Question 3
There is a fundraising for charity
in one of the stores. They give 5c to
charity for every rand spent at the shop.
3.1. Determine the percentage of the funds that goes to charity.
3.2. Karabo spent R150 in the shop, how much will be given to charity.
1.3. Determine the ratio (in simplest form) of the funds that goes to charity to (3)
​

Answer:

the area should be 3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

12.76 in³

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a sphere formula is V = (4/3)πr³.

Here we use 3.14 for π and 1.45 in for r.  We get:

V = (4/3)(3.14)(1.45 in)³ ≈ 12.76 in³

Answer:

see in the picture, we can see that SPRQ is a parallelogram

=> 70 = 14x

⇔ x = 70/14

⇔ x = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A) P(X ≥ 3 ) = 0.7648

B) P(X ≥ 6) = 0.7515

C) P(X < 5) = 0.0949

D) P(X < 6) = 0.00031113

Yes. This is likely to happen if the true value of p is 0.65

E) P(X ≥ 17) = 0.012118

No. This is unlikely to happen if the true value of p is 0.65

Step-by-step explanation:

Solving this question means we have to deal with binomial probability distribution which follows a formula;

P(X = x) = C(n, x) * p^(x) * (1 - p)^(n - x)

We are given p = 65% = 0.65

A) probability of getting At least 3 out of the 5 business days, we have;

P(X ≥ 3 ) = P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5)

And n = 5

Thus;

P(X = 3) = C(5, 3) × 0.65³ × (1 - 0.65)^(5 - 3)

P(X = 3) = 0.3364

P(X = 4) = C(5, 4) × 0.65⁴ × (1 - 0.65)^(5 - 4)

P(X = 4) = 0.3124

P(X = 5) = C(5, 5) × 0.65^(5) × (1 - 0.65)^(5 - 5)

P(X = 5) = 0.116

Thus;

P(X ≥ 3 ) = 0.3364 + 0.3124 + 0.116

P(X ≥ 3 ) = 0.7648

B) Probability of getting at least 6 out of the 10 business days.

P(X ≥ 6) = P(X = 6) + P(X = 7) + P(X = 8) + P(X = 9) + P(X = 10)

From online binomial calculator, we have;

P(X = 6) = 0.2377

P(X = 7) = 0.2522

P(X = 8) = 0.1757

P(X = 9) = 0.0725

P(X = 10) = 0.0134

P(X ≥ 6) = 0.2377 + 0.2522 + 0.1757 + 0.0725 + 0.0134

P(X ≥ 6) = 0.7515

C) probability of getting fewer than 5 out of the 10 business days.

P(X < 5) = P(X = 4) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 1)

From online binomial calculator, we have;

P(X = 4) = 0.0689

P(X = 3) = 0.0212

P(X = 2) = 0.0043

P(X = 1) = 0.0005

P(X < 5) = 0.0689 + 0.0212 + 0.0043 + 0.0005

P(X < 5) = 0.0949

D)probability of getting fewer than 6 out of the next 20 business days;

P(X < 6) = P(X = 5) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 1)

From online binomial calculator, we have;

P(X = 5) = 0.000261

P(X = 4) = 0.000044

P(X = 3) = 0.0000056

P(X = 2) = 0.0000005

P(X = 1) = 0.00000003

P(X < 6) = 0.000261 + 0.000044 + 0.0000056 + 0.0000005 + 0.00000003

P(X < 6) = 0.00031113

Yes, in this scenario, It is likely to happen and I would think p is less than 0.65 because probability is less than 1 out of 1000.

E) probability of getting more than 17 out of the next 20 business days.

P(X ≥ 17) = P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20)

From online binomial calculator, we have;

P(X = 18) = 0.0099846

P(X = 19) = 0.00195187

P(X = 20) = 0.00018125

P(X ≥ 17) = 0.0099846 + 0.00195187 + 0.00018125

P(X ≥ 17) = 0.012118

Probability is around 12 in 100 and not up to 50%. Thus, This is unlikely to happen if the true value of p is 0.65

Answer:

b

5x+3

Step-by-step explanation:

5×3=15+4=18

5×4=20+3=23

5×8=40+3=43

5×10=50+3=53

hope this helps

Answer:

option B

polynomial cannot have negative power

hope it helps

Answer:

-0.499

Step-by-step explanation:

Isnt that it? xD

or 1.41

Answer:

8 and 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8 and 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Vertex is 3,1

Domain is 0<x<6

Range is : -9<x<1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

This is NOT a solution

Step-by-step explanation:

If we plug in the coordinates (-4,3) into 4x-y our new equation is 4×-4-3 and if we solve this equation.... 4×-4=-16 and -16-3=-19 which does NOT equal to -13

Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Yes it is true!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

X = 4

y = 15

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope that is useful for you :)

Answer:

The measure of side FG is 3.

Step-by-step explanation:

Dilation is a process in which the dimensions of a given shape or figure is either increased or decreased by a scale factor to produce its image.

From the given question,

scale factor = 5

measure of side F'G' = 15

Thus,

scale factor = [tex]\frac{measure of side F'G'}{measure of side FG}[/tex]

side F'G' = scale factor x side FG

⇒ 15 = 5 x side FG

So that,

side FG = [tex]\frac{15}{5}[/tex]

             = 3

The measure of side FG is 3.

Answer:

Y would be 6

Step-by-step explanation:

it's shown in the graph that when you go to the x value of 5 and follow it the only point there is (5,6) so the answer is 6

Answer:

no thank you

Step-by-step explanation:

put on 0

Answer:

the total weight sold is 750g

Step-by-step explanation:

300+150=450

450+300 = 750

please mark me as brainliest its beside the rate sign and it looks like a king icon

Answer:

C is correct. If the scale factor is greater than 1, the image is an enlargement. The segment UT could be an enlargement of the segment ST.

Step-by-step explanation:

A. If > 1, then the image of could be .  

B. If 0 < < 1, then the image of could be . ( If the scale factor is between 0 and 1, the image is a reduction )

C. If > 1, then the image of could be .

D.If = 2, then the image of is itself.

A is not correct.  If the scale factor is between 0 and 1, the image is a reduction.

B is not correct.  If the scale factor is between 0 and 1, the image is a reduction.

C is correct.  If the scale factor is greater than 1, the image is an enlargement.

D is not correct.  If the scale factor is 1, the figure and the image are congruent.

The dilation factor for triangle PST (K₁) is less than that of triangle PUV (K₂).

Given is a diagram that represents a dilation with a center at {P}. The scale factor of the dilation is {K}.

The dilation factor for triangle PST (K₁) is less than that of triangle PUV (K₂).

Therefore, the dilation factor for triangle PST (K₁) is less than that of triangle PUV (K₂).

To solve more questions on dilation, visit the link below-

brainly.com/question/13439872

#SPJ5

Answer:

i believe it is c or b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y=2x+2

Step-by-step explanation:

2 is the y intercept and you get the formula y=mx+b so b=2 and m is the slope which is rise over run to get 2.

Answer:

48 ways

Step-by-step explanation:

Treat the vowels as 1 unit by itself which in this case is A & E.

Imagine filling in 4 slots:

_ _ _ _ , since A&E are treated as 1 letter.

Thus we have 4 ways to fill in 1st slot, 3 ways for 2nd, 2 for 3rd and 1 for last.

which makes 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 = 24.

However, do note A&E can be arranged as AE or EA meaning,

we need to multiply by 2 factorial.

24 * 2 = 48

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2 is the answer to your question

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: C: 204 ft

Step-by-step explanation: plz mark me brainliest. 12x17=204