By taking prescription medication and avoiding mosquito bites, travellers can protect themselves from malaria.
Use bed nets that have insect repellent treatments, and wear pesticide-treated clothing. Additionally, you ought to apply a mosquito repellent. If you start taking certain medications before your trip, they can help avoid malaria. Consult your doctor before to your travel.
On exposed skin, apply insect repellent containing DEET (diethyltoluamide).
Bed netting with mosquito nets. Add screens to your doors and windows. Permethrin is an insect repellent that can be used to treat garments, mosquito nets, tents, sleeping bags, and other materials. Shield your skin by simply wearing long sleeves and pants.
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a patient is scheduled for a billroth i procedure for ulcer management. what does the nurse understand will occur when this procedure is performed? the vagus nerve is cut and gastric drainage is established.
A partial gastrectomy is performed along with anastomosis of the stomach segment to the duodenum.
What is a Billroth I procedure?
A Billroth I procedure or formally Billroth’s operation I is an operation wherein the lower portion of the antrum of the stomach is removed (which contains gastrin secreting cells) along with a small portion of the pylorus and duodenum.
This procedure is often performed after a gastrectomy, or the partial or complete removal of the stomach. Billroth I procedure preserves the duodenal passage and restores normal gastrointestinal physiology.
A Billroth I procedure is often recommended to patients with benign gastrointestinal system diseases.
Therefore, a partial gastrectomy is performed along with anastomosis of the stomach segment to the duodenum.
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the nurse at a well-baby clinic is assessing the motor development of a 24-month-old child. on the basis of the age of the child, the nurse expects to note what as the highest-level developmental milestone?
The nurse expects the child to have highest-level developmental milestone as in the child should open a door by turning the doorknob.
What is expected from a 24 month old baby ?
For 24 month olds, at least 100 words should be used, along with two word combinations. The youngster should come up with these word combinations; they shouldn't be "memorized chunks" of language like "thank you," "bye bye," "all gone," or "What's that?"
Most infants can: Run well by the time they are 24 months old.
Step up and down steps on your own.
Kick a ball while standing still.
Make a four-cube tower.
Write anything down on paper, then turn the pages of a book one at a time.
Shoe and pants removal.
feeding oneself and kissing oneself.
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a client is hospitalized when presenting to the emergency department with right-sided weakness. within 6 hours of being admitted, the neurologic deficits had resolved and the client was back to his presymptomatic state. the nurse caring for the client knows that the probable cause of the neurologic deficit was what?
The probable cause of the neurologic deficit is the Transient ischemic attack pg.
What is the neurologic deficit?
A neurologic deficit is defined as an abnormal function of a body area. The brain, spinal cord, muscles, or nerves have been injured, which has resulted in this impaired function. Examples comprise irregular reflexes. being unable to speak. The particular causes of neurological issues can vary, but they may include starvation, brain injury, spinal cord injury, or nerve injury. They may also include genetic illnesses, congenital anomalies or disorders, infections, lifestyle, or environmental health issues. Changes in movement, such as paralysis, weakness, lack of muscle control, increased or decreased muscle tone, or uncontrollable motions Changes in sensation, such as paresthesia, numbness, or loss of sensation.
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when explaining acute pancreatitis to a newly diagnosed client, the nurse will emphasize that the pathogenesis begins with an inflammatory process whereby:
Autodigestion of pancreatic tissue results from activated pancreatic enzymes escaping into neighboring tissues.
What is a disease's pathogenesis?The process through which an infection develops into a disease is known as pathogenesis.The following are the pathogenic pathways of viral disease: (1) implantation of the virus just at point of entry, (2) local replication, (3) dissemination towards target organs (disease sites), & (4) spread towards sites of virus shedding into the environment.
What is an illustration of pathogenesis?Pathogenesis can take many different forms, such as microbial infection, inflammation, cancer, and tissue destruction.For instance, bacterial pathogenesis is the process by which bacteria cause infectious disease.The majority of diseases are brought on by numerous processes.
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a woman is admitted to the antepartal unit with a diagnosis of a partial abruptio placentae. part of the plan of care for this woman should be to assess the fetus for signs of
Bleeding, uterine contractions, and fetal discomfort are common symptoms of abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption.
If Abruptio Placentae is present, what discoveries might the nurse anticipate observing?Acute stomach pain is a symptom of abruptio placentae. Placental abruptions are accompanied by uterine discomfort and pain, especially when there is a central abruption and blood is trapped beneath the placenta. As the blood permeates the myometrium and promotes uterine irritation, the abdomen will feel rigid and board-like when palpated.
Which of the following phases of the first stage has the fastest rate of cervical dilation?Which of the following phases of the first stage has the fastest rate of cervical dilation? The active phase is the phase during which cervical dilatation happens the fastest.
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a nurse is preparing to medicate an older adult client with an opioid analgesic. which information will the nurse obtain first to decide about administering the medication?'
Delirium, sleep disturbances, cognitive changes, and diminished functional abilities may result when pain is not managed adequately.
What is Delirium?
A major alteration in mental capacity is delirium. Thinking becomes muddled and one loses awareness of their environment as a result. Usually, the problem develops quickly - in a matter of hours or days.
Delirium frequently has one or more causes, but not always. A severe or protracted disease or an imbalance in the body, such as insufficient salt, may be contributing factors. Additionally, some medications, infections, surgeries, or alcohol or drug use or withdrawal may contribute to the illness
Three categories have been recognized by experts:
agitated delirium This type might be the simplest to identify. This personality type may pace the room restlessly. They might also experience anxiety, erratic mood swings, or delusions. This type of person frequently rejects care.
Dysactive hypoactivity These individuals may be inert or engage in decreased activities. They frequently appear lethargic or sleepy. They could appear to be confused. They don't talk to their relatives or other people.
Hybrid delirium Both kinds of delirium are present as symptoms. The individual may abruptly shift between being agitated and lethargic.
Hence, Delirium, sleep disturbances, cognitive changes, is the answer
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two body systems that may be logithe nurse is completing an abbreviated head-to-toe assessment of a client. what would the nurse perform when assessing the client's eyes?
The entire body is evaluated from head to toe, and the results will give the medical expert information on the patient's general health.
Which bodily systems are examined during a physical examination?Focused inquiries about the state of several bodily systems, including the cardiovascular, respiratory, neurological, gastrointestinal, urinary, and musculoskeletal systems, are made during a body system evaluation.
What evaluation is crucial while dealing with head injuries?The GCS should be performed after assessing the patient's airway, cervical spine protection, respiration, circulation, and hemorrhage management. All individuals with head injuries should be evaluated using the GCS score by qualified healthcare professionals.
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the family of a patient in hospice care for the final stage of lung cancer has summoned 911 because their father is short of breath. the patient is responsive to verbal stimuli and has an open airway with adequate respiration of 18 to 20 breaths per minute. his skin is cool and diaphoretic with diminished breath sounds bilaterally. your partner reports a heart rate of 112 beats/min, blood pressure of 96/44 mmhg, and spo2 of 82% on room air. the patient has a valid dnr order, but family is scared and wants him transported to the ed for evaluation. your next action would be to:
The nurse's next steps would be to administer additional oxygen, keep an eye on the patient's vital signs, and transport him or her to the emergency department.
An emergency department (ED) is a type of medical facility that specialises in providing acute care to patients who arrive without an appointment, either on their own volition or through ambulance. A quick and thorough assessment of a patient's injuries is followed by the creation of a patient care plan, which is primarily the responsibility of the emergency room nurse. Bone setting, blood transfusions, wound care, medication administration, and many other tasks are typical duties.
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a nurse is caring for a client in the compensatory stage of shock. what clinical finding would the client exhibit?
Answer:
compensatory respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:
the nurse, providing client teaching, explains that difenoxin and diphenoxylate are chemically related to what medication?
The nurse, providing client teaching, explains that difenoxin and diphenoxylate are chemically related to Demerol medication which is a opioid pain medication also known as meperidine.
What is a medication?The usage of right amount of drug to diagnose, treat, cure or prevent disease is clinically termed as medication. With drug or without drug other kinds of medicines are also used for such medication purposes.
Meperidine:Difenoxin and diphenoxylate are chemically related to meperidine medication which is a opioid pain medication and are used at doses which are helpful in decreasing gastrointestinal activity without creating any harmful analgesic or respiratory effects.
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which nursing action would the nurse take when caring for a patient during the acute phase of diabetic ketoacidosis?
Intravenous insulin, regular monitoring, and replenishment of electrolytes, namely potassium and sodium, can all be used to treat diabetic ketoacidosis.
What should a patient with DKA have monitored?Patients need to be checked on frequently and closely. Until the patient is stable, blood sugar levels should be checked every one to two hours. Depending on the severity of the DKA, blood urea nitrogen, serum creatinine, sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate levels should also be checked every two to six hours.
When a customer has diabetic ketoacidosis Which kind of insulin will be administered by the nurse?In DKA, only short-acting insulin is utilized to treat hyperglycemia. 100 mg/dL/h is the ideal rate for glucose decrease.
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angela conducts a study demonstrating that active learning strategies in a research methods course produce greater understanding of the material than passive learning strategies. she hopes that her results will apply to other research methods courses outside of the one she studied. angela is concerned with group of answer choices
Angela conducts a study to show that active learning strategies in a research methods course result in a better understanding of the material than passive learning strategies. Angela is concerned about Environmental generalization.
Active learning is an approach to demand that involves energetically charming graduates accompanying the course material through discussions, question-answering, case studies, duty plays, and added methods.
A key challenge in deep reinforcement learning (RL) is environment generalization: a procedure trained to answer a task in individual surroundings frequently fails to resolve the unchanging task in a kind of various test environment. Generalization admits the pupil to appropriate what they've well-informed during meetings and set it into practice in their nature.
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to assess the patient’s history related to dyspnea on exertion (doe) what question should the nurse ask the patient?
"What activities cause you to feel short of breath?" this is the question nurse should ask to a patient.
The type of activity and the amount of physical effort should elicit information about the client's DOE.
Few sensations are as frightening as not being able to get enough air. Shortness of breath — known medically as dyspnea — is often described as an intense tightening in the chest, air hunger, difficulty breathing, breathlessness or a feeling of suffocation.
Very strenuous exercise, extreme temperatures, obesity and higher altitude all can cause shortness of breath in a healthy person. Outside of these examples, shortness of breath is likely a sign of a medical problem.
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a client who is in the early first trimester of pregnancy has been encouraged to take a folic acid supplement. in addition, the nurse encourages the client to eat food rich in folic acid. which food should the nurse suggest the client eat?
a client who has been advised to take a folic acid supplement while in the early stages of her first trimester of pregnancy. Additionally, the nurse counsels the client to consume folic acid-rich foods.the benefits of folic acid before and during pregnancy
Progestins from oral contraceptives, amoxicillin, progesterone, albuterol, promethazine, and estrogenic compounds were the most frequently prescribed specific ingredients; over-the-counter ingredients included acetaminophen, ibuprofen, docusate, pseudoephedrine, aspirin, and naproxen trimester of pregnancy.Folic acid helps create the neural tube during the early stages of pregnancy when the fetus is developing. Folic acid is crucial because it can aid in preventing some serious birth malformations of the baby's spine and brain (anencephaly) (spina bifida).The greatest approach to lower your baby's risk of having a neural tube defect is to take folic acid supplements every day beginning 12 weeks before conception and continuing until at least 12 weeks of pregnancy.
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A client is being discharged after undergoing a thyroidectomy. Which discharge instructions are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.
1. "Report signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia."
2. "Take thyroid medication as ordered."
3. "Watch for signs in body functioning, such as lethargy, restlessness, sensitivity to cold, and dry skin, and report these changes to the physician."
4. "Recognize the signs of dehydration."
5. "Carry injectable dexamethasone at all times."
"As directed, take thyroid medicine." and "Report any alterations in your body's functioning, such as tiredness, restlessness, susceptibility to cold, or dry skin, to your doctor."
What do you mean by symptoms?Every ailment or disease that a person may be experiencing on a bodily or mental level. Hidden symptoms do not show up on diagnostic examinations. Some symptoms include pain, nausea, fatigue, and headaches.
What are symptoms vs signs?Only one person who can accurately detect a symptom is the one who is experiencing it. Signs are quantifiable, measurable, and objective results. Getting a diagnosis requires consideration of both an underlying health condition's indications and symptoms..
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a 60-year-old female with a recent history of head trauma and a long-term history of hypertension presents to the er for changes in mental status. mri reveals that she had a hemorrhage stroke. this type of stroke is often caused by:
Aneurysms is the correct answers
What is hypertension?
The arteries in the body are impacted by the prevalent condition of high blood pressure. Additionally known as hypertension. The blood's constant pressure against the artery walls is too high if you have high blood pressure. To pump blood, the heart has to work harder.Millimeters of mercury are used to measure blood pressure (mm Hg). An average blood pressure reading of 130/80 mm Hg or greater is considered to be hypertension.The American Heart Association and the American College of Cardiology classify blood pressure into four broad categories.
healthy blood pressure. At least 120/80 mm Hg for blood pressure.
high blood pressure The bottom number is below, not over, 80 mm Hg, and the top number falls between 120 and 129 mm Hg.
first-stage hypertension. The top number is in the 130–139 mm Hg range, and the bottom number is in the 80–89 mm Hg range.
Second-stage hypertension The top number is at least 140 millimeters of mercury, or the bottom number is at least 90.
Hence, Aneurysms is the correct answers
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a nurse is conducting a refresher program for a group of nurses returning to work in the newborn clinic. the nurse is reviewing the protocols for assessing vital signs in healthy newborns and infants. the nurse determines that additional education is needed when the group identifies which parameter as being included in the assessment?
In a refresher program, the nurse determines that additional education is needed when the group identifies blood pressure being included in the assessment of vital signs in healthy newborns and infants.
A refresher program is meant to bring learners back to the fundamentals, so they'll review a number of the basics they'll have forgotten, or brush up new information they'll not bear in mind of.
Blood pressure is a condition within which the force of the blood against the artery walls is simply too high. Usually high blood pressure is outlined as force per unit area on top of 140/90, and is taken into account severe if the pressure is on top of 180/120. consumption a healthier diet with less salt, sweat often and taking medication will facilitate lower blood pressure.
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a physician suspects urinary tract referred pain in a patient with right shoulder complaints. what part of the urinary system would refer pain to the right shoulder?
Auscultation led to the patient being taken to the emergency room with a suspected AMI since shoulder pain (SP) can come from both visceral and musculoskeletal sources.
which body part refers discomfort to the right shoulder?Your phrenic nerve becomes irritated and swollen when your gallbladder is affected. From the abdomen, through the chest, and into the neck is the phrenic nerve. A fatty meal irritates the nerve and results in referred pain in your right shoulder blade each time you consume it.
What is the source of soreness near the right shoulder blade?Muscular strain: The most frequent cause of shoulder blade pain is muscle strain, which can result from strenuous exercise, heavy lifting, or simply sleeping incorrectly. If your discomfort is accompanied by popping and cracking sounds, you may have snapping scapula syndrome.
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the client receives a prescription for niacin, and the nurse is providing education about the medication. what should the nurse teach the client about possible adverse effects of the medication?
"Some people get very flushed skin when they take this medication." is what the nurse should warn the client about.
What is the use of niacin medication?
High-density lipoprotein (HDL), the "good" cholesterol that aids in the removal of low-density lipoprotein (LDL), the "bad" cholesterol, from your system, is increased by prescription niacin. Niacin is available in oral tablet and extended-release (long-acting) tablet forms. The extended-release tablet is typically taken once daily, at bedtime, following a low-fat snack, while the standard pill is typically taken two to three times daily with meals.
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which questions should the nurse ask a patient who is concerned with infertitlity as part of the history of present illness
How long have u been trying to conceive baby for? Is the questions should the nurse ask a patient who is concerned with infertility as part of the history of present illness.
What medicines you are currently taking?The next question the nurse should ask to the patient who is concerned with infertility as part of the history of present illness is the above mentioned one and is not able to conceive for a longer time
What is infertility?When a person is not able to get pregnant(conceive) even after the one year or longer unprotected sex is termed as infertility.
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which response by the nurse best answers a client's question regarding the purpose of white fat? energy storage heat production gluconeogenesis blood sugar regulation
The best response by the nurse in answering a client’s question about the purpose of white fat is: energy storage. Hence, the answer is: A.
What is white fat and its purpose?White fat or white adipose tissue (WAT) is made up of large lipid or fat droplets that our body uses as storage space for the excess calories. The white fat mostly consists of lipid-filled adipocytes and several non-adipocyte cells, such as adipocyte precursor cells, blood, endothelial, and stromal cells. This fat can be found beneath the skin, around our internal organs, and in the central cavity of our bones.
White fat is very crucial to our body as it has the purpose to:
Stores excess energy in triglycerides form.Releases fatty acids via lipolysis to be used by other organs.Cushions and insulates our body.Protects our vital organs.From what was just described, we can conclude that white fat purpose is energy storage.
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the nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a client who has liver failure. which finding would place the client at increased risk for bleeding? increased levels of vitamin k increased prothrombin time increased platelet count decreased number of red blood cells
Increased prothrombin time will put client at increased risk for bleeding.
Explanantion:
Patients with liver failure have decreased vitamin K absorption, which affects the body's ability to synthesize clotting components. The client is more likely to bleed if their prothrombin time, a coagulation factor, is elevated. The liver produces prothrombin, fibrinogen, and factors V, VII, IX, and X; as their production decreases with liver illness, bleeding disorders result. Increased bleeding won't result from a drop in RBC. The blood will clot as a result of an elevated platelet count.
What is prothrombin?
The liver produces the protein called thrombin. Blood clotting is aided by prothrombin. The "prothrombin time" (PT), which is measured in seconds, is one approach to determine how long it takes blood to clot (such as 13.2 seconds). The availability of blood-clotting protein is indicated by a normal PT.
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when caring for a client with advanced cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy, which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
Handwriting and/or cognitive performance of the client change.
An patient having hepatic encephalopathy needs to be monitored for what?Hepatic encephalopathy cannot be detected with a conventional test.Blood tests, however, are able to detect issues like infections and bleeding linked to liver illness.To rule out illnesses like strokes and brain tumors, which have symptoms that are similar to yours, your doctor may conduct additional testing.
How would you assess a person who has hepatic encephalopathy?MHE can be identified using the Psychometric Hepatic Encephalopathy Score (PHES), which has proven to be sensitive and specific.The PHES consists of five exams: the number connection tests A and B, the serial dotting test, the line tracing test, and the digit symbol test.
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a client is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (sle). what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in order to evaluate the client's stage of disease?
An autoimmune disease called SLE causes the immune system to attack its own tissues, which causes severe tissue destruction and inflammation in the affected organs.
Which of the following rheumatoid arthritis (RA) treatment modalities is frequently used first?Methotrexate is usually administered as the first drug for rheumatoid arthritis, often in combination with another DMARD and a brief course of steroids (corticosteroids) to alleviate any pain. These might be combined with biological treatments.
Which drugs are recommended as first-line therapy for a patient with recently discovered rheumatoid arthritis?To control the condition, various pharmaceutical combinations are frequently employed. Usually, the first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis is methotrexate. Tumor necrosis factor inhibitors are typically regarded as second-line drugs or can be coupled to other medications for combination therapy.
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which education would the nurse provide the parents of an infant with phenylketonuria about the etiologyo f the ocndition
The nurse should provide the parents of an infant with phenylketonuria about the etiology of the condition that this disorder was inherited from parents which is autosomal recessive.
What is phenylketonuria ?Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inborn error of metabolism in body which generally results in decreased metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine (C9H11NO2).
What is meant by autosomal recessive?It (autosomal recessive) is a way or method by which genetic traits are passed on from parents to child.
What happens if PKU is untreated?There are chances of occurring cognitive impairment if it is not treated at proper time. A low diet know as phenylalanine diet is also required.
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you are assessing an 80-year-old patient who explains that he was awakened by a sudden feeling of suffocation and respiratory distress. these symptoms are characteristic of:
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is characterized by these symptoms.
What does it mean to be a patient?Patient is a translation of the Latin word "patiens," which means to suffer or endure. In this terminology, the patient is genuinely passive, experiencing the required discomfort and bearing with the outside expert's actions.
A patient individual is what?Anywhere there is annoyance or difficulty, which is almost everywhere, we have the chance to develop patience since it involves being able to wait patiently in the face of these emotions. The secret to a happy existence, though, may lie in having patience.
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under which emergency severity index (esi) level would the nurse triage the client who incurred multiple trauma after a bus crash and whose vital function is threatened?
Clients with multiple traumas or ischemia-related chest discomfort should be placed under ESI-2, which denotes the stability of the client.
ESI 3: What does it mean?ESI 1 and 2 are regarded as "emergent," ESI 3 is regarded as "urgent," and ESI 4 and 5 are regarded as "non-urgent" when ESI is correlated to a three-level structure. Due to ESI's standardization and testing, it can be used to compare emergency departments' acuity and inpatient bed utilization.
In an emergency room, what is ESI?Indicator of Emergency Severity (ESI) The ESI Implementation Handbook, henceforth referred to as A Triage Tool for Emergency Department Care, offers an anticipated patient distribution in a typical ED with ongoing training and quality assurance programs in place.
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dave was arrested for and convicted of a drug-related offense. because of his history of drug problems, he has been referred by the court for drug dependence treatment. drug dependence treatment has been shown to be:
more successful than incarceration in lowering recidivism such as repeat offenses
How does recidivism manifest itself?Recidivism is defined as committing an offense or breaking the law again after receiving punishment or after stopping a particular behavior. For instance, a first-day release from jail results in a minor offender committing another theft right away.
. What are the three causes of a high recidivism rate?Numerous factors can contribute to recidivism, including interactions with others while incarcerated, a lack of employment and other financial opportunities, depression, a failure to reintegrate into society, an unchanging lifestyle and social network after release, and the failure of the criminal justice system to address underlying issues before release.
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a client who is 6 weeks' pregnant comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. what is the most immediate need for the nurse to address for this client?
The nurse's top three priorities for this client are to weigh them, check their blood pressure, and listen for foetal heart sounds.
During labour, when does the membrane burst?Prelabor rupture, however, occurs sporadically in healthy pregnancies when the membranes burst before labour even begins. Prelabor membrane rupture may happen before or beyond the due date (at 37 weeks or later, when pregnancy is regarded as full term) (called preterm prelabor rupture if it occurs earlier than 37 weeks).
How a woman feels during pregnancy?Morning sickness typically starts one to two months after becoming pregnant and can happen at any time of the day or night. But some women experience nausea earlier, while others never do.
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during dinner time on an inpatient unit, an adolescent client throws a tray across the table. what would be an effective use of limit setting with this client?
Cognitive-behavioral therapy is one form of treatment for conduct disorder. A adolescent gains superior problem-solving, communication, and stress-management skills.
Who among your clients is most likely to have a background of intermittent explosive disorder?Intermittent explosive disorder is more likely to occur in people with antisocial personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, or other conditions that entail disruptive behaviours, such as attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Is a trip to a neutral location necessary for clients to restore control?Describe time-out. To help clients regain self-control, it involves retreating to a neutral location. It's not a penalty. Time-outs can stop violence or outbursts when a client's behaviour starts to worsen, for as when the client starts yelling or threatening others.
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