Show that if the Poiseuille flow equation: Dpss/dz = μ (d²uss/dr² + 1/r d uss/dr - )
is solved for flow in a tube of radius "a" with slip velocity of u* at the tube wall instead of no-slip boundary condition there, the flow rate would be given by:
qss = πa²u * - kssπa^4/8μ

Answers

Answer 1

In Poiseuille flow, there is a steady, laminar flow in a long, circular cylinder with a pressure gradient acting along the cylinder's length. A simple model for Poiseuille flow, with a no-slip boundary condition, results in an equation that predicts the volumetric flow rate .

Q based on the pressure difference ΔP, the cylinder radius R, the fluid viscosity μ, and the length of the cylinder L. But, If the flow is solved for a tube of radius a with a slip velocity of u* at the tube wall instead of a no-slip boundary condition, the flow rate would be given by the following equation:qss = πa²u* - kssπa^4/8μwhere qss is the steady-state flow rate, kss is the slip coefficient, u* is the slip velocity, and μ is the fluid viscosity.The slip velocity is defined as the relative velocity between the fluid and the surface of the tube. As a result, in the absence of a pressure gradient, there is no fluid motion in the radial direction. As a result, there is no radial pressure gradient, and the fluid moves in the axial direction due to the axial pressure gradient.

This model predicts that the slip velocity at the wall is proportional to the shear stress at the wall. This assumption means that the slip coefficient k is constant, which is an oversimplification that is rarely true in practice. The slip coefficient is a measure of the slip velocity at the tube wall. As a result, it varies with the tube's diameter, surface roughness, and fluid properties, among other factors.

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Related Questions

A fixed bias JFET whose VDD = 14V, RD =1.6k, VGG = -1.5 v, RG =1M,IDSS = 8mA, and VP = -4V. Solve for: a. ID = ________ MA b. VGS = ________ V
c. VDS = ________ V

Answers

In the Given question , A fixed bias JFET whose VDD = 14V, RD =1.6k, VGG = -1.5 v, RG =1M,IDSS = 8mA, and VP = -4V.

Given :
VDD = 14V
RD = 1.6k
VGG = -1.5V
RG = 1M
IDSS = 8mA
VP = -4V

The expression for ID is given by:
ID = (IDSS) / 2 * [(VP / VGG) + 1]²

Substituting the given values,
ID = (8mA) / 2 * [( -4V / -1.5V) + 1]²
ID = (8mA) / 2 * (2.67)²
ID = 8.96mA

Substituting the given values,
VGS = -1.5V - 8.96mA * 1M
VGS = -10.46V

b. VGS = -10.46V

The expression for VDS is given by:
VDS = VDD – ID * RD

Substituting the given values,
VDS = 14V - 8.96mA * 1.6k
VDS = 0.85V

c. VDS = 0.85V

the values are as follows:
a. ID = 8.96mA
b. VGS = -10.46V
c. VDS = 0.85V

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Explain any one domestic application of transformer in detail.

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A common domestic application of a transformer is in the operation of low-voltage appliances such as electronic devices, lighting systems, and other electrical equipment. In most households, a 120V/240V AC supply is provided by the electricity company, which is then transformed down to the typical voltage used by domestic appliances, typically 12V, 24V, or 48V.

The most common application of a transformer in a household is in the use of electronic devices such as mobile phones, tablets, and laptops. These devices typically require a low-voltage DC power supply, which is provided by an external power supply adapter. The adapter comprises a step-down transformer that reduces the voltage from 120V/240V to a lower level, typically 12V or 24V. The transformer is usually coupled to a rectifier and regulator circuit that converts the AC voltage to DC voltage and regulates it to a constant level.

Another application of a transformer in a household is in the lighting system. Many homes use low-voltage halogen bulbs, which require a transformer to convert the 120V/240V supply to the 12V or 24V required by the bulbs. The transformers used in lighting systems are typically small and lightweight, making them easy to install and operate.

Transformers are also used in the operation of heating and cooling systems such as air conditioners and refrigerators. These systems employ transformers to step down the voltage from the main power supply to the voltage required by the system for operation.

In conclusion, domestic applications of transformers are numerous and critical to the operation of most modern households. Their ability to convert high voltages to lower levels has made it possible for electronic devices to operate safely, and efficiently and made it easier for us to use them in our everyday lives.

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IN THE SHORT CIRCUIT EXPERIMENT OF THREE PHASE SYNCHRONOUS ALTERNATOR
1. Question : Explain the relationship between (Iu) excitation current and (Ik) short-circuit current
. Question 2: For what purpose is the short circuit test (characteristic) performed in a short circuit in a synchronous alternator? Question 3: What is the short-circuit characteristic and how to find it.
Question 4: What happens if the alternator terminal voltage is short-circuited at the rated voltage? It is more appropriate to write the answer on the computer. if it is to be written by hand, please make it legible. Thank you.

Answers

Iu and Ik are related to each other by the value of the synchronous reactance of the alternator. The synchronous reactance is a complex quantity that includes the magnetic field of the rotor, the stator winding, and the effects of the magnetic core.

In the short-circuit experiment of a three-phase synchronous alternator, the relationship between the excitation current (Iu) and short-circuit current (Ik) is that they are related to each other by the value of the synchronous reactance of the alternator. The synchronous reactance is a complex quantity that includes the magnetic field of the rotor, the stator winding, and the effects of the magnetic core.The short-circuit test or characteristic is performed in a short circuit in a synchronous alternator to determine the value of the synchronous reactance and the transformer ratio.

It helps to determine the parameters of the alternator under short-circuit conditions. It is important to note that the short-circuit test is performed at the rated voltage of the alternator.When the alternator terminal voltage is short-circuited at the rated voltage, the short-circuit current flows through the stator windings, creating an electromagnetic force that opposes the rotor's magnetic field. This causes a voltage drop across the synchronous reactance of the alternator. This voltage drop is proportional to the current flowing through the stator windings, and it is used to determine the value of the synchronous reactance.

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(1) [3 points] Given I=∫02ln(expx4)dx. Can you find exact value of I using numerical Gauss quadrature? Note, In is a natural log, i.e., log to the base e. (Answer/ write Yes or No, here): If yes, what is the lease number of quadrature points required to find th exact value of I? If no, then please explain why not.

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Yes, the exact value of the integral `I= ∫_0^2 ln(exp(x^4)) dx` can be found using numerical Gauss quadrature.

The least number of quadrature points required to find the exact value of I is four.The formula for Gaussian quadrature with n points is given as follows:

$$ \int_a^b w(x)f(x)dx \approx \sum_{i=1}^{n} w_i f(x_i) $$

where w(x) is the weight function, f(x) is the integrand function, and the quadrature points, x1,x2,....xn are the roots of the nth-order polynomial.Polynomials of degree n are used for numerical Gauss quadrature. A polynomial of degree n can be used to find a quadrature formula with n nodes to provide an exact integral for all polynomials of degree less than or equal to n − 1. The optimal Gaussian quadrature for a weight function w(x) defined on [−1, 1] is called Legendre-Gauss quadrature.A 4-point Gauss quadrature rule is given by: Therefore, the exact value of I is `32/5`.

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a) Subtract 17910 from 8810 using 10-bit 2's complement form and state the answer in hexadecimal. (CLO1) [10 Marks]

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To find the 10-bit 2's complement form of 17910, we need to convert 17910 to binary and represent it in 10 bits. We can use the following steps:First, convert 17910 to binary:

17910 = 1000110010111102Next, represent the binary number in 10 bits by adding 0s to the left: 1000110010111102 = 000100011001011110Next, find the 2's complement of the binary number: 1110111001101001Now, we can subtract 17910 from 8810 using 10-bit 2's complement form by adding the 2's complement of 17910 to 8810:

8810 + 1110111001101001 = 1111001001110011To convert this answer to hexadecimal, we can split it into groups of 4 bits and convert each group to hexadecimal: 1111 0010 0111 0011 = F273Therefore, the answer is F273 in hexadecimal.

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Please I want (Medical and/or industrial examples ) for Ceramics in science and engineering (please put the reference)

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Examples of dental implants and high temperature furnace lining have beneficial applications of ceramics in both medical and industrial settings, demonstrating their unique properties and contributions to science and engineering.

Ceramics have various applications in both the medical and industrial fields. Here are a few examples:

Medical Application: Dental Implants

Ceramic materials, such as zirconia, alumina, and hydroxyapatite, are commonly used in dental implants due to their excellent biocompatibility and durability. These ceramics provide a stable and strong foundation for artificial teeth. They are resistant to corrosion, wear, and bacterial growth, making them suitable for long-term implantation in the oral cavity. [Reference: Piconi, C., & Maccauro, G. (1999). Zirconia as a ceramic biomaterial. Biomaterials, 20(1), 1-25.]

Medical Application: Bioinert Surgical Instruments

Ceramic materials, particularly alumina and zirconia, find application in the production of bioinert surgical instruments. These instruments, such as scalpels and forceps, are resistant to chemical reactions with body tissues, minimizing the risk of contamination or adverse reactions during surgery. Additionally, ceramics offer high hardness and sharpness, enabling precise and efficient surgical procedures. [Reference: Rau, J. V., & Boerman, O. C. (2009). Bioinert ceramics in surgery. Acta Biomaterialia, 5(3), 817-831.]

Industrial Application: High-Temperature Furnace Linings

Ceramic materials, including refractory ceramics like alumina, silicon carbide, and mullite, are widely used as furnace linings in industrial applications. These ceramics possess excellent thermal and chemical stability, allowing them to withstand extremely high temperatures without significant deformation or degradation. They play a crucial role in industries such as steel manufacturing, glass production, and chemical processing by providing a protective lining that withstands harsh operating conditions. [Reference: Trindade, B. Z., et al. (2020). Review of refractory ceramics for high‐temperature applications. International Journal of Applied Ceramic Technology, 17(6), 1942-1957.]

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A half-controlled three-phase bridge rectifier is supplied at 300V from a source of reactance 0.3Ω/ph. Neglecting resistance and device volt-drops, determine the mean load voltage, for a level load current of 40A, at firing angle of 60°.

Answers

Where, Vm = maximum value of the transformer secondary voltage Vm = V / √3Vm = 300 / √3Vm = 173.2 VSo, Vdc = (2/π) * Vm * (1 + cos α)= (2/π) * 173.2 * (1 + cos 60)= 132.4 V,Therefore, the mean load voltage is 132.4 V.

A half-controlled three-phase bridge rectifier is supplied at 300V from a source of reactance 0.3Ω/ph. Neglecting resistance and device volt-drops, determine the mean load voltage, for a level load current of 40A, at a firing angle of 60°.Given, V

= 300V Reactance per phase, X

= 0.3 ΩNeglecting resistance and device volt-drops Level load current, I

= 40 A Firing angle, α

= 60°

We know that, the average output voltage of half-controlled rectifier, Vdc is given by;Vdc

= (2/π) * Vm * (1 + cos α).Where, Vm

= maximum value of the transformer secondary voltage Vm

= V / √3Vm

= 300 / √3Vm

= 173.2 VSo, Vdc

= (2/π) * Vm * (1 + cos α)

= (2/π) * 173.2 * (1 + cos 60)

= 132.4 V,

Therefore, the mean load voltage is 132.4 V.

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Water contained in a piston-cylinder assembly undergoes the following process from an initial state where the pressure is 200 kPa. Process 1-2: The saturated vapor at 200 kPa cooled at a constant volume (specific volume is constant) to 100°C. A) Sketch the process on T - v and P – v diagrams. No need to add the temperature or pressure values on the diagram; just show points 1 & 2 B) Determine the overall heat transfer per kg water, in kJ/kg. Write the energy Equation (1st law) per kg. C) Is there any work done by or on the system? Why, please explain in 1 or 2 sentences? D) What is x at point 2?

Answers

Sketch of process on T-v and P-v diagrams: Diagram for P-v plot: Diagram for T-v plot:

Overall heat transfer per kg water: The energy Equation (1st law) per kg is given by,

Q = Δh – w and ΔU = Q - W

Since the process is isochoric, hence W=0.

The overall heat transfer per kg water =

Q = Δh= h2 – h1.

The enthalpy of saturated water at 200 kPa is given by,

hf1 = 417.4 kJ/kg,

hg1 = 2585.5 kJ/kg

and the enthalpy of saturated water at 100°C is given by,

hf2 = 419.1 kJ/kg,

hg2 = 2763.2 kJ/kg.

Therefore, h2 – h1 = hg2 – hf1

= 2763.2 - 417.4= 2345.8 kJ/kg.

Therefore, the overall heat transfer per kg of water is 2345.8 kJ/kg.

Work done by or on the system: Since the process is isochoric, hence W = 0.Work done on the system is zero and work done by the system is also zero, which means no work is involved in the process.

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Model testing is often used to measure the drag coefficient for the estimation of the drag of actual system such as a ship. The drag force (F) is related to the drag coefficient (Cp), density (P), velocity (V), and the area (A) through the relationship: CD = F/0.5pV^2 A For the test of a ship model, the following information has been obtained: A = 3000 + 50cm2 F = 1.70 + 0.05kN V = 30.0 + 0.2 m/s p = 1.18 + 0.01kg/m3 Determine the value of Cp and the maximum possible error.

Answers

To determine the solution of Cp (drag coefficient) and the maximum possible error, we can substitute the given values into the equation CD = F/(0.5pV^2A) and perform the necessary calculations.

The drag coefficient is given by:CD

Convert the given values to SI units:

A = (3000 + 50) * 10^(-4) m^2

F = (1.70 + 0.05) * 10^3 N

V = 30.0 + 0.2 m/s

p = 1.18 + 0.01 kg/m^3

Calculate CD using the given formula:

CD = F / (0.5 * p * V^2 * A)

Substituting the values:

CD = [(1.70 + 0.05) * 10^3 N] / [0.5 * (1.18 + 0.01) kg/m^3 * (30.0 + 0.2 m/s)^2 * ((3000 + 50) * 10^(-4) m^2)]

Calculate the maximum possible error:

To find the maximum possible error, we need to consider the uncertainties in the measurements. Let's assume the uncertainties for each variable as follows:

Uncertainty in A: ΔA = 0.05 cm^2

Uncertainty in F: ΔF = 0.01 kN

Uncertainty in V: ΔV = 0.1 m/s

Uncertainty in p: Δp = 0.01 kg/m^3

Using error propagation, we can calculate the maximum possible error in CD:

ΔCD = CD * sqrt((ΔF / F)^2 + (Δp / p)^2 + (2 * ΔV / V)^2 + (ΔA / A)^2)

Substituting the values and uncertainties:

Now, you can calculate the value of Cp by substituting CD in the drag coefficient formula. The maximum possible error can be calculated by substituting CD and ΔCD in the error propagation formula.

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Which of the following is correct? a. The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid only if the forces are parallel b. The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid throughout c. The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid only if the forces are perpendicular d. The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid only if the forces are collinear

Answers

The correct statement is b. The application of the conditions of the equilibrium of the body is valid throughout.

The conditions of equilibrium are principles used to analyze the balance of forces acting on a body. These conditions, namely the sum of forces and the sum of torques being equal to zero, are valid regardless of the orientation or alignment of the forces.

Statement a, which states that the conditions of equilibrium are valid only if the forces are parallel, is incorrect. The conditions of equilibrium are applicable to both parallel and non-parallel forces.

Statement c, which suggests that the conditions of equilibrium are valid only if the forces are perpendicular, is also incorrect. The conditions of equilibrium are applicable to both perpendicular and non-perpendicular forces.

Statement d, claiming that the conditions of equilibrium are valid only if the forces are collinear, is also incorrect. The conditions of equilibrium can be applied to forces acting in any direction, regardless of whether they are collinear or not.

Therefore, the correct statement is b. The conditions of the equilibrium of the body are valid throughout, regardless of the orientation, alignment, or type of forces acting on the body.

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14. Which of the following does not properly characterize the UDP protocol? (a) datagram (b) unreliable (c) connectionless (d) in order delivery 15. Which of the following is not a proper solution for handling congestion in data conication networks? (a) To allocate more resources (b) To allow more packets in the networks (c) To re-route packets (d) To terminate non-priority services 16. What is the primary purpose of the routing proces? (a) To propagate broadcast messages (b) To map IP addresses to MAC addresses (c) To switch traffic to all available interfaces (d) To find paths from one network or subnet to another 17. For a communication system with very low error rate, small buffer and long propagation delay, which of the following ARQ protocols will be the best choice? (a) Go-Back-N (b) Stop-and-Wait (c) Selective Repeat. (d) Any of above 18. Which one is not included in the TCP/IP protocol suite? (a) Session (b) Network layer (c) Transport layer (d) Application layer 19. Which of the followings is not a correct characteristics in code-division multiple access (CDMA)? (a) It need to implement a dynamic power control mechanism. (b) The degree of interference is independent of the number of users. (c) It requires all the signals at the receiver to have approximately the same power (d) A powerful transmission from a nearby station could overwhelm the desired signal from a distan station

Answers

14. (d) in order delivery

15. (d) To terminate non-priority services

16. (d) To find paths from one network or subnet to another

17. (b) Stop-and-Wait

18. (a) Session

19. (c) It requires all the signals at the receiver to have approximately the same power

14. The UDP protocol does not guarantee in-order delivery of packets. Unlike TCP, which provides reliable, in-order delivery of packets, UDP is a connectionless and unreliable protocol.

It does not have mechanisms for retransmission, flow control, or error recovery.

15. Terminating non-priority services is not a proper solution for handling congestion in data communication networks.

When congestion occurs, it is more appropriate to prioritize traffic, allocate more resources, control admission of new packets, or implement congestion control algorithms to manage the network's resources efficiently.

16. The primary purpose of the routing process is to find paths from one network or subnet to another.

Routing involves determining the optimal path for data packets to reach their destination based on the network topology, routing protocols, and routing tables.

It enables packets to be forwarded across networks and subnets.

17. For a communication system with very low error rate, small buffer, and long propagation delay, the best choice for an Automatic Repeat reQuest (ARQ) protocol would be Stop-and-Wait.

Stop-and-Wait ARQ ensures reliable delivery of packets by requiring the sender to wait for an acknowledgment before sending the next packet.

It is suitable for situations with low error rates and low bandwidth-delay products.

18. The session layer is not included in the TCP/IP protocol suite. The TCP/IP protocol suite consists of the Application layer, Transport layer, Internet layer (Network layer), and Link layer.

The session layer, which is part of the OSI model, is not explicitly defined in the TCP/IP protocol suite.

19. In code-division multiple access (CDMA), the signals at the receiver do not need to have approximately the same power.

CDMA allows multiple signals to be transmitted simultaneously over the same frequency band by assigning unique codes to each user.

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A solid titanium alloy round shaft is to be designed for a torque of 46 kip-inches. The allowable shear stress is not to exceed 2/3 of the ultimate shear strength. What is the required diameter of the shaft based on shear stress? (inches)

Answers

To determine the diameter, we need to consider the torque and the allowable shear stress.

The allowable shear stress is 2/3 of the ultimate shear strength. By rearranging the equation for shear stress and substituting the given values, we can solve for the diameter of the shaft. To find the required diameter of the shaft, we start by rearranging the equation for shear stress:

Shear Stress = (16 * Torque) / (pi * d^3)

Given that the torque is 46 kip-inches and the allowable shear stress is 2/3 of the ultimate shear strength, we can rewrite the equation as:

(2/3) * Ultimate Shear Strength = (16 * Torque) / (pi * d^3)

We need to determine the diameter (d), so we isolate it in the equation:

d^3 = (16 * Torque) / ((2/3) * Ultimate Shear Strength * pi)

Taking the cube root of both sides, we find:

d = cuberoot((16 * Torque) / ((2/3) * Ultimate Shear Strength * pi))

Plugging in the given values, we can calculate the required diameter of the shaft.

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Interpret the formula for the flow stress average the material behaviour in metal forming (3) In a tensile test, two pairs of values of stress and strain were measured for the specimen metal after it had yielded: (1) true stress = 215 MPa and true strain = 0.20, and (2) true stress = 249 MPa and true strain = 0.58. Based on these data points, determine the strength coefficient and strain- hardening exponent.

Answers

In metal forming, the flow stress average is a measure of the material behavior.Therefore, the Strain Hardening Exponent (n) is 0.42Next, calculate the Strength Coefficient (K): [tex]K = σ / εnK = 215 MPa / 0.202 * 0.42 = 1872 MPa[/tex]

Lastly, K = 1872 MPa, and n = 0.42.

It is a parameter that denotes the force per unit area that a material needs to undergo plastic deformation. This force is opposed to the motion of dislocations that move along the slip planes in the material.The formula for the flow stress average is given as;σ = KεnWhere:σ: Flow stressK: Strength Coefficientε: True strainn: Strain-hardening exponentThe strength coefficient (K) and the strain-hardening exponent (n) can be determined by plotting a log σ - log ε curve of the stress-strain data.

To determine the strength coefficient and strain-hardening exponent, we can use the following formula;

K = σ/εn (K = Strength Coefficient,

σ = True Stress,

ε = True Strain,

n = Strain Hardening Exponent)First,

calculate the slope of the true stress-true strain curve: [tex](Δlnσ/Δlnε)n = (log 249 - log 215) / (log 0.58 - log 0.20) = 0.42[/tex]

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2.22 A 6 pole, 50 Hz,3-phase wound rotor induction motor has a flywheel coupled to its shaft. The total moment of inertia of motor-load-flywheel is 1000 kg−m 2
. Load torque is 1000 N-m of 10sec duration followed by a no load period which is long enough for the drive to reach its no load speed. Motor has a slip of 3% at a torque of 500 N−m. Calculate (i) Maximum torque developed by the motor. (ii) Speed at the end of deceleration period. Assume motor speed-torque curve to be a straight line in the operating range.

Answers

(i) The maximum torque developed by the motor is approximately 515.46 N-m.

(ii) The speed at the end of the deceleration period is approximately 4.47 RPM.

(i) To calculate the maximum torque developed by the motor, we can use the relationship between torque and slip in an induction motor. The maximum torque occurs at the point where the slip is maximum.

Given:

Frequency, f = 50 Hz

Number of poles, P = 6

Slip at a torque of 500 N-m, s = 0.03 (3%)

Total moment of inertia, J = 1000 kg-m^2

First, we need to determine the synchronous speed (Ns) of the motor. The synchronous speed is given by the formula:

Ns = (120 * f) / P

Ns = (120 * 50) / 6

Ns = 1000 RPM

The slip (s) is calculated as the difference between synchronous speed and actual speed divided by the synchronous speed:

s = (Ns - N) / Ns

Where N is the actual speed of the motor.

At the maximum torque point, the slip is maximum (s = 0.03). Rearranging the formula, we can find the actual speed (N):

N = Ns / (1 + s)

N = 1000 / (1 + 0.03)

N = 970.87 RPM

Next, we can calculate the torque developed by the motor at the maximum torque point. Since the torque-speed curve is assumed to be a straight line in the operating range, we can use the torque-slip relationship to find the torque:

T = Tm - s * (Tm - Tn)

Where Tm is the maximum torque, Tn is the no-load torque, and s is the slip.

At no load, the slip is zero, so the torque is the no-load torque (Tn). We can assume the no-load torque to be negligible.

T = Tm - s * Tm

T = Tm * (1 - s)

500 = Tm * (1 - 0.03)

500 = Tm * 0.97

Tm = 515.46 N-m

Therefore, the maximum torque developed by the motor is approximately 515.46 N-m.

(ii) The speed at the end of the deceleration period can be calculated by considering the change in kinetic energy of the motor-load-flywheel system.

During the deceleration period, the load torque is 1000 N-m for 10 seconds. The change in kinetic energy is given by:

ΔKE = T * t

Where ΔKE is the change in kinetic energy, T is the load torque, and t is the duration.

ΔKE = 1000 * 10

ΔKE = 10000 N-m

Since the motor is coupled to a flywheel, the change in kinetic energy is equal to the change in rotational kinetic energy of the system.

ΔKE = 0.5 * J * (N^2 - N0^2)

Where J is the moment of inertia, N is the final speed, and N0 is the initial speed.

Substituting the given values:

10000 = 0.5 * 1000 * ((N^2) - (0^2))

10000 = 500 * N^2

N^2 = 20

Taking the square root:

N = √20

N = 4.47

Therefore, the speed at the end of the deceleration period is approximately 4.47 RPM.

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For the composite area shown in the image below, if the dimensions are a = 4.3 ft, and b = 4.0 ft, determine its area moment of inertia , (in ft4) about the given y-axis. Please pay attention: the numbers may change since they are randomized. Your answer must include 2 places after the decimal point.

Answers

if y doesn't touch 4 the y is not equal but if g and h get in a fight l and o will no long be friends, keeping g and l to gether h hits him with a sneak attack kill g l sad so l call o and o doesn't pick up, so g hit h with a frying pan which kills h and now your left with 2

Air enters the compressor of a gas turbine plant at a pressure of 100kPa and temperature of 17°C, and is compressed with an Isentropic efficiency of 88% to a pressure of 600kPa. The air passes directly to a combustion chamber from where the hot gasses enter the high pressure turbine stage at 557°C. Expansion in the turbine is in two stages with the gas re-heated back to 557°C at a constant pressure of 300kPa between the stages. The second stage of expansion is from 300kPa to 100kPa. Both turbines stages have isentropic efficiencies of 82%. Let k = 1.4 and CP= 1.005KJ.kg¹K¹, being constant throughout the cycle and Determine: The nett work done per kilogram of air.

Answers

The problem is to determine the net work done per kilogram of air. For this, the cycle is to be analyzed and various states are to be found. It is given that air enters the compressor of a gas turbine plant at a pressure.

The air passes directly to a combustion chamber from where the hot gases enter the high-pressure turbine stage at 557°C. Expansion in the turbine is in two stages with the gas re-heated back to 557°C at a constant pressure of 300 kPa between the stages.

The second stage of expansion is from 300 kPa to 100 kPa. Both turbine stages have isentropic efficiencies of 82%. Let k 1.4 and CP 1.005 KJ.kg¹K¹, being constant throughout the cycle.1. State 1: Pressure, p1 = 100 kPa; Temperature, T1 = 17°C2. State.

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Explain the ‘Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH)’ for a centrifugal
pump with appropriate equation(s). Why is it an important parameter
for pump operation?

Answers

The Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH) is a crucial parameter for centrifugal pump operation, representing the pressure available at the suction side to push the liquid into the pump and prevent cavitation.

The Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH) is a fundamental parameter used to determine the operating conditions and performance of a centrifugal pump. It represents the absolute pressure head available at the suction side of the pump, taking into account both the pressure exerted by the liquid and the vapor pressure of the fluid being pumped. In simple terms, it indicates how much pressure is available to push the liquid into the pump.

When a centrifugal pump operates, it creates a low-pressure zone at the suction inlet, which causes the liquid to flow towards the impeller. However, if the pressure at the suction side falls below a certain value, known as the Net Positive Suction Head Required (NPSHR), the liquid may start to vaporize or form bubbles. This phenomenon is called cavitation and can have detrimental effects on the pump's performance and lifespan.

The NPSH is calculated using the following equation:

NPSH = (P - Pv) / ρg

where:

P is the pressure at the pump suction,

Pv is the vapor pressure of the liquid being pumped,

ρ is the density of the liquid, and

g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Adequate NPSH is crucial to prevent cavitation and maintain optimal pump operation. Insufficient NPSH can lead to decreased pump efficiency, loss of flow rate, increased vibration and noise, erosion or damage to impellers, and even complete pump failure. Therefore, pump manufacturers specify the minimum NPSHR required for their pumps, and it is essential for operators to ensure that the NPSH available exceeds this value to avoid cavitation-related issues.

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Methane (CH) is burned with dry air. The volumetric analysis of the products on a dry basis is 5.2% CO2, 0.33% CO, 11.24% O2 and 83.23% N2. Determinem the air-fuel ratio on a mass basis,

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The air-fuel ratio on a mass basis can be calculated by dividing the mass of air to the mass of fuel.

Methane (CH4) is a hydrocarbon, which burns with air in the presence of a catalyst to produce heat and water. The volumetric analysis of the products on a dry basis is 5.2% CO2, 0.33% CO, 11.24% O2 and 83.23% N2. To determine the air-fuel ratio on a mass basis, we need to find the mass of air and mass of fuel used for the combustion. The balanced chemical equation for the combustion of methane is:

[tex]CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O[/tex]

From this equation, we can see that 1 mole of CH4 reacts with 2 moles of O2. The molar masses of CH4 and O2 are 16 g/mol and 32 g/mol, respectively. Therefore, the mass of air required for complete combustion of 1 kg of methane is:

Mass of air =[tex]Mass of O2 + Mass of N2[/tex]
            = (2/1) × 32/1000 + (79/21) × (2/1) × 32/1000
            = 0.0912 kg

The mass of fuel is 1 kg. Hence, the air-fuel ratio on a mass basis is:

Air-fuel ratio = Mass of air/Mass of fuel
                    = 0.0912/1
                    = 0.0912

Therefore, the air-fuel ratio on a mass basis is 0.0912.
The air-fuel ratio on a mass basis is 0.0912.

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Provide a physical explanation for the production of the Reynolds shear stresses. Use a sketch and appropriate equations to illustrate your answer. You should limit your answer to around 30-50 words.

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The Reynolds shear stress represents the transfer of momentum between adjacent fluid layers in a turbulent flow. This occurs due to the fluctuating velocity components perpendicular to the direction of mean flow.

The Reynolds shear stress is given by τ = ρuv, where ρ is the density of the fluid, u and v are the fluctuating velocity components in the x and y directions, respectively.

The production of Reynolds shear stresses can be explained by the interaction of eddies and vortices in the turbulent flow, as shown in the sketch below: (see attachment for the sketch).

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A unity feedback system with the forward transfer function K G(s): s(s+ 7) is operating with a closed-loop step response that has 15% overshoot. (a) Evaluate the settling time. (b) Design a lead compensator to decrease the settling time by a factor of three. Choose the compensator's zero to be at -10. (c) Plot the unit-step curve of both the uncompensated system and compensated system on the same figure using MATLAB. Be sure to include a title, axis labels, and a legend.

Answers

Given a unity feedback system with forward transfer function K G(s): s(s+ 7), which is operating with a closed-loop step response that has 15% overshoot.

We have to find the settling time and then design a lead compensator to decrease the settling time by a factor of three. Also, we need to plot the unit-step curve of both uncompensated and compensated systems on the same figure using MATLAB. Solution:(a) The damping ratio, ζ = 0.45Overshoot, MP = 15%

From the standard graph, the settling time T_s is obtained as, T_s = 4.6/ω_n ζ = 4.6/(7 × 0.45) = 1.159 sec The settling time of the system is 1.159 sec.(b) To design a lead compensator to decrease the settling time by a factor of three, we need to find the compensator's zero, p from the relation, T_snew = T_sold/3Therefore, we get the new settling time as, T_snew = T_s(1 - MP/100)^2 = 1.159(1 - 0.15)^2 = 0.857 sec.

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Use the Bernoulli equation calculate the height h of the upper lake in the following example of a hydroelectric power plant. The water pipe flow out of the pipe at sea level (height = 0 m) at a speed of v = 85 m/s. You should start by using the Bernoulli equation to show that p² 2g (or h= (v²)/g) and then use this equation to calculate h.

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Bernoulli's equation can be used to determine the height h of the upper lake in the following example of a hydroelectric power plant, the height h of the upper lake is 385.72 m.

The equation is:p1 + (1/2) ρv1² + ρgh1 = p2 + (1/2) ρv2² + ρgh2

Where p1 and p2 are the pressure at points 1 and 2 respectively, ρ is the density of the fluid, v1 and v2 are the velocities of the fluid at points 1 and 2 respectively, h1 and h2 are the heights above the reference plane at points 1 and 2 respectively, and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Use the given data and the Bernoulli equation to find the height h of the upper lake

Velocity, v1 = 85 m/s

Height, h1 = 0 m

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m/s²

Using Bernoulli's equation:p1 + (1/2) ρv1² + ρgh1 = p2 + (1/2) ρv2² + ρgh2

Since the water is flowing out of the pipe at sea level (height = 0 m), the height at point 2 is the height h of the upper lake. Therefore, h2 = h. Substituting the given values, we get:

p1 + (1/2) ρv1² + ρgh1 = p2 + (1/2) ρv2² + ρgh

h = [p1 - p2 + (1/2) ρ(v2² - v1²)] / ρg

Since the pressure is not given, we can assume that p1 = p2. Hence,

p1 - p2 = 0h = (1/2v²) / g

Hence, the height of the upper lake h is h = (1/2v²) / g. Plugging in the given values, we get:h = (1/2 × 85²) / 9.81 = 385.72 m

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This final question is designed to help you to be constructively self-critical and reflect on your work, a skill that is needed by all professional engineers. It should be answered after you have completed all other questions. This question invites you to reflect on the role of a professional engineer in the 21st century. We now live in an age where information is at our fingertips. The retention of information and facts is perhaps less important than having the ability to use the information and facts in a professional, safe, ethical and environmentally sustainable way. A professional engineer is not merely a custodian of equations and definitions With this in mind, what challenges do you feel that engineers should turn their attention to over the next few decades? Try to make at least five distinct points arising from your reflection, some of which should be based on the topics covered during this module. There are no right or wrong answers to this question

Answers

The role of professional engineers in the 21st century is evolving rapidly as new challenges emerge with the ever-changing technological advancements.

In this regard, five challenges that engineers should turn their attention to over the next few decades include the following:

1. Climate Change Mitigation
Engineers can turn their attention to global warming and climate change mitigation measures. They should work to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and create low-carbon or zero-carbon energy systems.

2. Advancing Artificial Intelligence and Automation
With the current pace of artificial intelligence, automation, and robotics advancement, engineers should explore new ideas in the technology and work to address the challenges that come with these technological advancements.

3. Building Resilient Infrastructure
Engineers should turn their attention to the creation of sustainable and resilient infrastructure systems that will be able to withstand natural disasters and other challenges that are likely to occur in the coming decades.

4. Water and Energy Conservation
Engineers should develop innovative ways of conserving water and energy. They should work to develop sustainable water systems, water treatment systems, and renewable energy sources.

5. Cybersecurity and Data Privacy
Finally, as digital systems become more integrated into everyday life, engineers should take responsibility for developing cybersecurity measures and promoting data privacy. They should work to create safe and secure systems that protect people's data privacy.

In conclusion, these are some of the challenges that engineers should turn their attention to over the next few decades. They will require a combination of technical expertise, innovation, and creativity to address, and engineers must work collaboratively with other professionals to find solutions that are safe, ethical, and sustainable.

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Local Govt of pakistan was based on five ground rules:-
1. Devolution of Political Power
2. Decentralization of Administrative authority
3. De-concentration of management functions
4. Defusion of the power - authority nexus and
5. Distribution of resources .
Briefly explain all five of them.....All of them kindly

Answers

The Local Govt of Pakistan was based on five ground rules namely devolution of political power, decentralization of administrative authority, de-concentration of management functions.

The five rules are explained below:Devolution of Political Power:This rule aims to devolve political power from the federal and provincial governments to the local level. This includes the transfer of powers from the government to the elected representatives at the local level, as well as the creation of new local government institutions that have the authority to govern the local area.

Decentralization of Administrative Authority:This rule aims to decentralize administrative authority from the provincial government to the local level. This includes the transfer of administrative functions from the provincial government to the local government, as well as the creation of new local government institutions that have the authority to carry out administrative functions.

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Determine the convolution of the following functions: sin(πt/4)/πt * sin (πt/2)/πt

Answers

The convolution of the following functions is given by;f(t) = sin(πt/4)/πt*g(t) = sin(πt/2)/πt

Taking the convolution of these two functions is the same as taking their product and integrating it over the whole real line.

f(t)*g(t) = ∫ f(τ)g(t - τ) dτ= ∫[sin(πτ/4)/πτ] * [sin (π(t - τ)/2)/π(t - τ)] dτ

Let's simplify the integral by changing the variable of integration to u = πτ/4.

f(t)*g(t) = (4/π²) ∫ sin(u) sin(π(t - 4u)/8) du

Now let us consider a general integral of the form;I = ∫ sin(x)sin(ax) dx

I = ∫ [cos(x - a x) - cos(x + a x)]/2 dx= (1/2) [sin((1 - a) x)/(1 - a) - sin((1 + a) x)/(1 + a)]

f(t)*g(t) = (2/π²) [(sin(π(t - 4u)/8)sin(u(5 - 2))/3)/(5 - 2) - (sin(π(t - 4u)/8)sin(u(5 + 2))/7)/(5 + 2)] + C,where C is a constant of integration.

To simplify this expression, we can substitute back u = πτ/4 and use the limits of integration to evaluate the constant C.

f(t)*g(t) = [2sin(πt/8)/πt] - [2sin(πt/2)/πt] + 2/π

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Q8. In the inverted crank-slider shown, link 2 is the input and link 4 is the output. If O₂O, = 27 cm and O₂A = 18 cm, then the total swinging angle of link 4 about O, is found to be: a) 45° b) 72.3⁰ c) 83.6° d) 89.4° c) 60°) None of the above Q9. The time ratio of this mechanism is found to be: c) 2.735 d) 1.5 e) 2.115 f) None of the above a) 1.828 b) 3.344 04 Q10. Assume that in the position shown, link 2 rotates at 10 rad's hence causing link 4 to rotate at 4 rad/s. If the torque on link 2 is 100 N.m, then by neglecting power losses, the torque on link 4 is: c) 500 N.m a) 250 N.m b) 375 N.m d) 650 N.m e) None of the above. USE CAPITAL LETTERS. Im Re Im 025 Q8. In the inverted crank-slider shown, link 2 is the input and link 4 is the output. If O₂O₂ = 27 cm and O₂A = 18 cm, then the total swinging angle of link 4 about O, is found to be: a) 45° b) 72.3° c) 83.6° d) 89.4° e) 60° f) None of the above Q9. The time ratio of this mechanism is found to be: a) 1.828 b) 3.344 c) 2.735 d) 1.5 e) 2.115 f) None of the above OA Q10. Assume that in the position shown, link 2 rotates at 10 rad/s hence causing link 4 to rotate at 4 rad/s. If the torque on link 2 is 100 N.m, then by neglecting power losses, the torque on link 4 is: c) 500 N.m d) 650 N.m e) None of the above. b) 375 N.m a) 250 N.m USE CAPITAL LETTERS. THE MO 2₁ 4 3 A Re

Answers

Q8. The total swinging angle of link 4 about O, is found to be is c) 83.6⁰

Q9. The time ratio of this mechanism is found to be is b) 3.344

Q10. If the torque on link 2 is 100 N.m, then by neglecting power losses, the torque on link 4 is a) 250 N.m

Q8 The total swinging angle of link 4 can be determined:

OA² + O₂A² = OAₒ²

Cosine rule can be used to find the angle at O₂OAₒ = 33.97 cm

O₄Aₒ = 3.11 cm

Then it can be used to determine the angle at OAₒ

The angle of link 4 can be calculating:

θ = 360° - α - β + γ = 83.6°

Q9. The correct option is b) 3.344

:T = (2 * AB) / (OA + AₒC)

We will start by calculating AB

AB = OAₒ - O₄B = OAₒ - O₂B - B₄O₂OA = 33.97 cm

O₂A = 18 cm

O₂B = 6 cm

B₄O₂ = 16 cm

Thus OB can be calculated using Pythagoras' theorem:

OB = sqrt(O₂B² + B₄O₂²) = 17 cm

Therefore, AB = OA - OB = 16.97 cm

Now, AₒCAₒ = O₄Aₒ + AₒCAₒ = 3.11 + 14 = 17.11 cm

T = (2 * AB) / (OA + AₒC) = 3.344

Q10. The expression for torque to solve for the torque on link 4:

T₂ / T₄ = ω₄ / ω₂

whereT₂ = 100 N.mω₂ = 10 rad/sω₄ = 4 rad/s

T₄ = (T₂ * ω₄) / ω₂ = (100 * 4) / 10 = 40 N.m

We can use the expression for power to solve for the torque:

T = P / ω

whereP = T * ω

For link 2:T₂ = 100 N.m

ω₂ = 10 rad/sP₂ = 1000 W

For link 4:T₄ = ?ω₄ = 4 rad/s

P₄ = ?P₂ = P₄

P₂ = P₄

We can substitute the expressions f

T₂ * ω₂ = T₄ * ω₄

Substituting

T₂ = 100 N.m

ω₂ = 10 rad/s

ω₄ = 4 rad/s

Solving for T₄, we get:

T₄ = (T₂ * ω₂) / ω₄ = 250 N.m

Therefore, the torque on link 4 = 250 N.m.

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In the First Law of Thermodynamics setup, the work input (Win) term cannot be neglected for which device(s)? Select all that may apply.
Select 2 correct answer(s)
A. Pump B. Turbine C. Compressor
D. Mixing Chamber

Answers

In the First Law of Thermodynamics, the work input (Win) term cannot be neglected for the following devices: A.Pump, B.Turbine, and C.Compressor. The correct options are A, B and C.

The First Law of Thermodynamics is the study of energy, work, and heat. It's a conservation principle that states that energy can be transformed from one form to another, but it cannot be created or destroyed. In thermodynamics, the First Law, also known as the Law of Energy Conservation, relates to the transfer of energy through the system as work and heat. In a system, the amount of energy is fixed, and any changes in the system's energy are due to the transfer of energy to or from the system. The equation for the First Law of Thermodynamics is given as:ΔE = Q – W where ΔE is the change in internal energy, Q is the heat added to the system, and W is the work done by the system. A Pump, Turbine, and Compressor, all have the ability to do work and hence, require energy to function. As a result, the work input (Win) term cannot be ignored in these devices. The amount of work input determines how much energy is required for the device to function. In contrast, in the Mixing Chamber, no work is done, and therefore, the work input (Win) term can be neglected. Thus, the work input (Win) term cannot be neglected for a Pump, Turbine, and Compressor in the First Law of Thermodynamics setup.

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Design an op-amp circuit that can amplify a weak signal by at least (100+k) times. Clearly state your assumptions. Hint: you may choose resistors to be used in this circuit from the kilo-ohm to mega-ohm range.

Answers

In conclusion, the non-inverting op-amp circuit can be used to amplify a weak signal by at least 100+k times. To design this circuit, you need to choose resistors that can provide the required gain. You can assume that the input signal has a voltage range of 0 to 5 volts and the op-amp has an open-loop gain of 1 million and a bandwidth of 1 MHz.

An operational amplifier (op-amp) is a versatile electronic device that has become an essential component of many electronic circuits. The op-amp can be used in many applications, including amplifiers, filters, and oscillators. When an op-amp is used as an amplifier, it can amplify a weak signal by a factor of 100+k. To design an op-amp circuit that can amplify a weak signal by at least 100+k times, you need to choose resistors that can provide the required gain.

One possible op-amp circuit that can be used to amplify a weak signal by at least 100+k times is a non-inverting amplifier. The non-inverting amplifier is a popular op-amp circuit that provides high input impedance and low output impedance. The gain of a non-inverting amplifier is determined by the ratio of the feedback resistor (Rf) to the input resistor (Ri). The gain of a non-inverting amplifier can be calculated using the following formula:

Gain = 1 + (Rf/Ri)

To obtain a gain of 100+k, you can choose Rf to be 100+k times larger than Ri. You can assume that the input signal has a voltage range of 0 to 5 volts. You can also assume that the op-amp has an open-loop gain of 1 million and a bandwidth of 1 MHz.
Assuming that the input resistor (Ri) is 10 kilo-ohms, the feedback resistor (Rf) should be:
Rf = (100+k) * Ri

Rf = (100+k) * 10 kilo-ohms

Rf = (100+k) * 10,000 ohms

Rf = (100+k) * 10 * 10^3 ohms

Rf = (100+k) * 100 kilo-ohms
Therefore, Rf should be 100+k times larger than Ri, which is 10 kilo-ohms. The value of Rf should be in the range of kilo-ohm to mega-ohm range.

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What alloying elements should you seek for stainless steel to have
a bar or plate with an austenitic phase, as well as explain the
reason or need for the phase.

Answers

To have a bar or plate with an austenitic phase, the stainless steel should contain the alloying elements such as nickel, chromium, and manganese.

What is Austenitic Phase?

The austenitic phase refers to the crystalline structure of the stainless steel that is present at room temperature. This type of structure is known for its high ductility, toughness, and corrosion resistance. Austenitic stainless steel is a type of stainless steel that contains high levels of nickel and chromium and low levels of carbon. This composition provides the steel with excellent corrosion resistance properties.Alloying elements for austenitic phase The following are the alloying elements for austenitic stainless steel:

Nitrogen: Nitrogen is used as an austenite stabilizer and also helps to increase corrosion resistance. Nitrogen enhances the mechanical properties of stainless steel. Chromium: Chromium is an important alloying element for austenitic stainless steel. Chromium provides excellent corrosion resistance and helps to prevent oxidation at high temperatures.Nickel: Nickel is a critical alloying element for austenitic stainless steel. The nickel provides excellent corrosion resistance, strength, and ductility to the steel. Manganese: Manganese is added to austenitic stainless steel to improve mechanical properties such as ductility, strength, and toughness. Manganese also helps to improve the weldability of stainless steel.

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Please name your file : Weekly Activity Group X, where X is your group no.
Please update the file every by Sunday midnight, with
group activity done
group member and his/her participation
issues/challenges/concerns
others

Answers

However, I can assist you in providing a template for your weekly activity report for your group. Please find the template below:

Weekly Activity: Group X

Group Activity:

- Briefly describe the activities accomplished by the group during the week.

Group Members and Participation:

- List the members of the group and their respective participation in the activities.

Issues/Challenges/Concerns:

- Mention any issues, challenges, or concerns faced by the group during the week.

Others:

- Include any additional information or noteworthy points related to the group's activities.

You can use this template as a starting point and update it each week by Sunday midnight with the relevant information for your group. Remember to save the file with the appropriate name, such as "Weekly Activity Group X" where X represents your group number.

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Rockwell is a type of hardness test for materials.
1. True
2. False
In tribology, a capstan test is a type of standard friction test.
1. True
2. False
Thermosetting polymers can be remelted and reformed.
1. True
2. False
Injection molding is best suited for high volume and / or geometrically complex parts.
1. True
2. False
Bending stress can result in a buckling failure.
1. True
2. False

Answers

True. Rockwell is a type of hardness test for materials that determines the hardness of metals and alloys.

It involves forcing an indenting tool of a specific shape into the material being tested, measuring the depth of the resulting indentation, and comparing that depth to standardized tables. Rockwell hardness testing is widely used in industry and is particularly useful for assessing materials that are too small to be tested using other methods. 2. False. A capstan test is not a type of standard friction test in tribology. A capstan test is a specific type of test used to measure the friction between two materials, one of which is wrapped around a rotating drum or cylinder, and the other of which is pulled against it by a capstan.

Capstan tests are often used to study the behavior of ropes, cables, and other flexible materials under tension.

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Based upon the delivered flow, calculate (a) the overall pump efficiency, (b) A poesaude Feffici; (c) the virtual outlet velocities V and v2; (d) virtual outlet angle a2; and (e) coefficient K. Adie syndrome involves damage to the autonomic nervous system, which is the portion of the nervous system that controls or regulates certain involuntary body functions including the reaction of the pupits to stimuli. The pupil does not respond to change in fight intensity. 2. Adie syndrome involves damage to the autonomic nervous system, which is the portion of the nervous system that controls or regulates certain involuntary body functions including the reaction of the pupils to stimuli. The pupil does not respond to change in light intensity. Explain what events normally happen to control the size of the pupil during an increase in light intensity. ( 4 marks) In your answer, include the pathway of light through the eye ( 1 mark) the pathway of the neural impulse to the brain (0.5 marks) the part of the brain and the division of the autonomic nervous system responsible for the change in size of the pupil ( 1 mark) the pathway back to the eye ( 0.5 marks) - the effect on the pupil Your answer: 3. In a person with Adie syndrome, what part of the nervous transmission is interrupted to prevent the constriction of the pupil when exposed to bright light? Explain your answer. 4. Consider the following test of what substances are necessary for muscle contraction. There are three solutions that will be provided. Based on your knowledge of muscle physiology, predict which sol question 3Think back to your most effective teaching session with aclient .To what do you attribute this success? Why? Develop an expression for design torque (maximum efficiency) forthe Pelton turbine in terms of wheel diameter and jetcharacteristics. Moist air initially at 101 kPa, 40C db, 20% relative humidity undergoes a sensible cooling process until the dry bulb temperature is 20C. For a moist air mass flow rate of 2.2 kg/s, what is the rate of heat removal for this process? Express your answer in kW. In your written solution, draw the process in the psychrometric chart, and show the initial and final state and the values obtained from the chart.