In SDS-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE), proteins are separated by molecular weight and denatured using detergents, while isoelectric focusing is not typically employed.
The polyacrylamide gel used in SDS-PAGE is not in bead form like that used in column chromatography.SDS-PAGE is a commonly used technique for separating proteins based on their molecular weight.
In this method, a polyacrylamide gel is used, which is not in bead form like the one used in column chromatography. The gel is prepared by polymerizing acrylamide and crosslinking agents, creating a matrix with small pores.
The proteins are mixed with a detergent called sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) before loading onto the gel. SDS denatures the proteins and imparts a negative charge to them, making their separation based on molecular weight possible.
During electrophoresis, an electric field is applied, causing the negatively charged proteins to migrate towards the positive electrode. Since the polyacrylamide gel acts as a sieving matrix, smaller proteins move more quickly through the gel, while larger proteins migrate more slowly.
Consequently, the proteins become separated into distinct bands along the gel, with each band representing a different molecular weight.
Isoelectric focusing (IEF), on the other hand, is a separate technique used to separate proteins based on their isoelectric points, which is the pH at which a protein has no net charge. IEF is not typically combined with SDS-PAGE.
In IEF, proteins migrate through a gel containing a pH gradient, and they stop migrating when they reach their isoelectric point, forming a sharp band. This technique allows for the separation of proteins based on their native charge rather than molecular weight.
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Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE? Viruses have a nucleus but no cytoplasm. а Viruses can reproduce only when they are inside a living host cell. Viruses cannot make proteins on their own. Some viruses use RNA rather than DNA as their genetic material.
The option that is untrue of the ones offered is "Viruses have a nucleus but no cytoplasm."
Acellular infectious organisms with a fairly straightforward structure are viruses. They are made up of genetic material, either DNA or RNA, that is encased in a protein shell called a capsid. A virus's outer envelope may potentially be derived from the membrane of the host cell.However, biological organelles like a nucleus or cytoplasm are absent in viruses. They lack the equipment needed to synthesise proteins or carry out autonomous metabolic processes. In place of doing these things themselves, viruses rely on host cells.
The remaining assertions made are accurate:
- Only when a virus is inside a living host cell can it proliferate. They use the host cell's biological machinery to stealthily copy their genetic material.
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The structure of membianes spanning proteins are less diverse than soluable proteins. Which type of structures are tramsvaise used by transmembiane proteins to transverse the membrane! a) all beta barrel or one more & helical structures b) all beta barrel structures C) random coll Structures 1 d) only structures a mix of a helical and B barrel elane one or more hellcal structure only The pka of amino acid side chain GIU within an enzyme active site is can shift to according to the environment. It will pka 7 if: a) none of above b) ASn side chain is nearby C) Lys is nearby a) placed in a polar environment e) pH is changed.
Transmembrane proteins can have a variety of structural arrangements to traverse the lipid bilayer of cell membranes.
While some transmembrane proteins form β-barrels, many others adopt a combination of α-helical and β-sheet structures. This mixed structural arrangement allows the protein to span the membrane while maintaining stability and functionality.
As for the second question, the pKa (acid dissociation constant) of the amino acid side chain Glu (glutamic acid) within an enzyme active site can shift depending on the environment.
A change in pH can influence the protonation state of amino acid side chains, including Glu, leading to a shift in their pKa values.
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Which of the following is not true about the esophagus?
a. it is made up principally of longitudinal and circular smooth muscle
b. it extends from the pharynx to the stomach
c. it is responsible for water absorption
d. its mucosa contains mucus-producing cells
The statement that is not true about the esophagus is "it is responsible for water absorption. "The esophagus is a muscular tube that links the pharynx and stomach. The esophagus is about 25 centimeters (10 inches) long and is located between the lower end of the pharynx and the uppermost portion of the stomach.
The food bolus is propelled down the esophagus toward the stomach by involuntary contractions of the muscular wall known as peristalsis. The smooth muscle layers of the esophagus are found in both the circular and longitudinal planes. They are situated outside of the mucosa and submucosa layers. The submucosa layer includes the esophageal glands. The mucus membrane that lines the esophagus is stratified squamous epithelium.The mucosa layer of the esophagus contains mucus-producing cells. They secrete mucus to protect the esophageal lining against any damage from swallowed substances.
The esophagus is not responsible for water absorption. Instead, it moves food into the stomach by contracting in a rhythmic pattern to move the food bolus down the digestive tract. Therefore, the statement that is not true about the esophagus is "it is responsible for water absorption."
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Discussion Unit 22 A Describe the flow of air from the nose to the alveoli, name all structures in the pathway and one abnormal condition associated with it.
An abnormal condition associated with this pathway is asthma. Asthma is a chronic respiratory disorder characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways. This can lead to difficulty in breathing, wheezing, coughing, and chest tightness.
The flow of air from the nose to the alveoli involves several structures in the respiratory pathway. It begins with the inhalation of air through the nostrils or nasal passages. The air then passes through the following structures:
Nasal cavity: The nasal cavity is the hollow space behind the nose. It is lined with mucous membranes and contains structures called turbinates that help filter, warm, and moisten the air.
Pharynx: The pharynx, also known as the throat, is a muscular tube located behind the nasal cavity. It serves as a common passage for both air and food.
Larynx: The larynx, or voice box, is located below the pharynx. It contains the vocal cords and plays a role in speech production.
Trachea: The trachea, commonly known as the windpipe, is a tube that connects the larynx to the bronchi. It is lined with ciliated cells and cartilaginous rings, which help maintain its shape and prevent collapse.
Bronchi: The trachea branches into two bronchi, one leading to each lung. The bronchi further divide into smaller bronchioles, which eventually lead to the alveoli.
Alveoli: The alveoli are small air sacs located at the ends of the bronchioles. They are the primary sites of gas exchange in the lungs, where oxygen is taken up by the bloodstream, and carbon dioxide is released.
An abnormal condition associated with this pathway is asthma. Asthma is a chronic respiratory disorder characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways. This can lead to difficulty in breathing, wheezing, coughing, and chest tightness. In individuals with asthma, the airway inflammation and increased sensitivity to certain triggers result in the constriction of the bronchial tubes, making it harder for air to flow freely. Proper management and treatment of asthma are important to maintain normal airflow and prevent respiratory distress.
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Question 1
What is the osmotic fragility test and what does it assess?
How does the flow cytometric osmotic fragility test determine hereditary spherocytosis?
What is osmotic gradient ektacytometry and how can it be used to diagnose inherited RBC membrane disorders? Be sure to include a discussion around what the terms Omin, Elmax and Ohyp are and how they can be used to determine hereditary spherocytosis, hereditary elliptocytosis and Southeast Asian ovalocytosis (pictures may assist you here).
Osmotic fragility test is a laboratory test that is used to determine the ability of erythrocytes (red blood cells) to swell or shrink depending on the osmotic environment.
This test is important in the diagnosis of hemolytic anemias as it assesses the integrity of the RBC membrane. What is the osmotic fragility test? The osmotic fragility test assesses the rate at which red blood cells break down (hemolysis) under different degrees of saline (salt) concentration. It is a diagnostic test that is performed on a blood sample to identify and evaluate various hemolytic conditions.
The test is based on the fact that red blood cells undergo hemolysis when they are placed in hypotonic solutions that cause them to swell and eventually burst. How does flow cytometric osmotic fragility test determine hereditary spherocytosis? The flow cytometric osmotic fragility test determines the degree of osmotic fragility of red blood cells.
The test helps to determine the degree of hemolysis in hereditary spherocytosis patients and can also help in the diagnosis of other forms of hemolytic anemia. In this test, the red blood cells are exposed to varying degrees of osmotic pressure and the degree of hemolysis is measured.
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It is important that cells control the activity of the enzymes within them. How might an enzyme be inhibited. Mark all that apply.
O The cell increases the availability of substrates
O Active site is blocked by a different molecule (not the substrate).
O Allosteric molecule changes the shape of the enzyme so the active site is not available.
O An enzyme is converted by the cell from a pro- enzyme to a ready form of the enzyme
O There is not enough cofactor for the enzyme to work properly
O The substrate binds to the active site, causing the enzyme to change shape.
O The cell decreases the availability of products
O Acidic conditions cause the enzyme to change its shape so the substrate can't bind
In order to ensure proper control of enzymatic activity within cells, various mechanisms can be employed for enzyme inhibition. The following options can be marked as correct:
- Active site is blocked by a different molecule (not the substrate).
- Allosteric molecule changes the shape of the enzyme so the active site is not available.
- An enzyme is converted by the cell from a pro-enzyme to a ready form of the enzyme.
- There is not enough cofactor for the enzyme to work properly.
- Acidic conditions cause the enzyme to change its shape so the substrate can't bind.
Enzyme inhibition plays a crucial role in regulating biochemical pathways and maintaining cellular homeostasis.
Here's an explanation of each option:
1. Active site is blocked by a different molecule (not the substrate):
In this case, a molecule other than the substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, preventing the substrate from binding and inhibiting the enzyme's activity.
2. Allosteric molecule changes the shape of the enzyme so the active site is not available:
An allosteric molecule binds to a site other than the active site of the enzyme, inducing a conformational change that alters the shape of the active site. This prevents the substrate from binding effectively and inhibits the enzyme.
3. An enzyme is converted by the cell from a pro-enzyme to a ready form of the enzyme:
Some enzymes are synthesized in an inactive form known as a proenzyme or zymogen. Cellular processes can activate these enzymes by cleaving off specific segments, resulting in the conversion to their active form.
4. There is not enough cofactor for the enzyme to work properly:
Enzymes often require cofactors, such as metal ions or coenzymes, to function properly. Inhibition can occur if there is insufficient availability of the required cofactor.
5. Acidic conditions cause the enzyme to change its shape so the substrate can't bind:
The pH of the cellular environment can influence enzyme activity. Under highly acidic conditions, the enzyme's structure can be altered, rendering the active site incompatible with substrate binding.
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Drs. Tsui and Collins discovered the genetic cause of cystic fibrosis (CF) in 1989. However, life expectancy rates of individuals with CF did not start to improve more significantly until about 2003. What might be plausible explanations for why it took about 14 years from the time of the discovery of the genetic cause of CF to seeing greater increases in life expectancy?
There could be several plausible explanations for the time gap between the discovery of the genetic cause of cystic fibrosis (CF) in 1989 by Drs.
Tsui and Collins and the significant improvements in life expectancy that were observed around 2003. Some potential explanations include:
1. Translational research and clinical implementation: Discovering the genetic cause of CF is a crucial first step, but translating this knowledge into effective treatments and therapies takes time. It may have taken several years of research, experimentation, and clinical trials to develop and refine therapies that specifically target the underlying genetic defect in CF.
2. Development of targeted therapies: CF is a complex genetic disorder with multiple genetic mutations. Developing targeted therapies to address the specific genetic variations in different individuals with CF can be challenging. It may have taken time to identify and develop effective treatments that work for a broader range of CF patients.
3. Regulatory approval process: Bringing new therapies to market requires rigorous testing and approval from regulatory authorities. The process of conducting clinical trials, collecting data, analyzing results, and obtaining regulatory approval can be time-consuming. Delays in regulatory processes could have contributed to the gap between the genetic discovery and the availability of improved treatments.
4. Accessibility and adoption of treatments: Even after the development and approval of new therapies, there can be delays in widespread access and adoption of these treatments. Factors such as availability, affordability, healthcare infrastructure, and patient awareness may have influenced the time it took for individuals with CF to benefit from the new therapies.
5. Cumulative effect of advancements: Improvements in life expectancy may not occur immediately after the introduction of a new treatment. It often takes time for advancements in medical care, supportive therapies, and overall management of CF to accumulate and have a significant impact on life expectancy rates.
It's important to note that these are speculative explanations, and the actual reasons for the time gap between the genetic discovery of CF and improvements in life expectancy may involve a combination of factors.
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The is a stiff rod-like structure that is observed in all developing chordate embryos. Question 23 The includes lancelets (also known as amphioxus) Question 24 are openings for water intake in sharks. Question 25 Fish have a lobed heart.
Question 23: The structure observed in all developing chordate embryos is called the notochord. The notochord is a flexible, rod-like structure that provides support and serves as a developmental precursor to the vertebral column (backbone) in vertebrates.
Question 24: The openings for water intake in sharks are called gill slits.
Along with other fish and some aquatic vertebrates, have gill slits on the sides of their bodies. These openings allow water to enter the gills, where oxygen is extracted and carbon dioxide is released, enabling the shark to breathe underwater.
Question 25: Fish have a two-chambered heart, not a lobed heart. The two chambers in a fish's heart are the atrium and the ventricle. The atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body and transfers it to the ventricle. The ventricle then pumps the deoxygenated blood to the gills, where it picks up oxygen and gets rid of carbon dioxide before being circulated to the rest of the body. Fish do not possess lungs like mammals, so their circulatory system is adapted for extracting oxygen from water rather than air.
Please note that the to Question 25 s the statement provided. Fish have a two-chambered heart, not a lobed heart.
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Plants store glucose as starch because ... a. Starch is easier to store because it's insoluble in water b. Starch is more calories per gram than glucose c. Starch is a simpler molecule and therefore easier to store d. All of the above
Plants store glucose as starch because starch is easier to store because it is insoluble in water. Plants are autotrophic organisms that use photosynthesis to create glucose to store energy. Glucose is the primary source of energy in all living cells.
Plants store glucose as starch because starch is easier to store because it is insoluble in water. Plants are autotrophic organisms that use photosynthesis to create glucose to store energy. Glucose is the primary source of energy in all living cells. However, the glucose produced through photosynthesis is not immediately used. It is stored within the plant cells for later use. Storing glucose as starch is the most common way of preserving it. Starch is a polysaccharide, or a complex carbohydrate that can be found in plants, that is stored as a food reserve in plants, and can also be extracted and used commercially as a thickening agent in cooking.
Plants store glucose as starch for a variety of reasons, including its insolubility in water, which makes it easier to store. Starch is also a more compact form of energy storage since it can store more calories per gram than glucose. Furthermore, it is less reactive than glucose and has a lower osmotic pressure, which can prevent damage to the plant cells. Therefore, plants store glucose as starch because it is easier to store and more convenient for later use.
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About 70% of the salt in our diet typically comes from _______ a. meals prepared at home b. peanut butter, ketchup, mustard, and other condiments c. prepared or processed food from the grocery store or restaurants d. potato chips and similar salty/crunchy snacks
About 70% of the salt in our diet typically comes from prepared or processed food from the grocery store or restaurants. The correct option is c).
Processed and prepared foods from grocery stores or restaurants contribute to about 70% of the salt in our diet. These foods often contain high amounts of added salt for flavoring and preservation purposes.
Common examples include canned soups, frozen meals, deli meats, bread, and savory snacks. Additionally, condiments like ketchup, mustard, and salad dressings can also add significant salt content to our diet.
It is important to be mindful of our salt intake as excessive consumption can increase the risk of high blood pressure and other related health issues. Therefore, the correct option is c).
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A student has placed the enzyme lipase in a test tube along with
a solution of hydrochloric acid and a protein. Explain why
digestion will or will not take place.
The digestion will not take place by the enzyme lipase in a test tube along with a solution of hydrochloric acid and a protein. This is because the enzyme lipase is specific to lipid molecules, not proteins. It breaks down the lipids into fatty acids and glycerol while hydrochloric acid is responsible for denaturing the protein by breaking down its tertiary and quaternary structure.
Furthermore, lipase requires a basic pH to function while the hydrochloric acid creates an acidic environment, thereby not being an ideal condition for the lipase enzyme to perform its activity. In summary, the lipase enzyme and hydrochloric acid in the test tube will result in the denaturation of protein.
The proteins will be destroyed, but not digested. The lipase enzyme, on the other hand, will not be able to perform its function because of the acidic environment created by the hydrochloric acid. Hence, digestion will not take place.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of all members of the fungi kingdom? O prokaryotic O unicellular O heterotrophic O autotrophic 2 pts
The characteristic of all members of the fungi kingdom is that they are heterotrophic in nature. Therefore, the correct option is "O heterotrophic".
Fungi are eukaryotic organisms, and they have a separate kingdom in taxonomy, called the Fungi Kingdom.
Members of this kingdom can range from the microscopic, single-celled yeasts to the massive, multicellular fungi-like mushrooms, to the decomposing mycelium webs that sprawl across a forest floor. In their ecological roles, fungi can be decomposers, plant pathogens, mutualistic symbionts, and predators.
Heterotrophic means "feeding on other organisms" or "consumers."
Fungi belong to the category of heterotrophs because they do not produce their own food.
Rather than photosynthesize like plants, they acquire their nutrition by absorbing organic compounds and minerals from other organisms.
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Rhizomes are?
a. a modified underground plant stem that sends out roots and shoots from seagrass nodes b. a modified underground holdfast that sends out roots and shoots from nodes of macroalgae c. the above-ground portion of seagrasses d. the above-ground portion of marine macroalage
Rhizomes are modified underground plant stems that serve as a means of vegetative propagation. The correct answer is option a.
They are horizontally oriented and grow underground, producing roots and shoots from their nodes. Rhizomes are commonly found in various plant species and serve multiple purposes. They enable plants to spread horizontally, allowing for the colonization of new areas and the formation of extensive clonal colonies.
Rhizomes also store nutrients and energy reserves that aid in the plant's survival and regrowth. Examples of plants that utilize rhizomes include bamboo, ginger, and iris. Through their ability to produce roots and shoots from nodes, rhizomes play a vital role in the growth, reproduction, and expansion of plant populations.
The correct answer is option a.
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We want to map the distance between genes A (green color), B (rough leaf), and C (normal fertility). Each gene has a recessive allele (a= yellow, b-glossy and c-variable). Results from the mating are as follow: 1) Green, rough, normal: 85 2) Yellow, rough, normal: 45 3) Green, rough, variable: 4 4) Yellow, rough, variable: 600 5) Green, glossy, normal: 600 6) Yellow, glossy, normal: 5 7) Green, glossy, variable: 50 8) Yellow, glossy, variable: 90 The double crossover progeny can be observed in the phenotype #s 3 (green, rough, variable) with its corresponding genotype ____ and 6 (yellow, glossy, normal) with its Based on the information from the table corresponding genotype _____ and the previous question, the gene in the middle is ____
The results from the mating used to map the distance between genes A (green color), B (rough leaf), and C (normal fertility) are as follow
Green, rough, normal: 85Yellow, rough, normal: 45Green, rough, variable: 4Yellow, rough, variable: 600Green, glossy, normal: 600Yellow, glossy, normal: 5Green, glossy, variable: 50Yellow, glossy, variable: 90Double crossover progeny can be observed in the phenotype
#s 3 (green, rough, variable) with its corresponding genotype GgBbCc and 6 (yellow, glossy, normal) with its corresponding genotype ggBBcc. We can now map the distance between genes A, B, and C:1. Find the parent phenotype that has the most crossovers with the double crossover phenotype:Green, glossy, variable:
50 crossovers.
2. Find the percentage of offspring of the parent phenotype that had the double crossover phenotype:
4/50 × 100 = 8%.3. Find the percentage of offspring with a single crossover between the middle gene and the gene nearest the middle gene by subtracting the percentage of offspring with no crossovers from the percentage of offspring with any crossover:
100% - (85 + 45 + 600 + 5) = 100% - 735 = 26.5%.
4. Find the percentage of offspring with a single crossover between the middle gene and the gene furthest from the middle gene by subtracting the percentage of offspring with no crossovers from the percentage of offspring with any crossover:
100% - (85 + 45 + 600 + 5) = 100% - 735 = 26.5%.5. Add the results from steps 2, 3, and 4:
8% + 26.5% + 26.5% = 61%.6. The remaining percentage (100% - 61% = 39%) represents offspring with double crossovers between the gene furthest from the middle gene and the gene nearest the middle gene.
7. The gene in the middle is the gene that has the highest percentage of single crossovers (step 3 and step 4). Therefore, gene B (rough leaf) is in the middle.
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13. Which of the following represents the correct order of stages during Drosophila development?
Select one:
a.
zygote, syncytial blastoderm, cellular blastoderm, gastrula, larva, pupa, adult
b.
syncytial blastoderm, cellular blastoderm, zygote, gastrula, larva, pupa, adult
c.
zygote, larva, gastrula, pupa, syncytial blastoderm, cellular blastoderm, adult
d.
cellular blastoderm, syncytial blastoderm, zygote, gastrula, pupa, larva, adult
and.
zygote, cellular blastoderm, syncytial blastoderm, gastrula, larva, pupa, adult
14.The following protein represents an inductive signal for the creation of lens tissue:
Select one:
a.
FGF8
b.
BMP4
c.
crystalline
d.
all of the above
and.
a and b are correct
15.The following molecule acts as a paracrine factor:
Select one:
a.
wnt
b.
hedgehog
c.
Delta
d.
all of the above
and.
a and b are correct
14. The protein that represents an inductive signal for the creation of lens tissue is: c. crystalline.
15. The molecule that acts as a paracrine factor is: d. all of the above (a. wnt and b. hedgehog).
these are correct answers.
Crystalline is a protein involved in the development and function of the lens in the eye. It plays a crucial role in the formation of lens tissue during development.
Both Wnt and Hedgehog molecules are examples of paracrine factors. Paracrine signaling refers to the release of signaling molecules by one cell to act on nearby cells, affecting their behavior or gene expression. Both Wnt and Hedgehog molecules function as paracrine signals in various developmental processes and tissue homeostasis.
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Dragons come in many colors. Purple dragons are dominant over green dragons. Write a genotype of a green dragon. Is another genotype possible? Why or why not?
The genotype of a green dragon, assuming that purple dragons are dominant over green dragons, would be represented as gg. In this case, the lowercase "g" represents the allele for green color. A green dragon would have two copies of the green allele, one inherited from each parent.
Another genotype for a green dragon is not possible if purple dragons are truly dominant over green dragons. Dominant traits are expressed when at least one copy of the dominant allele is present. Since purple dragons are dominant, a dragon would need at least one copy of the purple allele (denoted by a different letter, such as "P") to exhibit the purple coloration.
Therefore, in a scenario where purple is dominant, a green dragon can only possess the genotype gg, indicating that it has two copies of the recessive green allele. If another genotype were possible, it would imply that green is not completely recessive, and there might be other factors influencing the coloration of dragons. However, based on the information given, with purple dragons being dominant, the only genotype for a green dragon is gg.
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6. Kreisler is maintained in its expression in rhombomeres 5 and 6 because of the
_________________ addition site within the _________________ region, which is part of the final ____________
a. PolyA; 3'-Translated; Intron
b. PolyT; 5-Untranslated; Intron
c. PolyA; 3'-Untranscribed; Exon
d. PolyA; 5'-Untranslated; Exon
e. PolyA; 3'-Untranslated; Exon
Kreisler is maintained in its expression in rhombomeres 5 and 6 because of the PolyA; 3 addition site within the Untranslated region, which is part of the final Exon. Hence option E is correct.
The correct answer to this question is option E: "PolyA; 3'-Untranslated; Exon."Kreisler is maintained in its expression in rhombomeres 5 and 6 because of the polyA addition site within the 3'-untranslated region, which is part of the final exon.What is a poly(A) tail?
A poly(A) tail is a long chain of adenine nucleotides that is added to the 3′ end of mRNA molecules, which stabilizes the RNA molecule. As a result, it protects the mRNA from RNA-degrading enzymes, aids in export of the mature mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, and serves as a binding site for proteins involved in translational initiation.
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1. What is the main difference between gymnoperms and angiosperms? What do they have in common? 2. You remove a cell from a four-cell embryo of a roundworm. Explain what you expect to happen. 3. Describe the life cycle of an insect with complete metamorphosis and provide an example. (3.5 marks)
4. Describe the excretory system of insects. (5 marks)
Here are some facts about plants and animals, including the differences between gymnosperms and angiosperms, the development of roundworms, the life cycle of insects, and the excretory system of insects. Therefore
1. Gymnosperms: uncovered seeds, angiosperms: seeds in fruit.
2. Roundworms: each cell contains complete info, removing a cell = developmental defect.
3. Insect complete metamorphosis: egg-larva-pupa-adult.
4. Insect excretory system: Malpighian tubules, bladder, anus; efficient waste removal.
1. The main difference between gymnosperms and angiosperms is that gymnosperms have uncovered seeds, while angiosperms have seeds that are enclosed in a fruit. Gymnosperms also have pollen cones, while angiosperms have flowers. Both gymnosperms and angiosperms are vascular plants, which means they have xylem and phloem tissues. They also both reproduce by pollination and seed dispersal.
2. If you remove a cell from a four-cell embryo of a roundworm, the embryo will not develop into a complete organism. This is because each cell in the embryo contains all the information necessary to create a complete organism. If you remove a cell, you are essentially removing some of the information that is needed for development. The remaining cells will try to compensate for the missing information, but they will not be able to do so perfectly. This will result in a developmental defect, and the embryo will not develop into a complete organism.
3. The life cycle of an insect with complete metamorphosis has four stages: egg, larva, pupa, and adult. The egg is laid by the adult insect and hatches into a larva. The larva is a feeding stage and grows rapidly. When the larva is mature, it pupates. The pupa is a resting stage during which the insect undergoes metamorphosis. The adult insect emerges from the pupa and begins the cycle again.
An example of an insect with complete metamorphosis is the butterfly. The butterfly lays its eggs on a plant. The eggs hatch into caterpillars. The caterpillars eat leaves and grow rapidly. When the caterpillars are mature, they pupate. The pupae are attached to a plant or other surface. The adult butterflies emerge from the pupae and begin the cycle again.
4. The excretory system of insects is composed of Malpighian tubules, a bladder, and an anus. Malpighian tubules are blind sacs that are located near the junction of the digestive tract and the intestine. The tubules remove waste products from the blood and transport them to the bladder. The bladder stores the waste products until they are excreted through the anus.
The excretory system of insects is very efficient at removing waste products from the body. This is important for insects because they have a very high metabolic rate. A high metabolic rate produces a lot of waste products, so it is important for insects to have a way to remove these waste products quickly.
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In your study group you are describing the feeding and nutrition profiles of the unicellular eukaryotes. Which of the following are accurate statements? Check All That Apply There are two types of heterotrophs in the unicellular eukaryotes, phagotrophs and osmotrophs. Phagotrophs are heterotrophs that ingest visible particles of food. Osmotrophs are heterotrophs that ingest food in a soluble form Both phagotrophs and osmotrophs are generally parasitic unicellular eukaryotes Contractile vacuoles are prominent features of unicellular eukaryotes living in both freshwater and marine environments. True or False True False In your study group you are considering the unicellular eukaryotes and discussing specific aspects of their biology. Which of the following statements are accurate regarding the role of contractile vacuoles? Check All That Apply Contractile vacuoles are primarily present on freshwater unicellular eukaryotes because they live in a hypoosmotic environment. Contractile vacuoles are primarily present on marine unicellular eukaryotes because they live in a hyperosmotic environment Contractile vacuoles are primarily used to remove excess water from the cytoplasm Contractile vacuoles are only found in multicellular eukaryotes, not in the unicellular eukaryotes Plasmodium reproduction involves a complex series of steps. Which of the following statements are accurate representations of this complex process? Check All That Apply Plasmodium reproduction requires both sexual and asexual phases of the life-cycle. Sexual reproductive phases of the Plasmodium lifecycle occur in both the mosquito and the human. Asexual reproductive phases of the Plasmodium lifecycle occur in the mosquito only Sporozoites form in the body of the mosquito and infect humans by reproducing asexually, first in liver cells and then in red blood cells
The accurate statements regarding the feeding and nutrition profiles of unicellular eukaryotes are:
- There are two types of heterotrophs in unicellular eukaryotes, phagotrophs and osmotrophs.
- Phagotrophs are heterotrophs that ingest visible particles of food.
- Osmotrophs are heterotrophs that ingest food in a soluble form.
- Contractile vacuoles are prominent features of unicellular eukaryotes living in both freshwater and marine environments.
Unicellular eukaryotes exhibit various feeding and nutritional strategies. Among these, there are two types of heterotrophs: phagotrophs and osmotrophs. Phagotrophs are organisms that actively ingest visible particles of food, while osmotrophs absorb nutrients in a soluble form. These strategies allow unicellular eukaryotes to obtain the necessary nutrients for their survival and growth.
Contractile vacuoles are specialized organelles found in many unicellular eukaryotes. They play a vital role in maintaining osmotic balance by regulating water content within the cell. Contractile vacuoles are particularly prominent in unicellular eukaryotes living in both freshwater and marine environments, where osmotic conditions may fluctuate. They function by actively pumping excess water out of the cell, preventing it from swelling or bursting.
It's important to note that the given statements accurately describe the feeding and nutrition profiles of unicellular eukaryotes, including the distinction between phagotrophs and osmotrophs and the role of contractile vacuoles in maintaining osmotic balance.
the diverse feeding strategies and adaptations of unicellular eukaryotes to different environments to gain a deeper understanding of their biology and ecological roles.
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Answer the following questions (1-5).
1) During the Pleistocene, a large proportion of large-bodied birds and mammals became extinct. This so-called megafaunal extinction can best be attributed to
a. volcanic activity
b. climate change only
c. human activities only
d. climate change and human activities
e. the impact of a large asteroid
2) There are 5 identified mass extinctions in the geological record prior to the appearance of the genus Homo
a. True
b. False
3) Laboratory experiments on molecular mechanisms resembling early conditions of earth may inform us on evolution of molecules of life, such as DNA and RNA because of…
a. Principle of parsimony
b. Lack of fossil evidence
c. Principle of uniformity
d. Laws of inheritance
e. All of the above
4) The fossil record is incomplete. Why?
a. Some organisms are delicate, lack hard parts, or live where decay is rapid.
b. Sediments in a given locality vary episodically.
c. Fossil-bearing sediments must undergo numerous transformations and be accessible to paleontologists.
d. A species that evolved new characteristics elsewhere may appear in a local record fully formed, after having migrated into the area.
e. All of the above
5) Which of the following is the most recent evolutionary event?
a. The Devonian extinction
b. The origin of tetrapod vertebrates
c. The end-Permian extinction
d. The divergence of bird populations in the Pleistocene
e. The origin of photosynthesis
1) Megafaunal extinction is climate change and human activities were the main factors responsible, option (d) is correct.
2) The statement "There are 5 identified mass extinctions in the geological record prior to the appearance of the genus Homo" is false because there is mass extinctions in the geological record prior to the appearance of the genus Homo.
3) Lab experiments inform on the evolution of DNA and RNA due to multiple factors, option (d) is correct.
4) Fossil record is incomplete due to delicate organisms, varying sediments, transformations, and limited accessibility, option (e) is correct.
5) Most recent event is divergence of bird populations in the Pleistocene, option (d) is correct.
1) The megafaunal extinction during the Pleistocene can best be attributed to climate change and human activities. Both factors played significant roles in the decline and extinction of large-bodied birds and mammals during this period, option (d) is correct.
2) There have been five identified mass extinctions in the geological record prior to the appearance of the genus Homo, but it is important to note that the concept of "genus Homo" is not well-defined and subject to ongoing scientific debate, the statement is false.
3) Laboratory experiments on molecular mechanisms resembling early conditions of Earth can inform us about the evolution of molecules of life, such as DNA and RNA, due to the principle of parsimony, lack of fossil evidence, principle of uniformity, and laws of inheritance, option (e) is correct.
4) The fossil record is incomplete due to various reasons, including the delicate nature or lack of hard parts of some organisms, rapid decay in certain environments, episodic variations in sediment deposition, the requirement for accessible fossil-bearing sediments, and the potential for a species to evolve elsewhere and later appear fully formed in a local record, option (e) is correct.
5) The divergence of bird populations in the Pleistocene is the most recent evolutionary event among the options provided. The Devonian extinction, origin of tetrapod vertebrates, end-Permian extinction, and origin of photosynthesis occurred at much earlier time periods in the history of life on Earth, option (d) is correct.
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Which of the statements below best describes the classical pathway of complement?
1) An enzyme expressed by the microbe cleaves a complement protein, which triggers a series of events that lead to C3 cleavage.
2) Antibodies bound to a microbe recruit C1q, which activates a series of events that lead to C3 cleavage.
3) C3 is spontaneously cleaved and remains activated upon interaction with the microbial surface.
4) Lectins bound to a microbe recruit complement proteins, which leads to C3 cleavage.
The classical pathway of complement is best described by option 2, which states that antibodies bound to a microbe recruit C1q, initiating a series of events that lead to C3 cleavage. Option 2 is correct answer.
The classical pathway of complement is one of the three main activation pathways of the complement system. It is primarily initiated by the binding of antibodies, specifically IgM or IgG, to a microbe's surface. In option 2, it states that antibodies bound to a microbe recruit C1q, which is the first component of the classical pathway. C1q, along with other complement proteins (C1r and C1s), form the C1 complex.
Upon binding to the microbe, the C1 complex becomes activated and initiates a cascade of enzymatic reactions, resulting in the cleavage phagocytes of complement protein C3. The cleavage of C3 leads to the formation of C3b, which opsonizes the microbe for phagocytosis and generates the membrane attack complex (MAC) to lyse the microbe.
Options 1, 3, and 4 do not accurately describe the classical pathway of complement. Option 1 describes the alternative pathway, option 3 describes spontaneous cleavage (which is not a characteristic of the classical pathway), and option 4 describes the lectin pathway. Therefore, option 2 provides the most accurate description of the classical pathway of complement.
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Question 15 (1 point) According to Emery's rule slavemaking ants parasitize the nests of: closely related ant species distantly related ant species plant-sucking aphid species O other slavemaking ant species
According to Emery's rule, slavemaking ants exhibit a parasitic behavior by targeting and exploiting the nests of closely related ant species.
This rule suggests that slavemaking ants have evolved to specifically target and enslave ants that share a close genetic relationship, as they are more likely to have similar chemical recognition cues and behavioral patterns.
By infiltrating and taking over the nests of closely related ant species, the slavemaking ants can exploit the available resources, such as food and labor, without triggering strong defense mechanisms from the host ants. This strategy maximizes their chances of successfully establishing and maintaining their parasitic lifestyle.
Emery's rule provides insights into the coevolutionary dynamics between slavemaking ants and their host species, shedding light on the intricate relationships within ant communities and the mechanisms behind the evolution of parasitic behaviors.
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Which of the following is a START codon? O O UAA UAG AUG о O AGA Which term refers to animals that maintain their body temperature by internal mechanisms? Oectotherms Opoikilotherms O homeotherms endotherms The central dogma states that... ODNA --> RNA --> polypeptide --> protein ORNA --> DNA --> protein O polypeptide --> protein --> DNA DNA --> RNA --> amino acid --> tRNA Saturated fatty acids... have only double bonds O have a mix of double and single bonds are in a ring-shaped structure have only single bonds Which is FALSE about fecundity? Species like house flies have high fecundity It is defined as the number of offspring an individual can produce over its lifetime O Species with high survivorship have high fecundity Species like humans have low fecundity A cell is in a solution where there is more solute in the solution than there is in the cell. This would be called a/an... Ohypertonic solution hypotonic solution O isotonic solution Onone of the above This type of bond would connect a glucose molecule to a galactose molecule. Phosophodiester linkage O Ester bond Glycosidic linkage Hydrogen bond Which of the following best describes the role of light in photosynthesis? It produces NADPH It splits ribulose bisphosphate into 2 PGAs It causes the CO2 to combine with hydrogen atoms It excites the electrons that leave chlorophyll molecules Enzymes... O are needed in large quantities because they are used up during catalysis are not very specific in their choice of substrates O make endergonic reactions proceed spontaneously O lower the activation energy of a reaction Which would NOT be part of a nucleotide? O Ribose sugar Adenine Phosphate Sulfide
The start codon is AUG. Endotherms is the term that refers to animals that maintain their body temperature by internal mechanisms. The central dogma states that DNA --> RNA --> polypeptide --> protein. Saturated fatty acids have only single bonds.
Species with high survivorship have high fecundity is false about fecundity. A hypertonic solution is a cell that is in a solution where there is more solute in the solution than there is in the cell. Glycosidic linkage would connect a glucose molecule to a galactose molecule. The role of light in photosynthesis is to excite the electrons that leave chlorophyll molecules. Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction. Sulfide would NOT be part of a nucleotide. A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides that encodes a specific amino acid or terminates translation. AUG is a codon that represents methionine, which is always the first amino acid in the protein chain. Therefore, it is the start codon. Thus, the correct answer is AUG.
Endotherms is a term that refers to animals that maintain their body temperature by internal mechanisms. These animals depend on their metabolism to generate heat to maintain a constant body temperature. Therefore, it is the correct answer.The central dogma describes the flow of genetic information within a biological system. The correct flow of the central dogma is DNA --> RNA --> polypeptide --> protein. Therefore, DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is translated into polypeptides and, ultimately, into proteins. Therefore, the correct answer is DNA --> RNA --> polypeptide --> protein.Saturated fatty acids have only single bonds. Therefore, it is the correct answer. An unsaturated fatty acid, on the other hand, contains one or more double bonds in the hydrocarbon chain.
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Preserving biodiversity is only important for nature not
humans.
true
or
false
False, preserving biodiversity is not only important for nature but is equally significant for humans' survival.
Biodiversity is a measure of the variety of life on earth. This variety includes genetic diversity, species diversity, and ecosystem diversity. Biodiversity provides various ecosystem services that are essential for human well-being, including food, water, medicine, air quality, climate regulation, and recreation, among others. Humans rely heavily on the natural environment and its resources for their survival and development. Preserving biodiversity ensures that the ecosystem services continue to function, and resources remain available for present and future generations.
Biodiversity loss has several negative impacts on human societies, including food and water scarcity, disease outbreaks, and natural disasters such as floods and landslides. Therefore, preserving biodiversity is not only important for the natural environment but also for the health, security, and economic well-being of humans. In conclusion, biodiversity conservation is essential for both nature and humans and should be a priority for sustainable development.
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What is the relationship between ΔG and ΔG‡?
What properties distinguish enzymes from other catalysts?
The relationship between ΔG (free energy change) and ΔG‡ (activation energy) is that ΔG‡ represents the energy barrier that must be overcome for a reaction to proceed, while ΔG represents the overall change in free energy during the reaction.
Enzymes possess specific properties that distinguish them from other catalysts, including their ability to be highly specific, their efficiency in catalyzing reactions, and their regulation through factors like temperature and pH.
The relationship between ΔG and ΔG‡ can be understood in the context of chemical reactions. ΔG represents the difference in free energy between the reactants and products of a reaction. It indicates whether a reaction is thermodynamically favorable (ΔG < 0) or unfavorable (ΔG > 0). On the other hand, ΔG‡, also known as the activation energy, represents the energy barrier that must be overcome for the reaction to occur. It is the energy required to reach the transition state, where the bonds are breaking and forming. ΔG‡ is not directly related to the overall change in free energy (ΔG) but influences the rate at which the reaction proceeds.
Enzymes are specialized catalysts that facilitate biochemical reactions in living organisms. They possess several properties that distinguish them from other catalysts. Firstly, enzymes exhibit high specificity, meaning they can selectively bind to particular substrates and catalyze specific reactions. This specificity is crucial for the regulation of metabolic pathways and cellular processes. Secondly, enzymes are highly efficient, enabling them to catalyze reactions at a faster rate than non-enzymatic catalysts. Their efficiency is due to their ability to lower the activation energy required for the reaction to occur, thus increasing the reaction rate. Lastly, enzymes can be regulated by factors such as temperature and pH, allowing for precise control of biochemical reactions within cells. This regulation ensures that enzymes are active under optimal conditions and can be turned off or modulated as needed.
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Please complete the following statement: Following the Civil War, a large portion of cadavers used for medical study were obtained by: a. asking local families to donate elder's bodies upon passing. b. plundering bodies from the local Black cemeteries. c. practicing on themselves, sometimes catastrophically. d. using the bodies of their expired former teachers in hopes that they could learn from observing their very special brains.
Following the Civil War, a large portion of cadavers used for medical study were obtained by plundering bodies from the local Black cemeteries (option b).
Cadavers, or dead bodies, were essential to the progress of medical science. Medical students required a hands-on experience to dissect and learn about human anatomy. At that time, medical schools experienced a scarcity of cadavers, so they would get them from various sources to cater to the needs of the students.
The demand for cadavers grew after the Civil War. The surgeons used cadavers for research, and for developing new surgical techniques, which helped them to learn the body’s weaknesses and strengths. The local Black cemeteries were the prime source of cadavers. At that time, many people considered the bodies of Black people as disposable and unworthy of respect.
Their corpses were dug up and stolen by doctors to be used for medical research. The rise of body snatching drew criticism, and people believed that the doctors were violating the dead’s dignity. This practice of body snatching stopped in the late 1800s as anatomists began using unclaimed bodies from hospitals and morgues as sources for their cadavers.
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Which list is the correct list for the following results: endospore former, positive acid-fast stain, and gram negative bacilli? a. Bocillus subtilis, Mycrobacterium smegmatis, and Escherichia coli b. Bacillus subtilis, Mycobacterium smegmatis, and Escherichia coli Mycobacterium smegmatis, Bacillus subtilis, and Escherichia coli d. Bacillus subtilis, Mycobacterium smegmatis, and Escherichia coli alldelar hair
The list that represents the correct list for the following results: endospore former, positive acid-fast stain, and gram negative bacilli is option c. Mycobacterium smegmatis, Bacillus subtilis, and Escherichia coli. Hence option C is correct.
Endospores are a dormant and non-reproductive form of bacteria that withstands environmental pressure in the Bacillus and Clostridium genera. They can stay dormant in soil, air, and water for years before they experience favorable conditions to germinate again.Positive acid-fast stainThis result is shown by a few species of bacteria, like Mycobacterium, which have an extra-thick cell wall that can resist stain decolorization by an acid-alcohol mixture following staining with basic dyes such as methylene blue. It also implies that it cannot be identified by the Gram stain procedure.
A gram-negative bacillus is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the human body and is often responsible for infections. Bacteria in the bacillus genus are long and thin, with a rod-like form. They are gram-negative, meaning they do not retain the crystal violet stain and appear pink or red in the Gram staining procedure. Gram-negative bacilli are a category of bacteria that cause a variety of diseases.
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5. What is the mechanism of water reabsorption, and how is it coupled to Nat reabsorption?
Water reabsorption in the renal system is primarily achieved through the use of osmosis, a process in which water moves from an area of high water concentration (low solute concentration) to an area of low water concentration (high solute concentration) through a semi-permeable membrane such as the walls of the nephron tubule.
In order for this process to occur, the presence of solute in the tubule must be actively maintained. The concentration gradient of Na+ is particularly important for water reabsorption, as Na+ is actively reabsorbed from the filtrate into the interstitial fluid of the renal medulla, creating an osmotic gradient that drives the movement of water out of the filtrate and into the surrounding tissue.
In the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, Na+ and Cl- ions are actively transported out of the filtrate, but water cannot follow them due to the impermeability of the tubule walls to water. In the descending limb of the loop, water can move out of the filtrate but solute cannot, creating a more concentrated solution. The resulting concentration gradient drives the movement of water from the filtrate into the surrounding tissue in the renal medulla, where it can be reabsorbed into the bloodstream.
The movement of Na+ and Cl- out of the filtrate is coupled with the movement of K+ and H+ ions into the filtrate, which maintains the electrochemical gradient across the nephron tubule. This gradient is important for a number of other processes in the renal system, including the regulation of pH and the reabsorption of other ions and nutrients.
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Concerning homing of effector T cells to the gut, which of the following is not true?
O Interaction with gut epithelium is enhanced by integrin AEB7 binding to cadherin once in the lamina propria
O Antigen-activated T cells in the GALT effector T cells, enter the blood, and then populate mucosal tissues.
O T cells are guided by chemokine CCR9
O Homing is mediated by an interaction between the integrin A4B7 on the T cell and MACAM1 on the endothelial cell
Option (B), Antigen-activated T cells in the GALT effector T cells, enter the blood, and then populate mucosal tissues is not true.
Effector T cells are a subtype of T cells that are primarily responsible for the actual immune response to an antigen. Effector T cells can be present in numerous tissues and are often referred to as tissue-specific. These effector T cells are tissue-specific because they are produced and activated in response to antigens in specific tissues.
Homing of effector T cells to the gut is an essential part of the immune response. It is mediated by an interaction between the integrin A4B7 on the T cell and MACAM1 on the endothelial cell. The chemokine CCR9 guides T cells to the small intestine. It was discovered that binding to gut epithelium is improved by integrin AEB7 binding to cadherin once in the lamina propria. Hence, we conclude that antigen-activated T cells in the GALT effector T cells, enter the blood, and then populate mucosal tissues is not true.
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The recombination frequencies (RF) of genes A, B, C, D and E are as follows:
Relationship RF
B-D 0.27
C-D 0.2
A-D 0.21
B-C 0.04
A-B 0.48
A-E 0.5
B-E 0.5
D-E 0.5
C-E 0.5
What is the genetic distance between A and C genes? HINT: It helps to draw out the gene map before trying to answer. a. 44 CM b. 4.4 CM c. 2200 kDa d. 022 kDa
It is important to note that genetic distance is measured in centimorgans (CM), not kilodaltons (kDa). Genetic distance between A and C genes is 0.41 CM.The distance between two genes, A and C, is to be determined based on the following recombination frequencies (RF):Relationship RFB-D 0.27C-D 0.2A-D 0.21B-C 0.04A-B 0.48A-E 0.5B-E 0.5D-E 0.5C-E 0.5 In order to determine the genetic distance between genes A and C, a gene map must first be drawn.
B-D and A-D are both given in the above question, thus they can be represented in the gene map as follows:A-------D-------B Now, using the RF values provided, gene maps can be drawn for the remaining gene pairs:B-C: A-------D-------C-------B 0.04A-B: A-------B 0.48A-E: A-------E 0.5B-E: B-------E 0.5D-E: D-------E 0.5C-E: C-------E 0.5
Using the gene map above, it is clear that the distances are as follows:A-------D-------C--------B0.21 0.2 0.04 To calculate the distance between A and C, the distances between A and D, and D and C, must be added. Thus, the genetic distance between A and C is 0.21 + 0.2 = 0.41.
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