The action would the charge nurse take ask the manager to be present before confronting the staff nurse.
What does slurred speech signify?Alcohol or drug abuse, traumatic brain injury, stroke, and neuromuscular disorders are among the most common causes of speech disorders. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), cerebral palsy, muscular dystrophy, and Parkinson's disease are among the neuromuscular conditions that frequently result in slurred speech.
Medical issues brought on by chronic pain can cause inactivity, malnutrition, and a higher risk of falling. Thankfully, research suggests that the effects of chronic pain on the brain may be reversible with the right treatment.
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the compliance officer of apple internal medicine group explains to the board that the stark law is similar to which regulation listed below, but applies only to physician relationships with entities that bill medicare or medicaid? a. false claims act b. self-referral law c. anti-kickback statute d. exclusion law
The Stark law, also known as the Physician Self-Referral Law, prohibits doctors from referring patients to get "specified health services" provided by Medicare or Medicaid.
What exactly does a physician do?
A doctor of medical known as a physician typically focuses on non-surgical treatment of patients' illnesses. That's not to argue that becoming a doctor isn't useful; most specialties have a distinctive variety of procedures related to them.
Why is a doctor called a physician?
Because the term "physic" traditionally covered both the practice of medicine and natural science, medical professionals are referred to as physicians. Physics as it related to healing was phased out in favor of medicine as scientific sciences advanced.
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a nurse encourages residents of a long-term care facility to continue a similar pattern of behavior and activity that existed in their middle adulthood years to ensure healthy aging. this intervention is based on which aging theory?
Identity-continuity aging theory is the process of guaranteeing that mental attributes like self-awareness, sentience, sapience, and the capacity to understand how one's environment and self interact.
What does philosopher's continuity theory of personal identity entail?According to Locke, psychological continuity determines one's personal identity. He believed that the foundation of one's personal identity, or "self," was consciousness, namely recollection, rather than the substance of either the soul or the body.
What does it mean to have a constant psychological state?Experts in psychology claim that continuity in psychology refers to the capacity to proceed in the similar continually and endlessly. Gestalt Theory discusses perception and the development of continuous patterns as prerequisites for continuity in general.
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The identity-continuity ageing theory is the process of guaranteeing that mental attributes like self-awareness, sentience, sapience, and the capacity to understand how one's environment and self interact.
What does the philosopher's continuity theory of personal identity entail?
According to Locke, psychological continuity determines one's personal identity. He believed that the foundation of one's personal identity, or "self," was consciousness, namely recollection, rather than the substance of either the soul or the body.
What does it mean to have a constant psychological state?
Experts in psychology claim that continuity in psychology refers to the capacity to proceed in a similar continually and endlessly. Gestalt Theory discusses perception and the development of continuous patterns as prerequisites for continuity in general.
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the total bilirubin level of a 36-hour, breastfeeding newborn is 14 mg/dl. based on this finding, which intervention should the nurse implement?
On a baby who is 36 hours old, the nurse has gotten a total bilirubin laboratory report with a value of 14 mg/dl; the action that the nurse should do is to order phototherapy for the infant's pathological jaundice.
What does phototherapy serve as?
It may help treat skin conditions brought on by immune system reactions. Several skin conditions are treated using phototherapy, including the following: Psoriasis is a skin ailment that causes red, silvery, and scaly patches of skin. Itchy, red skin is a symptom of the allergic dermatitis known as eczema.
What organs are treated by phototherapy?
Despite the fact that injury to the gonads during phototherapy is unlikely due to the brief exposure time and the skin's protection of the subcutaneous tissue, in most cases.
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the nurse teaches the client with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies, including which action?
if you don't smoke, stop smoking or don't start. taking prescription drugs,
Which customer is most at risk for osteoporosis, according to the nurse?
Genetics. African American women are less prone to osteoporosis than small-framed, nonobese Caucasian women, Asian women of tiny build, and women with low peak bone mineral density.
What are the three best strategies to avoid osteoporosis?
How can your bones be safeguarded?
1.Consume a diet that is well-balanced and get adequate calcium and vitamin D.
2.Exercise on a regular basis.
3.Consume healthy foods for your bones, such as fruits and vegetables.
4. Avoid smoking, and have no more than two drinks of alcohol every day
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which care environment would the nurse suggest to a client with no family nearby who is diagnosed with end-stage lung disease?
Answer:
residential care
Explanation:
a pta monitors the vital signs of a patient during a graded exercise test. which finding serves as the best indicator that the patient exerted a maximal effort during the exercise test?
The patient's maximum effort during the exercise test was best demonstrated by a score of 186.
What level of exercise intensity is ideal?In a maximal exercise test, the workload is raised while the exercise intensity is maintained, enhancing the cardiopulmonary and metabolic response (heart rate, stroke volume, ventilation, oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production).
What happens to cardiac output when exercising to your maximum capacity?More blood is sent to the working skeletal muscles during exercise, and as body temperature rises, more blood is sent to the skin. This process is carried out by a combination of increased cardiac output and redistribution of blood flow away from low-demand regions like the splanchnic organs.
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which term refers to a health care's organization goal that is designed to identify the desired future of the organization
Outlining the concrete procedures required to achieve certain goals is a key component of strategic planning in the healthcare industry.
What is a healthcare organization trying to accomplish?Generally speaking, hospital aims revolve around enhancing patient care, care quality, staff retention and skill, hospital expansion, and finances.
What three things make up the core of a healthcare organization?Managing daily operations in a healthcare facility that have an impact on patient care and organizational objectives is referred to as operations management. Administrative, financial, and legal aspects of these procedures are often separated out into several categories.
What are sensible objectives for health care?A SMART target is one that is time-bound, specified, measurable, achievable, and relevant.
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an 11-year-old boy who has stepped on a rusty nail is given tetanus immune globulin in the emergency department. the nurse knows that the immune globulin injection will confer which type of immunity?
The nurse knows that the immune globulin injection will confer Temporary passive acquired immunity.
What is Temporary passive acquired immunity ?When a person receives antibodies to a disease rather than creating them through his or her own immune system, passive immunity is supplied. Through the placenta, a newborn child gains passive immunity from its mother.
Antibodies used in passive immunity are borrowed rather than created by the immune system of the individual. As a result, it endures as long as the blood is circulating with antibodies.
No fresh antibodies are produced once it vanishes. As a result, passive immunity is never permanent.
Passive immunity comes in two flavors: synthetic and natural. Through the injection of serum or plasma containing high antibody concentrations, artificial passive immunity can be created.
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the nurse is caring for a client with advanced cirrhosis who had a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (tips) performed 3 months ago. which assessments related to the client having a tips should the nurse prioritize? select all that apply.
A patient who received radioactive iodine for transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic should be treated for hypoprothrombinemia, exfoliative dermatitis, and agranulocytosis in that order (I-131).
Lack of the blood-clotting component prothrombin causes transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic, a condition that is characterized by a propensity for protracted bleeding. A vitamin K deficiency is frequently linked to hypoprothrombinemia because vitamin K is necessary for the liver cells to produce prothrombin.Erythroderma, sometimes referred to as generalized exfoliative dermatitis, is a severe skin surface irritation. This results from a medication reaction, an underlying skin problem, and occasionally cancer. In about 25% of cases, there is no known reason.When your body doesn't make enough white blood cells, it develops agranulocytosis (called neutrophils). White blood cells combat pathogenic microorganisms.
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which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient about inhaled glucocorticoids?
(fill in the blank) is a progressive degenerative disease found in individuals with a history of multiple concussions and other closed-head injuries
Chronic traumatic encephalopathy is a chronic degenerative condition that affects people who have had many concussions or other closed-head injuries.
Which are the three most frequent degenerative diseases?Degenerative disease is the consequence of a continual process based on degenerative cell changes that harm tissues or organs and worsen with time. Neurodegenerative illnesses cause central nervous system cells to stop functioning or to die. Alzheimer's disease is an example of a degenerative neurological illness. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Ataxia Friedreich. Almost all slowly advancing diseases are chronic conditions. Because of the cellular changes, many of these are also referred to as degenerative diseases. A chronic, non-progressive disease may be referred to as a static condition if it is not progressive. Degenerative nerve diseases can be devastating or even fatal. It is dependent on the type. The majority of them are incurable. Treatments may aid in the improvement of symptoms, pain relief, and mobility.
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while the nurse is caring for a primiparous client with cephalopelvic disproportion 4 hours after a cesarean birth, the client requests assistance in breastfeeding. to promote maximum maternal comfort, which position would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
To promote maximum maternal comfort, the following two positions would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest:
1. Side-lying: This position allows the mother to rest and relax while breastfeeding.
2. Football hold: This position is helpful in supporting the baby and keeping it in a more upright position.
What is Cephalopelvic disproportion?
Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is a condition that occurs when the size and shape of the baby's head and the mother's pelvis are mismatched, making vaginal delivery impossible without risking trauma to the baby. CPD can be caused by the baby's head being too large or the mother's pelvis being too small. It can also be caused by the baby's position during labor. This condition may require a cesarean section (C-section) to safely deliver the baby.
What is Cesarean section?
Cesarean section, also known as a C-section or cesarean delivery, is a surgical procedure in which a baby is delivered through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. This procedure is typically recommended when it is determined that a vaginal delivery would pose a risk to the mother or baby.
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sadie reports recent problems with constipation. all of the following strategies would be recommended to prevent or alleviate constipation, except
The strategy which would be recommended to prevent or alleviate constipation, except continue eating the white bread and pasta, which are also rich in fiber.
How to prevent constipation?Constipation occurs most commonly when the waste or stool moves too slowly through the digestive tract or cannot be eliminated effectively from the rectum, and thus may cause the stool to become hard and dry. This will lead to affect elimination of stool from body.
Constipation may occur by not eating enough fiber, such as fruit, vegetables and cereals in diet. A change in the daily routine, such as a change in eating habits or sleeping habits can also lead to constipation.
Drinking enough water, avoiding alcohol, increasing the fiber content in diet, and adding wheat bran, oats, and linseed in the diet can help in treatment and prevention of constipation.
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the nurse is teaching a postmenopausal client about strategies to prevent the development of osteoporosis. on which topic should the nurse focus as primary prevention for the disorder?
The nurse's focus as primary prevention for the disorder is increasing calcium and vitamin D in the diet.
Why should calcium and vitamin D intake be taken care of during post-menopause?
The major means of preventing osteoporosis is to maintain a healthy . Although oestrogen replacement therapy can lower the incidence of osteoporosis, it can also raise the risk of some malignancies, therefore it shouldn't be used as a primary preventative measure. Only if cardiovascular exercise includes weight-bearing activities, such walking or jogging, can it directly aid in the prevention of osteoporosis. Instead of preventing osteoporosis, a lower body mass index (weight under 125 pounds for women of average height) increases the risk of acquiring it.
Hence, the answer is increasing calcium and vitamin D in the diet.
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the icp measurement is 20. which of the physician orders should be classified according to the laboratory results?
Avoid straining while having a bowel movement because it raises ICP. To aid in this, laxatives may be administered and fluid intake encouraged.
Although it is urged to breathe deeply, the patient must refrain from coughing in the first few days following surgery since it puts pressure on the incision and raises the risk of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. Postnasal drip may be an indication of CSF leakage, so the client should contact the nurse if they have it rather than blowing their nose.
According to reports, healthy adult subjects' normal ICPs in the horizontal position fall between 7 and 15 mm Hg. It is negative in the vertical position, averaging around 10 mm Hg and not surpassing 15 mm Hg.
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a client who has undergone colostomy surgery is experiencing constipation. which intervention should a nurse consider for such a client?
Encourage a minimum daily fluid intake of 2 L.
How much water—2 liters—should you consume each day?Eight 8-ounce glasses, which equates to around 2 liters or half a gallon, are the typical daily recommendation from health experts.This is covered by the easy-to-remember 88 rule.Some experts assert that you should continuously drink water throughout the day even though you might not be thirsty.
What effects do 2 liters of water each day have?Did you realize that consuming two liters of water daily helps your body eliminate toxins, provides you energy, and relieves fatigue?Keeping hydrated can provide you a wonderful boost of energy and mental clarity throughout the day.It also aids in the balance-regain of your kidneys.
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the nurse is teaching a woman how to use her basal body temperature (bbt) pattern as a tool to assist her in conceiving a child. which temperature pattern indicates the occurrence of ovulation, and therefore, the best time for intercourse to ensure conception?
The optimal period for sexual activity for assure pregnancy is between when the temperature drops and increases, which signifies the occurrence of ovulation.
How many hours does ovulation last?While ovulation typically can last for twelve to 24 hours, the six days prior to and following ovulation are when you have the highest chance of becoming pregnant. Continue reading to find out more about what occurs throughout this period of the menstrual and the causes of possible ovulation delays.
How many days do you ovulate?Around 12 to 14 days prior to the commencement of a new menstruation, you ovulate. The five days prior to ovulation, along with the day during ovulation and the morning following ovulation, are considered your fertile window.
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an adolescent woke up complaining of intense pain and swelling of the scrotal area and abdominal pain. he has vomited twice. which would be the best suggestion by the nurse?
Body parts swell due to an injury or inflammation. A small area or the entire body could be impacted. Medication side effects, pregnancy, infections, and a variety of other medical issues can all cause edema.
What does extreme swelling mean?Edema can affect any area of your body, although it tends to manifest itself most visibly in the hands, arms, feet, ankles, and legs. Medication side effects, pregnancy, or an underlying condition can all cause edema.
When should swelling prompt you to seek emergency care?When to Get Swelling Care. If you experience abrupt, inexplicable swelling in just one leg or if it coexists with chest pain, breathing difficulties, bloody coughing, fever, or skin that is red and heated to the touch, you should seek emergency medical attention.
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the nurse is performing a newborn assessment. findings reveal a caput succedaneum. what should the nurse do?
Answer:
Reassure the family that it should resolve within the first few days of life.
Explanation:
ems brings a patient who fell while riding his bicycle. using the american college of surgeons screening guidelines, which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to prepare the patient for radiologic spine clearance?
The nurse would prep the patient to radiologic spine clearance if the patient had an odor of alcohol on their breath during assessment.
What is a radiology scan for?Diagnostics radiography's main goals include the detection and monitoring of illnesses, skeletal or soft tissue abnormalities, and injuries. A variety of methods are employed by radiographers, such as X-rays, which are used to look past tissue and examine bones, cavities, and foreign objects.
What are the five types of radiology?Regarding the images it collects, the tools it employs, and the conditions it aids radiologists in diagnosing, each modality is distinct. Read further about our five most popular imaging modalities, including X-ray, CT, MRI, ultrasonography, or PET.
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a multigravida client at 41-weeks gestation presents in the labor and delivery unit after a non-stress test indicated that the fetus is experiencing some difficulties in utero. which diagnostic test should the nurse prepare the client for additional information about fetal status?
The diagnostic test that the nurse should set up for the client in order to obtain further details on the fetal status is the biophysical profile (BPP).
What is fetus?The unborn child that develops from an animal embryo is known as a fetus or foetus. Following embryonic development is the fetal stage of development. Fetal development in humans starts in the ninth week following fertilization and lasts until birth. An infant or extremely young child is referred to as a "baby." a fetus is an unborn kid. one who is the youngest in a family or group.
In the initial weeks of pregnancy, your developing fetus had a number of name changes. From the time of conception until the eighth week of development, it is typically referred to as an embryo. It is referred to as a fetus after the eighth week till it is born.
What are the stages of fetus and its measurements?Prenatal development takes place in three primary stages. The fetal stage, that last for from the ninth week till birth, follows the embryonic stage, which lasts from third to a eighth week after conception. The first two weeks after conception were recognized as the germinal stage.
Biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur diaphysis length are the fetal biometric measurements that are most frequently taken (FL). Several different formulas can be employed with these biometric measures to estimate fetal weight (EFW)1.
Briefing:BPP analyzes five different factors to provide information about fetal risk surveillance: fetal breathing patterns, fetal movements, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal tone and heart rate. Since the client's pregnancy has extended past the anticipated confinement date, the main concern is the fetal well-being associated with an aged placenta rather than fetal anomaly screening.
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an (fill in the blank) infection that occurs when a microbe breaks loose from a localized infection and is carried by the circulation to another tissue is
A Focal infection develops when a microbe escapes from a localized infection and travels to another tissue via the circulation.
What exactly is tissue mechanics?Cells define and shape their surroundings, and in turn, they receive biochemical and physical cues from them. Tissue regeneration involves cell recruitment, growth, proliferation, and differentiation, with the latter being a critical stage for regeneration success, avoiding the creation of fibrous tissue typical of repair [9-12]. Tissue is a collection of cells with similar structures that work together as a unit. The intercellular matrix is a nonliving substance that fills the spaces between the cells. This may be plentiful in some tissues while being scarce in others. The body's tissue is made up of cells. The cells share the same origin and appearance. They carry out a specific function in the body.
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what are some strategies that caregivers may use to reduce the development of dental caries and other related dental problems during childhood?
Gum disease can be avoided with a diet high in vitamins, minerals, and fresh produce. Gum disease can cause foul breath and tooth loss.
What methods may parents employ to prevent dental caries and other related dental issues from developing in children?They use fluoride toothpaste to brush their teeth twice daily. Until they have good brushing techniques, assist your youngster while they wash their teeth. If your child is under six, observe them brushing. They should only use a pea-sized amount of toothpaste, and they should never swallow it.
What dietary changes can prevent dental caries?Good examples are combining dairy foods with sugary foods, uncooked foods with cooked meals, and foods high in protein with foods that are acidifying. * Eat cariostatic items like xylitol chewing gum after eating and drinking. * Drink water as often as possible to quench thirst and stay hydrated.
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the staff educator is orientating a nurse new to the neurological icu when a patient with a t2 spinal cord injury is admitted. the patient is soon exhibiting manifestations of neurogenic shock. what sign or symptom is consistent with this diagnosis?
Hypotension is the sign or symptom is consistent with this diagnosis spinal cord injury.
Neurogenic shock is a potentially serious disorder that requires immediate attention. Low blood pressure, which results from the body's reduced blood flow, is one sign of neurogenic shock (hypotension). Blood pressure will decline as neurogenic shock develops.
Hypotension, bradyarrhythmia, and temperature dysregulation are all symptoms of peripheral vasodilatation after spinal cord injury. This leads to autonomic instability because the sympathetic tone suddenly drops while the parasympathetic system continues to operate normally. Neurogenic shock is a potentially serious disorder that requires immediate attention. Low blood pressure, which results from the body's reduced blood flow, is one sign of neurogenic shock (hypotension).
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what should the nurse teach a client who is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis b infection about treatment?
Answer:
"The treatment is effective if your liver enzymes return to normal."
Explanation:
a nursing home patient needed to have a nasogastric (ng) tube placed in order to receive her feedings. the tube is inserted into the nasal cavity through nares and is advanced along the inferior meatus. what is the course the tube will take in order to get into the stomach?
NG tube travels from one of the nares, through the nasal mucosa, pharynx, esophagus, cardiac sphincter and into the stomach
What is nasogastric (ng) tube ?The medical procedure known as nasogastric intubation involves inserting a plastic tube through the nose, into the oesophagus, and then into the stomach. Similar procedures include orogastric intubation, which involves inserting a plastic tube through the mouth.
An NG tube is lubricated to make sliding through it easier. Following that, it is inserted through the nose, into the stomach through the oesophagus and throat. The oesophagus joins the stomach to the throat. To assist the tube in going down and into the proper place, the patient is asked to swallow, if they are able to.
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a multidisciplinary oncology team of health care providers, nurses, and the social worker notes that a client who has been undergoing chemotherapy is now experiencing pancytopenia. when reviewing the laboratory data, which values support this diagnosis? select all that apply.
Decreased RBC, decreased White Blood Cell, decreased platelets. values support this diagnosis
What is Chemotherapy?
It employs drugs. These medications inhibit the growth of cancer cells or kill them. However, some healthy cells that support the growth of hair or the lining of the lips are also destroyed. As a result, it has adverse effects, however they disappear once chemotherapy is finished. When chemotherapy completely eliminates cancer cells, they are unable to divide and therefore cannot grow.
Chemotherapy is used to reduce tumor size or stop the growth and spread of cancer. Tumors can be reduced in size and cancer can stop spreading with chemotherapy.
Chemotherapy may also be used to lessen the size of a tumor that is causing discomfort or pressure. Tumors are reduced in size by chemotherapy, which also lessens pressure and pain.
Chemotherapy does not serve as a substitute for drug-based treatments. Additionally, surgery is necessary to remove cancers, not this.
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a client is admitted to the hospital with ascites. the client reports drinking a fifth (750 ml) of vodka mixed in orange juice every day for the past 3 months. to assess the potential for withdrawal symptoms, which question is important for the nurse to ask the client?
Answer:
Terms in this set (11)
A client is admitted with the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which clinical manifestations would the nurse assess in the client? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
1
the nurse is caring for a client with an autoimmune disease. what is a characteristic of autoimmune disorders?
In addition, autoimmune diseases have a lot in common with one another in terms of how they start and develop. Additionally, genetic features that overlap make people more susceptible.
What information about treating allergic rhinitis will the nurse provide to the patient?By blowing the nose first and then providing the medication, you can instruct the patient and their parents on how to use nasal sprays. Encourage comprehensive housecleaning. Encourage routine cleaning of the furniture, appliances, and surfaces in the house that could collect dust and other pollens.
Which of the following characteristics best describes the signs and symptoms of myasthenia gravis?Myasthenia gravis has no known cure, but treatment can ease its indications and symptoms, such as weakening in the arm or leg muscles, double vision, drooping eyelids, and problems with balance.
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the nurse is caring for the client with hepatocellular carcinoma. what does the nurse recognize is a cause of this disease?
Answer:
Illness with hepatitis B or C
Explanation: