geometry, a parallelogram is a simple quadrilateral with two pairs of parallel sides. The opposite or facing sides of a parallelogram are of equal length and the opposite angles of a parallelogram are of equal measure. A triangle is a polygon with three edges and three vertices. The sum of all the angles of a triangle is 180 degrees. Mathematically -

∠x + ∠y + ∠z = 180°

There are different types of triangles such as -

equilateral triangle , scalene triangle , isosceles triangle etc.

Given is a 2- D figure as shown in the image.

The area of the shaded region will be -

A[shaded] = A [square] - {A [Δ1] + A [Δ2] + A [Δ3]}

A[shaded] = (20 X 20) - [{1/2 x 10 x 10} + {1/2 x 10 x 20} + {1/2 x 10 x 20}]

A[shaded] = 400 - [50 + 100 + 100]

A[shaded] = 400 - 250

A[shaded] = 150 square kilometers

Therefore, the area of the shaded region will be 150 square kilometers.

To solve more questions on 2 -D figures, visit the link below-

brainly.com/question/25950519

#SPJ1

Step-by-step explanation:

The Maclaurin series of xcos(-x) up to n = 3 is

[tex]m(x)= xcos(-x)= x-\frac{1}{2}x^3+\frac{1}{24}x^5-\frac{1}{720}x^7+\frac{1}{40320}x^9+\ldots \:[/tex]

The function is given in the question as

m(x) = xcos(-x)

Taylor (Maclaurin) series of xcos(x) up to n=5

A Maclaurin series is given by  f(x),

[tex]f\left(x\right)=f\left(a\right)+\frac{f^'\left(a\right)}{1!}\left(x-a\right)+\frac{f^{''}\left(a\right)}{2!}\left(x-a\right)^2+\frac{f^{'''}\left(a\right)}{3!}\left(x-a\right)^3+\ldots[/tex]

[tex]f\left(x\right)=f\left(0\right)+\frac{f^'\left(0\right)}{1!}\left(x\right)+\frac{f^{''}\left(0\right)}{2!}\left(x\right)^2+\frac{f^{'''}\left(0\right)}{3!}\left(x\right)^3+\ldots[/tex]

We need to do to get the desired polynomial is to calculate the derivatives, evaluate them at the given point, and plug the results into the given formula.

f⁽⁰⁾(x) = f(x) = xcos(x)

Evaluate the function at the point: f(0)=0

1st derivative: f(1)(x)=(f(0)(x))′=(xcos(x))′=−xsin(x)+cos(x)

1st derivative at the given point: (f(0))′=1

2nd derivative: f(2)(x)=(f(1)(x))′=(−xsin(x)+cos(x))′=−xcos(x)−2sin(x)

Evaluate the 2nd derivative at the given point: (f(0))′′=0

3rd derivative: f(3)(x)=(f(2)(x))′=(−xcos(x)−2sin(x))′=xsin(x)−3cos(x)

Evaluate the 3rd derivative at the given point: (f(0))′′′=−3

Now, use the calculated values to get a polynomial:

[tex]m(x)=0+\frac{1}{1!}x+\frac{0}{2!}x^2+\frac{-3}{3!}x^3+.....[/tex]

[tex]m(x)=x-\frac{1}{2}x^3+\frac{1}{24}x^5-\frac{1}{720}x^7+\frac{1}{40320}x^9+\ldots \:[/tex]

Thus, the Maclaurin series of xcos(-x) up to n = 3 is

[tex]m(x)= xcos(-x)= x-\frac{1}{2}x^3+\frac{1}{24}x^5-\frac{1}{720}x^7+\frac{1}{40320}x^9+\ldots \:[/tex]

To learn more about the Maclaurin series click here:

https://brainly.com/question/24188694

#SPJ1

Answer:

uh let's see

Step-by-step explanation:

2,4 and -3,-6

y2-y1/

x2-x1

-6-4

-3-2

-10/-5 = 2

slope is 2

u do the rest I'm tired

Answer:

just finished a challenge

Step-by-step explanation:

The transformation of System A into System B is:

Equation [A2]+ Equation [A 1] → Equation [B 1]"

The correct answer choice is option D

To transform System A into System B as 1 × Equation [A2] + Equation [A1]→ Equation [B1] and 1 × Equation [A2] → Equation [B2].

System A:

-3x + 4y = -23 [A1]

7x - 2y = -5 [A2]

Multiply equation [A2] by 2

14x - 4y = -10

Add the equation to equation [A1]

14x - 4y = -10

-3x + 4y = -23 [A1]

11x = -33 [B1]

Multiply equation [A2] by 1

7x - 2y = -5 ....[B2]

So therefore, it can be deduced from the step by step explanation above that System A is ultimately transformed into System B as 1 × Equation [A2] + Equation [A1]→ Equation [B1] and 1 × Equation [A2] → Equation [B2].

The complete image is attached.

Read more equation:

https://brainly.com/question/13763238

#SPJ1

Answer:

8786

Step-by-step explanation:

123,000/14 = 8786  Since it is about, I rounded to the nearest whole number.

Answer:

I think the answer is 1/2. Given the first die was odd, you rolled either a 1,3, or 5. Now on the second roll only a 6,4, or a 2 will give you a sum of 7. Given that is half of the sample space of the second die, it is 1/2?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

g(f(11))

It says in the problem that f(11) = -9

So:

g(-9)

It says again in the problem that g(-9) = 1

So the answer is 1

Answer:=

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

8b-10

hope it helps. please mark brainliest

Answer:  The correct answer is (8*b) - 10

Step-by-step explanation:

When translating word problems into equations, the term "product" denotes multiplication, and "less than" denotes subtraction.

This wording "10 less than the product of 8 and b" tells us to multiply 8 and b, then subtract 10:

(8*b) - 10

Answer:

Area =25m²

Perimeter = 20m

Step-by-step explanation:

None of the transformations described change the size or shape of the original object, only position and orientation are changed

Answer:

m=10

Step-by-step explanation:

m/3-6=4

30/3=10

10-6=4

Answer:

7 and 1/24

Step-by-step explanation:

4 7/8 + 2 1/6

First when adding fractions, we want to have a common denominator. To do that, we must multiply the fractions until we get a desired denominator. We can find LCM.

The LCM of 6 and 8 is 24, so we must multiply accordingly.

We can put this into improper fraction form:

39/8 + 13/6

Then multiply accordingly. Multiply by 3 on both sides for the first fraction, and multiply by 4 on both sides for the second to get a denominator of 24.

117/24 + 52/24

Now, we can add the fractions.

169/24

Simplify

7 and 1/24

As the LCM of 5, 8, and 12, which is 60 so it is the smallest length that can be divided exactly into equal sections of length 5 m, 8 m, and 12 m.

The acronym LCM stands for the least common multiple or factor of any two or more specified integers. The least common multiple for the numbers 16 and 20 is 80, hence the LCM of those two numbers will be, for instance, 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 5 = 80.

8 is the LCM of 4 and 8. The LCM is the number that can be divided by the provided numbers equally. You can discover the least common multiple of 4 and 8 by looking at the common multiples. 4 is a multiple of 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, etc.

finding prime factors of the given numbers by repeated division method in order to find the LCM;

2 | 5,8,12

5 | 5,4,6

2 | 1,4,6

2 | 1,2,3

3 | 1,1,3

0 | 1,1,1

so we get 2x5x3x2=60

As the LCM of 5, 8, and 12, which is 60 so it is the smallest length that can be divided exactly into equal sections of length 5 m, 8 m, and 12 m.

to learn more about LCM visit:

https://brainly.com/question/20739723

#SPJ1

The shortest length which can be split into equal segments of length 5 meters, 8 meters, or 12 meters is 120.

Your form may be divided into sections with the help of sections, as the name suggests. This enables your users to input responses that might be categorized. The fact that sections divide your form into distinct screens is another significant benefit. For instance, a first screen shows section 1. When concealed lines in external views cannot adequately represent a part's inner design, sections are employed. The internal components can be viewed more clearly by imagining cutting through the thing and removing a section of it.

Finding the LCM by repeatedly dividing the supplied integers to get their prime components:

2 | 5,8,12

2 | 5,4,6

2 | 5,2,3

3 | 5,1,3

5 | 5,1,1

1 | 1,1,1

So we get 2*2*2*3*5*1 = 120

The lowest length that could be divided into precisely equal segments in lengths 5 m, 8 m, and 12 m is 120, which equals the LCM of 5, 8, & 12.

To know more about Sections visit:

https://brainly.com/question/12259293

#SPJ1

Answer: It is 12 kilometers per minute

Step-by-step explanation:

in the problem that you'll need to simplify your answer and write it as a proper fraction, mixed number, or whole number so I can confirm this is 100% correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

.20

Step-by-step explanation:

because customers are always right

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

30 dollars to spend she wants to buy at least ten which mean's since 2 times 5 is 10 and 4 times 5 is 20 and 10 plus 20 equals thirty which means she can buy 5 small coffee's and 5 large coffee's

Answer:

x=11°

Step-by-step explanation:

Because line t is 180°, (9x-5)°+(6x+20)°=180°

Simplify:

(9x-5)°+(6x+20)°=180°

9x-5+6x+20=180

15x-5+20=180

15x+15=180

15x=165

x=11

I believe the answer must be 96x-160

Because we have to multiply 8x12 which is 96. and there is x next to it. so keep the x as it is.

and next to it is minus ( - ) sign so keep it as it is.

now we have to multiply 8x20 which is 160.

so if we write it together it will be:

so if we write it together it will be:96x - 160.

Thank you

Answer:

do the butterfly method if you don't know how to do that comment and I'll show you a screenshot

The linear equation in the form p(n) = mn + b that gives the price p they can charge for n shirt is p(n) = - 1 / 250n + 34.

Linear equation can be represented in slope intercept form as follows:

y = mx + b

where

Therefore, the clothing business finds there is a linear relationship between the number of shirts, n,  it can sell and the price, p , it can charge per shirt.  1,000 shirts can be sold at a price of $30 , while 3,000 shirts can be sold at a price of $22 .

Therefore,

using  (1000, 30) and (3000, 22) let's find the slope.

m = 22 - 30 / 3000 - 1000

m = - 8 / 2000

m = - 1 / 250

Hence, let's find the y-intercept using (1000, 30)

p(n) = mn + b

where

Therefore,

30 = - 1 / 250 (1000) + b

30 = - 4 + b

b = 30 + 4

b = 34

Hence, the linear equation is p(n) = - 1 / 250n + 34

learn more on linear equation here: https://brainly.com/question/14495872

#SPJ1

The probability exactly three successes in six trials is 31.30%

A binomial distribution can be defined as the probability of a success or failure outcome in an experiment or survey that is repeated multiple times.

The probability distribution of a binomial distribution is given by :

P(x = k) = n! /k!(n - k)! P^x(1 - P)^(n - k)

In our case :

n = 6

P = 50/100 = 0.5

Now we want the probability that:

x = 3

This is because the question states that we want the probability that the number of successes are exactly 3.

We do the substitution in the probability distribution function as follows :

P(x = 3) = 6!/3!(6 - 3)! × 0.5³ × (1 - 0.5)³

= 0.3125

= 31.25%

= 31.30%

Hence, the probability of exactly three successes in six trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success is 50 is 31.30%

Learn more about binomial distribution on:https://brainly.com/question/23780714

#SPJ1

Answer: 2x²+4x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\displaystyle\\\frac{2x^3-2x-12}{x-2} =\\\\\frac{2(x^3-x-6)}{x-2}=\\\\ \frac{2(x^2-8+8-x-6)}{x-2} =\\\\\frac{2(x^3-2^3-x+2)}{x-2} =\\\\\frac{2((x^3-2^3)-(x-2))}{x-2}=\\\\\frac{2((x-2)(x^2+2x+2^2)-(x-2))}{x-2} =\\\\\frac{2(x-2)(x^2+2x+4-1)}{x-2}=\\\\2(x^2+2x+3)=\\\\2x^2+4x+6[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

here is your answer hope it helps you plaz mark me as brainlist

Answer:

√122

Step-by-step explanation:

first we have to find the missing side with x on the 5 and 9 triangle by using the theorem

a^2+b^2=c^2

9^2+5^2=c^2

81+25=c^2

106=c^2

√106=c

and now we can use this as a side to find x

4^2+√106^2=x^2

16+106=x^2

122=x^2

√122=x

Hopes this helps please mark brainliest

The answer is 1,200

First you need to add . + . to get 1.5M and then you need to subtract the rest ( 1.5M - one million four hundred ninety-eight thousand eight hundred )

So then you get 1,200

Hope this helped!

Answer:

m∠1 = 70

m∠2 = 20

Step-by-step explanation:

41 and 42 are complementary angles:  m∠1 + m∠2 = 90

measure of 41 is 50° more than the measure of 42:  m∠1 = m∠2 + 50

substitute: (m∠2 + 50) + m∠2 = 90

simplify and solve:  2(m∠2) + 50 = 90

                                2(m∠2) = 40

                                m∠2 = 20