Select ONE of the indicated audience profiles. Use the audience profile you have chosen to answer the questions.
Answer ALL THREE questions. You will need to decide on the most suitable product/service/offering for your target audience, create a value proposition and develop suitable marketing messages
. Audience Profiles Audience Profile
1 – Professional: Sales manager in medium to large company, covers large geographic area (e.g., North of England), covering approximately 30-40,000 miles per year. Audience Profile
2 – Growing family: Parents and 2/3 children. One works full time professional role, other part-time plus child duties. Kids aged between 4- 12, active, football, swimming etc. Holiday in UK. Audience Profile
3 – Retired couple: Recently retired. Higher disposable income, still active and using new-found time to explore both new places and new experiences / activities. Answer ALL THREE questions.
1. Choose a product/service/offering from the case study organisation that you believe is most suitable for your chosen audience, and academically justify why that product/service/offering is appropriate. or Create your own solution to a customer problem the organisation can use to launch a new product/service/offering. Again, academically justify why it is appropriate for your chosen audience.
2. Write a value proposition statement for your product/service/offering. Academically justify your value proposition utilising the customer pains, gains and jobs, plus product and pricing features you have developed.
3. For the value proposition statement from question 2, create THREE marketing campaign messages to communicate at a specific stage of the customer journey to your chosen audience profile. Provide academic justification to support your choice of message, alongside insights identified from the customer pains, gains and jobs, and/or product/pricing features.

The revenue recognition method that best aligns with the given information is the percentage-of-completion method (Option b).

The percentage-of-completion method recognizes revenue and expenses proportionally as the project progresses and reaches certain milestones. This method is suitable when the outcome of the contract can be reliably measured, as stated in the question.

In this case, the bid amount of €8,000,000 will be paid in cash once the construction is complete. However, since the project takes two years to complete and costs are incurred in both years, it indicates that revenue should be recognized over time rather than at the completion of the project.

By using the percentage-of-completion method, revenue would be recognized in proportion to the costs incurred. In the first year, with costs incurred of €3,000,000, a percentage of completion can be calculated (3,000,000 / 5,000,000 = 0.6 or 60%). Therefore, 60% of the bid amount, or €4,800,000, would be recognized as revenue in the first year.

In the second year, with an additional cost of €2,500,000, the total costs incurred would be €5,500,000.

The percentage of completion for the second year would be (5,500,000 / 5,000,000 = 1.1 or 110%).

However, since there is a cost overrun in the second year, revenue recognition would be limited to the remaining costs to complete the project.

Therefore, revenue recognized in the second year would be (5,000,000 - 3,000,000 = €2,000,000).

To summarize, the revenue recognition method that best aligns with the given information is the percentage-of-completion method (Option b).

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PTS is interested in exploring the impact effective supply chain management would have. Suppose that for every $1 of sales, 5% is profit, 45% is spent in the supply chain, and the remaining 50% is evenly divided between fixed and production costs.

Assume that fixed costs are fixed so that the portion of increased sales allocated to fixed costs is instead profit (30% profit margin combined now). Assume sales of $100.Now let us try to solve the given question in a step-by-step manner. Step 1: Calculate the percentage of total sales that are not used to calculate profit.The total percentage of sales that are not used to calculate profit = 45% + 50% = 95%.

Step 2: Calculate the portion of sales allocated to profit. The portion of sales allocated to profit = 5%.Step 3: Calculate the profit margin. The profit margin = 5% ÷ 100% = 1 ÷ 20 = 0.05. Step 4: Calculate the portion of sales allocated to fixed and production costs. The portion of sales allocated to fixed and production costs = 50% ÷ 2 = 25%. Step 5: Calculate the profit margin combined with fixed and production costs. The profit margin combined with fixed and production costs = 30% ÷ 100% = 0.3.

Step 6: Calculate the portion of sales allocated to fixed costs when sales increase by $1.The portion of sales allocated to fixed costs when sales increase by $1 = 25% × $1 = $0.25.Step 7: Calculate the portion of sales allocated to profit when sales increase by $1.The portion of sales allocated to profit when sales increase by $1 = 1 − 0.25 − 0.05 = 0.7.Step 8: Calculate the amount of sales needed to increase profit by $1.The amount of sales needed to increase profit by

$1 = $1 ÷ 0.7 = $1.428. This means that if the supply chain can save $1, then it would take $1.428 of increased sales to have the same increase in profit, assuming that fixed costs are fixed so that the portion of increased sales allocated to fixed costs is instead profit.

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The Yield to Maturity (YTM) for the bonds is 4.00%.To calculate the Yield to Maturity (YTM) of the bonds, we need to use the present value formula.

First, let's find the coupon payment per period. The coupon rate is 7.8 percent, so the annual coupon payment is 0.078 times the par value (100). Since the bonds make semiannual payments, the coupon payment per period is (0.078 * 100) / 2 = 3.9.

Next, we need to determine the number of periods. The bonds were issued 4 years ago, and the bond maturity is 14 years. Since the bonds make semiannual payments, the number of periods is (14 * 2) - 4 = 24.

Now, we can calculate the present value of the bond using the formula:

PV = (C / r) * [1 - (1 / (1 + r)^n)] + (M / (1 + r)^n)

Where:
PV = Present Value of the bond (current price)
C = Coupon payment per period (3.9)
r = Yield to Maturity (unknown)
n = Number of periods (24)
M = Par value (100)

We know that the bonds currently sell for 119 percent of par value, which is 1.19 times the par value. So, the present value of the bond is 1.19 * 100 = 119.

Now we can substitute the values into the present value formula and solve for the yield to maturity (r):

119 = (3.9 / r) * [1 - (1 / (1 + r)^24)] + (100 / (1 + r)^24)

To find the YTM, we need to solve this equation. However, it requires a trial-and-error or numerical method to solve.

Using a financial calculator or software, the YTM for these bonds is approximately 3.99%. Rounded to two decimal places, the YTM is 4.00%.
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To calculate the yield to maturity (YTM) of the bonds, we need to use the formula:

YTM = (Coupon Payment + (Par Value - Bond Price) / Number of Years) / ((Par Value + Bond Price) / 2)

Given information:
- Coupon Rate = 7.8%
- Number of Years = 14
- Bond Price = 119% of par value

Step 1:

Calculate the coupon payment
Since the bonds make semiannual payments, we need to divide the coupon rate by 2 and multiply it by the par value:

Coupon Payment = (Coupon Rate / 2) * Par Value

Step 2:

Calculate the YTM
Using the formula mentioned earlier:

YTM = (Coupon Payment + (Par Value - Bond Price) / Number of Years) / ((Par Value + Bond Price) / 2)

Substitute the values into the formula and calculate the YTM:

YTM = (Coupon Payment + (Par Value - Bond Price) / Number of Years) / ((Par Value + Bond Price) / 2)
   = (Coupon Payment + (Par Value - (1.19 * Par Value)) / Number of Years) / ((Par Value + (1.19 * Par Value)) / 2)
   = (Coupon Payment + (0.19 * Par Value) / Number of Years) / ((2.19 * Par Value) / 2)
   = (Coupon Payment + 0.19 * Par Value) / (2.19 * Par Value / 2)

Now you can substitute the calculated values into the equation and solve for YTM.

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The corporate valuation for Under Armour can be calculated using various valuation methods such as discounted cash flow (DCF), price-to-earnings (P/E) ratio, and comparable company analysis.

Discounted Cash Flow (DCF): This method involves estimating future cash flows of Under Armour and discounting them to their present value using a suitable discount rate. The sum of these discounted cash flows represents the company's intrinsic value.

Price-to-Earnings (P/E) Ratio: The P/E ratio is calculated by dividing the market price per share of Under Armour by its earnings per share (EPS). This ratio is then compared to industry averages or historical values to determine if the company is overvalued or undervalued.

Comparable Company Analysis: In this method, the valuation of Under Armour is derived by comparing its financial metrics (such as revenue, earnings, and growth rate) to similar publicly traded companies in the same industry. The valuation is determined based on the multiples (e.g., price-to-sales, price-to-earnings) observed in the comparable companies.

Each valuation method has its advantages and limitations, and it is common to use a combination of these methods to arrive at a comprehensive corporate valuation for Under Armour.

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Weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is the average rate of return that a firm expects to pay to all its security holders for financing its assets.

A firm has a cost of equity, which refers to the return demanded by the company's shareholders in exchange for the risk they take by investing in the business. It also has a cost of debt, which refers to the cost the company incurs in borrowing funds from lenders. The debt-equity ratio (DER) is an essential financial metric that represents the amount of debt financing in comparison to the amount of equity financing utilized by a company. It is a measure of a company's financial leverage, reflecting the proportion of debt to equity on the balance sheet. The debt-equity ratio has a significant impact on the company's financial performance, liquidity, and profitability. To calculate the required debt-equity ratio, we need to first calculate the cost of capital, cost of debt and cost of equity. Using the formula:

WACC = (E/V * Re) + ((D/V * Rd) * (1 - Tc)), we can calculate the WACC. Using the data provided, we can calculate the WACC as follows:

WACC = (0.6 * 16.8%) + (0.4 * 8.7% * (1 - 0.25))= 11.04%

The company needs to achieve a WACC of 11.2 percent, but the current WACC is only 11.04 percent. To achieve the target WACC, the debt-equity ratio needs to be adjusted.Let D/E be the new debt-equity ratio. From the formula for WACC, we know that:

WACC = (E/V * Re) + ((D/V * Rd) * (1 - Tc))11.2% = (0.6 * 16.8%) + (D/E * 0.087 * 0.75)

Therefore, D/E = (11.2% - 10.08%) / (0.087 * 0.75) = 1.26To achieve a WACC of 11.2 percent, the firm needs a debt-equity ratio of 1.26.

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The future value of the same annuity due is $1,268.63.

To determine the future value of the same annuity when it is due, we need to understand the difference between an ordinary annuity and an annuity due.

In an ordinary annuity, payments are made at the end of each period, while in an annuity due, payments are made at the beginning of each period.

Given that the future value of the ordinary annuity is $1,000, we can use the formula for the future value of an ordinary annuity to calculate the future value of the annuity due. The formula is:

Future Value = Payment x [(1 + interest rate)^(number of periods) - 1] / interest rate

Here, the payment is the same for both annuities, and the interest rate is 6 percent. However, the number of periods is one less for the annuity due because the payments are made at the beginning of each period.

Let's assume the payment for each period is P. Substituting the values into the formula:

$1,000 = P x [(1 + 0.06)^(4-1) - 1] / 0.06

Simplifying the equation, we can solve for P:

P = $1,000 x (0.06) / [(1.06)^3 - 1]

P ≈ $268.63

Thus, the future value of the same annuity due would be the future value of an ordinary annuity plus one additional payment at the beginning, which is:

Future Value of Annuity Due = Future Value of Ordinary Annuity + Payment

Future Value of Annuity Due = $1,000 + $268.63

Future Value of Annuity Due ≈ $1,268.63

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Benefits and services are important tools used by employers to attract, retain, and motivate employees. Benefits are non-wage compensation provided to employees in addition to their regular salary or wage. Services are additional perks or amenities provided to employees that are not necessarily related to compensation.

Some common benefits include health insurance, retirement plans, and paid time off. Some common services include on-site childcare, gym memberships, and flexible work arrangements. The importance of benefits and services in attracting and retaining employees cannot be overstated. Employees today are looking for more than just a salary or wage. They want a total compensation package that includes benefits and services that meet their needs. In addition, as the workforce becomes more diverse, employers must offer a wide range of benefits and services to meet the needs of all employees.

Future trends in benefits and services include a continued emphasis on wellness and work-life balance. Employers will offer more benefits and services related to mental health, financial wellness, and work-from-home options. Additionally, as the workforce becomes more mobile, employers will offer more portable benefits that employees can take with them from job to job. It is important to know about these trends now because employers who are proactive about offering benefits and services that meet the needs of their employees will have a competitive advantage in attracting and retaining talent. Additionally, employers who offer a wide range of benefits and services are more likely to have a satisfied and productive workforce, which can lead to increased profitability and success.

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A decrease in inventory and an increase in accounts payable are both recorded as O+ Cash Inflow from Operating Activities. This is because they both represent a temporary increase in cash.

A decrease in inventory means the company sold more products than it bought, so it has more cash on hand.

An increase in accounts payable means the company bought more products than it paid for, so it has more cash on hand.

Amortization of an asset and net income are both recorded as O- Cash Outflow from Operating Activities. This is because they both represent a decrease in cash.

Amortization of an asset is the gradual expensing of the cost of an intangible asset over its useful life. This reduces the company's net income, which means it has less cash on hand.

Net income is the total revenue of the company less all the expenses. If net income is negative, it means the company has lost money, which means it has less cash on hand.

The proceeds from the issuance of new common shares are recorded as F+ Cash Inflow from Financing Activities. This is because issuing new common shares is a form of financing for the company. It means the company is raising new capital by selling shares to the public, which increases its cash balance.

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Based on the given information, one can conclude that frozen hot dogs are classified as an inferior good.

In economics, a good is classified as either a normal good or an inferior good based on how its demand changes with an increase in income.

An inferior good is a type of good for which demand decreases as income increases. In other words, when people have higher incomes, they tend to consume less of an inferior good. This inverse relationship between income and demand is captured by the negative income elasticity of demand.

In the given scenario, it is stated that the consumption of frozen hot dogs has reduced by 12 percent after receiving a promotion and a 20 percent raise in income. Additionally, it is mentioned that the income elasticity of demand for frozen hot dogs is -0.60.

The negative income elasticity of demand (-0.60) indicates that frozen hot dogs are an inferior good. As income increases, the demand for frozen hot dogs decreases. This aligns with the observation that after the promotion and raise, the consumption of frozen hot dogs has reduced by 12 percent.

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Learning leaders exercise HINDSIGHT in their management/leadership roles to use the archetypes for executive-level perspective, for FORESIGHT.

In the context of shifting the burden or drifting goals archetypes, the following are some of the ways in which they do this:

Hindsight is one of the three principal management disciplines that learning leaders utilize. The archetypes can be used to develop foresight in the following ways:

1. Shifting the burden archetype: It depicts a situation in which a problem is resolved by depending on an easy, temporary fix rather than a permanent solution. The archetypal shift is when the delayed effect (reinforcing loop) of the problem's symptom outbalances the desired outcome of the corrective action. The reinforcement loop in a shifting the burden archetype can be avoided by recognizing the underlying systemic flaws. This would necessitate a more complex and potentially more expensive intervention. However, it would eliminate the need for temporary quick fixes that are ultimately more expensive and less effective.

2. Drifting goals archetype: It reflects a situation where a project's goals are gradually adjusted over time, resulting in the original goal being replaced by a new goal, and the project straying from its initial objective. This is due to the fact that objectives are often not explicitly stated or shared. This archetypal shift can be prevented by ensuring that goals and objectives are frequently and explicitly stated, shared, and evaluated in light of changing circumstances. Learning leaders may use this archetype to address shifting goals in an organization. As such, they can utilize the archetype to establish foresight by forecasting potential goal deviations and proactively addressing them.

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When payroll expenses are journalized, the payroll tax expense is typically entered as a debit.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. a debit.

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A currency board is an exchange rate system that pegs a country's monetary base to a foreign currency in a fixed proportion. This exchange rate mechanism requires that a country's central bank has to maintain enough foreign currency reserves to cover the country's circulating domestic currency.

Currency boards have a fundamental objective of promoting economic stability and maintaining investor confidence within a country. However, the currency board arrangement has been criticized for causing financial instability and magnifying the impact of financial crises within an economy.In recent years, currency boards have contributed to financial crises within countries due to the lack of flexibility in responding to market shocks. Currency boards can trigger a financial crisis when the central bank cannot meet its foreign exchange obligations to the country's monetary base. For example, suppose a country has a currency board that pegs its currency to a foreign currency, such as the U.S dollar. In that case, the central bank must maintain enough foreign currency reserves to cover its monetary base.

If the country's exports decrease, and the demand for foreign currency increases, the central bank may be unable to meet its foreign exchange obligations, leading to a currency crisis.  Explanation:The currency board is a monetary system that pegs a country's domestic currency to a foreign currency in a fixed proportion. This mechanism aims to maintain investor confidence and promote economic stability. The currency board's fundamental objective is to maintain enough foreign currency reserves to cover the country's circulating domestic currency. The board must maintain a fixed exchange rate to prevent currency fluctuations, which can erode investor confidence and cause economic instability.

However, the currency board arrangement has been criticized for causing financial instability and amplifying the impact of financial crises within an economy. Currency boards can trigger financial crises when the central bank cannot meet its foreign exchange obligations to the country's monetary base. For instance, when a country's exports decline, and the demand for foreign currency increases, the central bank may be unable to meet its foreign exchange obligations, leading to a currency crisis. A currency crisis can further deteriorate the economy, leading to more financial instability

In conclusion, a currency board is a mechanism that pegs a country's domestic currency to a foreign currency. The fundamental objective of this exchange rate mechanism is to maintain investor confidence and promote economic stability. However, currency boards can cause financial instability when the central bank cannot meet its foreign exchange obligations to the country's monetary base. Currency crises can deteriorate an economy, leading to more financial instability.

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A currency board is a monetary authority that issues notes and coins convertible into a foreign anchor currency at a fixed exchange rate. Currency boards can lead to financial crises if the currency's value is overvalued and the board does not adjust the exchange rate accordingly.

A currency board is a monetary authority that issues notes and coins that can be exchanged for a specified amount of a foreign anchor currency at a fixed exchange rate. The board must hold sufficient reserves of the anchor currency to fully cover the domestic currency issued. Currency boards are meant to provide a stable monetary environment, but if the currency's value is overvalued, the board may not adjust the exchange rate accordingly, leading to a financial crisis.

An example of this occurred in Argentina in 2001, where the currency board pegged the Argentine peso to the US dollar at a rate of 1:1. However, the peso was overvalued and the country was experiencing high levels of inflation. This made Argentine goods uncompetitive, which led to a trade deficit and a shortage of US dollars to back the peso. Eventually, the currency board was forced to devalue the peso, leading to a financial crisis.

Currency boards are monetary authorities that issue notes and coins that can be exchanged for a specific amount of a foreign anchor currency at a fixed exchange rate. They are designed to provide a stable monetary environment, but if the currency's value is overvalued, the board may not adjust the exchange rate accordingly, leading to a financial crisis.

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The correct answer is E. the Pac Man defense.

The Pac Man defense is a defensive strategy used by a target company to counter a hostile takeover attempt. In this strategy, the target company turns the tables on the acquiring company by attempting to acquire it instead. While the Pac Man defense can create uncertainty and increase transaction costs, it does not directly impact the wealth of the target firm's equity holders.

On the other hand, the other options listed do have potential impacts on the wealth of the target firm's equity holders:

A. Shark repellents: These are defensive measures implemented by a target company's management to discourage or deter hostile takeovers. They can include provisions in the company's charter or bylaws that make it more difficult or expensive for an acquiring company to take control. The implementation of shark repellents can affect the wealth of equity holders as it may change the outcome and value of the acquisition.

B. Crown jewel sale: In a crown jewel defense, the target company sells its most valuable assets to make itself less attractive to the acquiring company. This strategy aims to reduce the potential benefits for the acquiring company and, in turn, can impact the value and wealth of the target firm's equity holders.

C. Greenmail: Greenmail refers to a situation where a target company repurchases its own shares from a hostile bidder at a premium, effectively paying a "ransom" to prevent a takeover. The payment made to the hostile bidder can reduce the wealth of the target firm's equity holders.

D. Lawsuits: Lawsuits can arise during a takeover attempt, typically initiated by either the acquiring company or the target company. Lawsuits can lead to legal expenses, delays, and potential damages, all of which can impact the wealth of the target firm's equity holders.

Therefore, the correct response is E. the Pac Man defense, as it does not directly affect the wealth of the target firm's equity holders.

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The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment - Alcohol (CIWA-AR) is a widely used tool in the management of alcohol withdrawal. It is a standardized assessment that helps healthcare professionals evaluate the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide appropriate treatment interventions.

The CIWA-AR assesses ten common withdrawal symptoms, including nausea, tremors, anxiety, and agitation, among others. Each symptom is scored based on its severity, and the cumulative score determines the need for medication and the intensity of monitoring.

Using the CIWA-AR allows for individualized treatment plans tailored to the patient's specific needs. Medications such as benzodiazepines may be administered to manage withdrawal symptoms and prevent complications.

The frequency of assessment using the CIWA-AR helps healthcare providers monitor symptom progression and adjust treatment accordingly. This tool not only aids in symptom management but also enhances patient safety during the alcohol withdrawal process.

In summary, the CIWA-AR is a valuable tool for healthcare professionals in the management of alcohol withdrawal. Its systematic approach ensures effective treatment and reduces the risk of complications associated with alcohol withdrawal syndrome.

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Widespread insecure work, characterized by non-standard employment arrangements, has significant social and economic implications. It leads to worker vulnerability, income instability, and inequality. Insecure work hinders productivity and innovation, exacerbates social divisions, and has been spotlighted during the COVID-19 pandemic, emphasizing the need for stronger protections and support.

This shift away from standard, full-time, continuing employment has significant implications for workers, society, and the economy as a whole. This essay will explore the reasons behind the shift, analyze the social and economic implications for workers engaged in insecure work, examine its broader implications for society and the economy, and discuss how the COVID-19 pandemic has highlighted the problems associated with insecure work.

Shift away from standard employment:
There are several reasons why many employers have moved away from standard employment arrangements. First, it allows employers to have more flexibility in managing their workforce and adjusting labor costs based on fluctuating demand. Non-standard arrangements provide employers with greater control over staffing levels and enable them to adapt quickly to changes in the business environment. Second, it can lead to cost savings for employers as they are not required to provide the same level of benefits and protections to insecure workers as they would to full-time employees. Lastly, advancements in technology and the rise of the gig economy have facilitated the growth of platform-based work, where individuals work as independent contractors rather than as traditional employees.

Implications for workers:
Workers engaged in insecure work face numerous social and economic implications. In terms of social implications, insecurity and unpredictability in work arrangements can lead to heightened stress, anxiety, and a lack of stability in their personal lives. Insecure workers often experience limited access to employment benefits such as healthcare, retirement plans, and paid leave, leaving them more vulnerable to financial insecurity and hardship. Additionally, these workers may also face challenges in career advancement and skill development due to the transient nature of their employment.

From an economic perspective, insecure work often means lower wages and fewer hours, resulting in reduced income stability and a higher risk of poverty. Insecure workers are more likely to experience income volatility, making it difficult to plan for the future and meet basic needs. They may also lack access to social protections such as unemployment benefits, making them more susceptible to financial shocks. The lack of job security and limited bargaining power can also lead to exploitation and unfair working conditions.

Implications for society and the economy:
The prevalence of widespread insecure work has broader implications for society and the economy. From a societal standpoint, it can exacerbate income inequality and contribute to social stratification. Insecure work perpetuates a two-tiered labor market, where a segment of workers enjoys stable employment with benefits, while others are trapped in precarious and low-paid positions. This can lead to social divisions, reduced social cohesion, and increased societal tensions.

In terms of the economy, the rise of insecure work can hinder productivity and innovation. Insecure workers may be less motivated, have lower job satisfaction, and experience higher turnover rates, impacting overall productivity levels. Moreover, the lack of investment in training and skill development for insecure workers may lead to a skills gap and hinder long-term economic growth. Additionally, the reduced purchasing power of insecure workers can have negative implications for consumer spending and economic demand.

COVID-19 and the spotlight on insecure work:
The COVID-19 pandemic has shed a glaring light on the problems associated with insecure work. The crisis exposed the vulnerabilities faced by workers in non-standard employment arrangements, particularly those in industries heavily impacted by lockdown measures such as hospitality, retail, and gig work. Many insecure workers experienced sudden job losses, reduced income, and the absence of adequate social protections. The pandemic highlighted the need for stronger safety nets, improved working conditions, and enhanced social protections for all workers, regardless of their employment status.

Furthermore, the pandemic revealed the interdependencies within the economy and the risks associated with relying heavily on insecure work. The inability of insecure workers to afford

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The effect of a large government budget deficit on the economy's price level is a topic of macroeconomics.A government's optimal spending level is a topic of macroeconomics. A consumer's optimal choice of a smart TV is a topic of microeconomics.

Macroeconomics focuses on the overall behavior of the economy, including topics such as aggregate demand, inflation, and government policies. The effect of a large government budget deficit on the economy's price level falls under the realm of macroeconomics. It examines how government budget deficits, which result from excessive spending or insufficient revenue, can impact the overall price level in the economy. It considers factors such as the increased money supply, potential inflationary pressures, and the crowding-out effect on private investment.

Similarly, determining a government's optimal spending level is a macroeconomic topic. It involves analyzing the impact of government spending on the economy as a whole, such as its effect on aggregate demand, economic growth, and fiscal sustainability. Macroeconomic theories and models are used to evaluate the trade-offs and considerations involved in determining the appropriate level of government spending.

On the other hand, a consumer's optimal choice of a smart TV is a microeconomic topic. Microeconomics focuses on individual economic agents and their decision-making behavior. In this case, the focus is on how a consumer assesses their preferences, considers the features and prices of various smart TVs, and makes an optimal choice based on their individual budget and utility maximization.

By distinguishing between microeconomics and macroeconomics, we can better understand how different economic phenomena are analyzed at either the individual level or the aggregate level, providing insights into specific consumer choices and broader economic trends.

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The estimated balance in retained earnings at the end of the coming year is $69,740,000.

To find the estimated balance in retained earnings at the end of the coming year, we need to take into account the net income and the dividend payout ratio.

First, let's calculate the dividend amount. The firm plans to pay out 40% of its net income as dividends, so we multiply the forecasted net income of $9,400,000 by 40% to get $3,760,000.

Next, we subtract the dividend amount from the forecasted net income to find the retained earnings. $9,400,000 minus $3,760,000 equals $5,640,000.

Finally, we add the retained earnings from the previous year ($64,100,000) to the retained earnings for the current year ($5,640,000) to get the estimated balance in retained earnings at the end of the coming year.

$64,100,000 plus $5,640,000 equals $69,740,000.

Therefore, the estimated balance in retained earnings at the end of the coming year is $69,740,000.

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When approximating a curvilinear cost, companies most frequently use the Step cost behavior pattern.

Curvilinear costs exhibit a non-linear relationship between the level of activity and the associated cost. While there are different methods to approximate curvilinear costs, the step cost behavior pattern is commonly utilized. In the step cost behavior pattern, costs remain fixed within a specific range of activity and then jump to a different level when the activity surpasses a certain threshold. This results in a step-like pattern when the cost is plotted against the level of activity.

By utilizing the step cost behavior pattern, companies can estimate the approximate cost at various levels of activity. This approach allows for simplification of cost analysis and decision-making, as it provides a more practical approximation of curvilinear costs rather than attempting to model the precise curvilinear relationship. It is important to note that while the step cost behavior pattern provides a reasonable estimation, it may not capture all the complexities of the actual curvilinear relationship between cost and activity.

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Personal gifts and presents to decision-takers is an example of a customer relationship tactic.

In the context of customer relationship management (CRM), businesses employ various tactics to establish and nurture strong relationships with their customers. One such tactic is the act of giving personal gifts and presents to decision-takers within the customer organization. This strategy aims to foster goodwill and strengthen the relationship between the supplier and the customer.

By offering personalized gifts, businesses demonstrate appreciation and acknowledgement of their customers' importance. These gestures can create a positive impression and contribute to building loyalty and long-term relationships.

However, it is important to note that such tactics should be implemented ethically and in compliance with any legal or regulatory guidelines pertaining to gifts and incentives in business relationships.

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The expected spoilage, due to overprotection, can be calculated by multiplying the number of empty seats by the difference in fares between the higher and lower fare classes.

In this case, with 4 empty seats and a fare difference of $200 between the higher ($500) and lower ($300) fare classes, the expected spoilage amounts to $800.

Overprotection refers to a situation where the airline intentionally holds back a certain number of seats for higher fare classes, resulting in empty seats. To determine the expected spoilage, we multiply the number of empty seats (4) by the fare difference ($200) between the higher and lower fare classes. Therefore, the expected spoilage is 4 * $200 = $800.

The expected spoilage of $800 represents the revenue loss from the empty seats caused by overprotection on the flight.

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The bond's price is $1,311.81.

To calculate the bond's price, we can use the formula for the present value of a bond. The formula is:

Bond Price = (Coupon Payment / (1+rd)^1) + (Coupon Payment / (1+rd)^2) + ... + (Coupon Payment / (1+rd)^n) + (Face Value / (1+rd)^n)

Where:
- Coupon Payment is the periodic coupon payment
- rd is the discount rate or interest rate
- n is the number of periods or years until maturity
- Face Value is the par value of the bond

In this case, the bond has a 20-year maturity, so n = 20 and the coupon is paid semiannually, so the number of periods is 40 (20 years * 2). The coupon payment is $8.95 (8.95% of $1,000 divided by 2).

Now, we can substitute the values into the formula:

Bond Price = (8.95 / (1+0.067/2)^1) + (8.95 / (1+0.067/2)^2) + ... + (8.95 / (1+0.067/2)^40) + (1000 / (1+0.067/2)^40)

Therefore, the bond's price is $1,311.81.

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To find the new optimal price (P") and quantity (Q") that Rugby AU chooses, we need to consider the effect of the tax per unit (TU) imposed by the government. Rugby AU's profit is $0, and the government's tax revenue is $0.

First, let 's find the demand equation for full-fare tickets after the tax is imposed. The demand equation before the tax is QF(P) = 120 - 2P. After the tax, the price paid by consumers will increase by the amount of the tax, so the new demand equation becomes QF(P") = 120 - 2(P" + TU).

Next, we need to find the quantity demanded at the new price. Set QF(P") equal to zero and solve for P" to find the new optimal price. In this case, QF(P") = 120 - 2(P" + 10) = 0. Simplifying this equation, we get P" + 10 = 60, which means P" = 50.

Now that we have the new optimal price, we can substitute it back into the demand equation QF(P") = 120 - 2(P" + TU) to find the quantity Q". QF(50) = 120 - 2(50 + 10) = 120 - 2(60) = 120 - 120 = 0. Therefore, the new quantity is Q" = 0.

To compute Rugby AU's profit, we need to calculate the total revenue and total cost. Total revenue is given by TR = P" * Q". In this case, TR = 50 * 0 = 0.

Since Rugby AU has no fixed costs, its total cost consists only of the marginal cost per seat, which is $20 per seat. The total cost is TC = MC * Q". In this case, TC = 20 * 0 = 0.

Rugby AU's profit is calculated as profit = TR - TC = 0 - 0 = 0.

To compute the government's tax revenue, we need to multiply the tax per ticket (TU) by the quantity sold (Q"). The tax revenue is TRgov = TU * Q". In this case, TRgov = 10 * 0 = 0.

Therefore, Rugby AU's profit is $0, and the government's tax revenue is $0.

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When a licensee and their spouse are running a business that they want to sell and the business contract is only under the spouse's name, the licensee must disclose their license. This is the correct answer (Option A).

The licensee must disclose their license in order to avoid breaking any laws that apply to the industry and to make sure that the sale of the business is legal, ethical, and compliant with all regulations and requirements. This will help the licensee maintain their reputation and credibility in the industry, and avoid any legal or financial consequences that may arise from not disclosing their license.

In summary, when a licensee and their spouse are running a business that they want to sell and the business contract is only under the spouse's name, the licensee must disclose their license.

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No, β1 is not a linear estimator. The estimatorβ1 = (x2 - x1)/(y2 - y1) is a ratio of differences between individual observations, which means it is not a linear combination of the dependent variable y and the independent variable x. Geometrically, can be interpreted as the slope of a line connecting two specific points in the scatterplot of the data.

Under the SLR.1-SLR.4, the expected value of β1 conditional on X, E(β1|X), is equal to β1. This means that on average, the estimatorβ1 is unbiased and provides an accurate estimate of the true population slope coefficient β1.

Without deriving the variance of β1, we can argue that β1 is less efficient than the OLS estimator of β1 under the Gauss-Markov conditions. This is because the proposed estimator  based on dividing the data into two groups and calculating sample means introduces additional variation and reduces the precision of the estimate compared to the LS estimator, which utilizes all the available data. Therefore, β1 is expected to have a larger variance than β1.

Under Assumptions SLR.1-SLR.4, the expected value of conditional on X, E(β1|X), is equal to β1. This means that the proposed estimator β1 is unbiased and provides an accurate estimate of the true population slope coefficient β1.

Under Assumptions SLR.1-SLR.5, the variance of β1 conditional on X, Var(β1|X), can be derived. However, without explicitly calculating it, we can determine that dividing the n individuals into two groups in a way that minimizes the within-group variation and maximizes the between-group variation would result in the smallest possible variance forβ1.

This can be achieved by grouping individuals based on the values of the independent variable x, ensuring that there is as much difference as possible between the two groups in terms of x. This way, the estimator β1 would capture the maximum variation in the data and provide a more precise estimate of the true population slope coefficient β1.

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Diversification strategy is a growth approach companies use to enter new markets with new products. Johnson & Johnson employs a high level of diversification in its product/service range.

A diversification strategy involves a company expanding its operations into different products, services, or market sectors than it traditionally operates in. Johnson & Johnson, a multinational corporation, is an example of a company that has a high level of diversification. The company operates in different sectors of healthcare, such as pharmaceuticals, medical devices, and consumer health products. Each sector deals with different product lines and caters to diverse markets, which spreads risk and offers multiple avenues for revenue generation.

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Total cost of college will be $101,000 per year 18 years from today.Discount rate is 4% compounded annuallyWe need to find the present value of four years of college starting 18 years ago from today.The present value of four years of college starting 18 years ago from today is $48,767.29.

We have to find out how much it will cost for four years of college at $101,000 per year 18 years from today.Using the formula;FV = PV (1+r)^(n). FV = Future Value = $101,000r = Discount Rate = 4%n = number of years = 18-4 = 14 years (because we have to find the value for four years of college starting 18 years ago from today)So,101000 = PV (1+0.04)^(14)PV = 101000/(1+0.04)^(14)PV = $48,767.29Therefore, the present value of four years of college starting 18 years ago from today is $48,767.29.

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a. Congress increasing business taxes will decrease investment demand. Option B.

b. The development of the personal computer will increase investment demand. Option A.

c. Businesses becoming increasingly pessimistic about the economy will decrease investment demand. Option B.

d. The destruction caused by a major hurricane will increase investment demand. Option B.

e. The practice of fracking reducing machinery costs will increase investment demand. Option A.

a. Congress increases business taxes to avoid the "fiscal cliff." Investment demand will decrease.

When Congress increases business taxes, it reduces the after-tax profitability of investments. Higher taxes mean that businesses have less cash available for investment purposes, which decreases their willingness and ability to invest. As a result, investment demand decreases. Option B is correct.

b. The tech industry develops the personal computer, which has a significant impact on productivity. Investment demand will increase.

The development of the personal computer leads to increased productivity in various industries. This technological advancement creates new investment opportunities and improves the potential return on investment.

Businesses recognize the benefits of adopting this technology to enhance their operations and competitiveness. Consequently, the development of the personal computer increases investment demand. Option A is correct.

c. Businesses become increasingly pessimistic about the economy. Investment demand will decrease.

When businesses become pessimistic about the economy, they anticipate lower consumer demand and weaker market conditions. This uncertainty and lack of confidence discourage businesses from making long-term investments. They may delay or reduce their investment plans, leading to a decrease in investment demand. Option B is correct.

d. After a major hurricane, the resulting floods destroy much of the existing capital stock in many parts of the eastern United States. Investment demand will increase.

After a major hurricane and destructive floods, businesses in the affected areas face the need to rebuild and replace the damaged capital stock.

The destruction of existing capital creates a demand for new investments to restore the lost productive capacity. As a result, investment demand increases in order to repair and replace the damaged infrastructure and equipment. Option B is correct.

e. The practice of fracking increases, causing the costs of using many types of machinery to fall. Investment demand will increase.

The increase in fracking activity reduces the costs associated with using certain types of machinery. This cost reduction improves the profitability of investment projects related to fracking and other industries that benefit from lower machinery costs.  

As a result, businesses are more likely to increase their investment in these sectors, leading to an increase in investment demand. Option A is correct.

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The price of the perpetuity with a $70 coupon per year and a 2.5% yield to maturity is $2,800.

The price of a perpetuity can be determined by using the formula P = C / r, where P represents the price, C denotes the coupon payment, and r signifies the yield to maturity as a decimal. Coupon payment (C) = $70 per year

Yield to maturity (r) = 2.5% or 0.025 as a decimal

To calculate the price of the perpetuity (P), we can use the formula P = C / r.

Plugging in the values:

P = $70 / 0.025

Dividing $70 by 0.025:

P = $2,800

Therefore, the price of the perpetuity with a coupon of $70 per year and a yield to maturity of 2.5% is $2,800.Hence, the calculation shows that the perpetuity can be purchased for $2,800.. This means that for an initial investment of $2,800, the perpetuity will provide a fixed coupon payment of $70 per year indefinitely.

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The difference in NPV between purchasing bus A and bus B is approximately RM47,260.64.

To calculate the difference in net present value (NPV) between purchasing bus A and bus B, we need to compare the cash flows associated with each option and discount them to their present values using the cost of capital.

Let's assume the following information:

Bus A:

Initial cost: RM200,000

Annual maintenance cost: RM10,000

Reliability: High (no breakdowns or maintenance days)

Bus B:

Initial cost: RM150,000

Annual maintenance cost: RM15,000

Reliability: Low (breakdowns and maintenance days)

Using a discount rate of 10% and a three-year time horizon, we can calculate the NPV for each option:

NPV(A) = -200,000 + (200 * 4 - 10,000) / (1 + 0.10) + (200 * 4 - 10,000) / (1 + 0.10)^2 + (200 * 4 - 10,000) / (1 + 0.10)^3

NPV(B) = -150,000 + (200 * 4 - 15,000) / (1 + 0.10) + (200 * 4 - 15,000) / (1 + 0.10)^2 + (200 * 4 - 15,000) / (1 + 0.10)^3

Calculating these values, we get:

NPV(A) ≈ -200,000 + 6846.28 + 6215.71 + 5650.65 ≈ -200,000 + 18,712.64 ≈ -181,287.36

NPV(B) ≈ -150,000 + 5839.81 + 5308.01 + 4825.46 ≈ -150,000 + 15,973.28 ≈ -134,026.72

The difference in NPV between purchasing bus A and bus B can be calculated as:

Difference in NPV = NPV(A) - NPV(B) ≈ -181,287.36 - (-134,026.72) ≈ -47,260.64

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The horizon value of the interest tax shield can be calculated by determining the present value of the expected interest tax shield beyond Year 3. The interest tax shield is the tax benefit obtained from deducting interest expenses from taxable income.

To calculate the horizon value, we need to determine the perpetuity of interest tax shield beyond Year 3. The formula to calculate the present value of a perpetuity is PV = CF / r, where PV is the present value, CF is the cash flow, and r is the discount rate.

In this case, the cash flow (CF) is the interest tax shield, and the discount rate (r) is the tax rate. Therefore, the horizon value of the interest tax shield is:

Horizon value = Interest tax shield in Year 4 / (Unlevered cost of equity - growth rate)

The interest tax shield in Year 4 can be calculated by taking the interest expense in Year 3 and multiplying it by the growth rate:

Interest tax shield in Year 4 = Year 3 interest expense * growth rate = $140 * 5% = $7

Substituting the values into the formula, we have:

Horizon value = $7 / (11% - 5%)

To calculate the total value of the interest tax shield at Year 0, we need to discount the horizon value back to Year 0 using the unlevered cost of equity. Let's assume the horizon value is reached at Year 10. The formula to calculate the total value is:

Total value = Horizon value / (1 + unlevered cost of equity)^n

Substituting the values into the formula, we can calculate the total value of the interest tax shield at Year 0.

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