Question 3: Explain in your own words what happens with the energy terms for a stone falling from a height into a bucket of water. Assume the water and stone are at the same temperature, which is higher than the surrounding temperature. What would happen if the object was a bouncing ball falling to a hard surface?

Answers

Answer 1

When a stone is dropped from a certain height into a bucket of water, it undergoes a potential to kinetic energy conversion. When the stone is lifted, it possesses a certain amount of potential energy due to its position. This energy is converted into kinetic energy as the stone starts falling towards the water.

At the same time, the water exerts an opposing force against the stone, which leads to a decrease in its kinetic energy. When the stone finally hits the water, the kinetic energy gets converted into sound and heat energy, causing a splash and a rise in temperature of the water.

In case a bouncing ball is dropped onto a hard surface, the potential energy is converted into kinetic energy as the ball falls towards the surface. Once it touches the surface, the kinetic energy is converted into potential energy. The ball bounces back up due to the elastic force exerted by the surface, which converts the potential energy into kinetic energy again. The process of conversion of potential to kinetic energy and back continues until the ball stops bouncing, and all its energy is dissipated in the form of heat.

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Related Questions

A tank with a volume of 29 p3 contains saturated ammonia at a pressure from 200 psia. Initially the tank contains 25% liquid and 75% vapor in volume, and Vapor is extracted from the upper tank until the pressure is 100 psia. Assuming that only steam comes out and that the process is adiabatic. Calculate the dough of extracted ammonia.

Answers

Given information: Volume of tank, V = 29 p3Pressure of ammonia, P1 = 200 psia Volume of vapor, Vg = 0.75V = 0.75 x 29 = 21.75 p3Volume of liquid, Vf = 0.25V = 0.25 x 29 = 7.25 p3Final pressure of ammonia, P2 = 100 psia.

To find: Mass of extracted ammonia, m .

Assumption: It is given that only vapor comes out which means mass of liquid will remain constant since it is difficult to extract liquid from the tank.

Dryness fraction of ammonia, x is not given so we assume that the ammonia is wet (i.e., x < 1).

Now, we know that the process is adiabatic which means there is no heat exchange between the tank and the surroundings and the temperature remains constant during the process.

Therefore, P1V1 = P2V2, where V1 = Vf + Vg = 7.25 + 21.75 = 29 p3.

Substituting the values, 200 × 29 = 100 × V2⇒ V2 = 58 p3.

Now, we can use steam tables to find the mass of ammonia extracted. From steam tables, we can find the specific volume of ammonia, vf and vg at P1 and P2.

Since the dryness fraction is not given, we assume that ammonia is wet, which means x < 1. The specific volume of wet ammonia can be calculated using the formula:

V = (1 - x) vf + x vg.

Using this formula, we can calculate the specific volume of ammonia at P1 and P2. At P1, the specific volume of wet ammonia is:

V1 = (1 - x) vf1 + x vg1At P2, the specific volume of wet ammonia is:

V2 = (1 - x) vf2 + x vg2where vf1, vg1, vf2, and vg2 are the specific volume of saturated ammonia at P1 and P2, respectively.

We can look up the values of vf and vg from steam tables.

From steam tables, we get: v f1 = 0.0418 ft3/lbv g1 = 4.158 ft3/lbv f2 = 0.0959 ft3/lbv g2 = 2.395 ft3/lb.

Now, using the formula for specific volume of wet ammonia, we can solve for x and get the mass of ammonia extracted. Let’s do this: X = (V2 - Vf2) / (Vg2 - Vf2).

Substituting the values:

X = (58 - 0.0959) / (2.395 - 0.0959) = 0.968m = xVg2 mVg2 = 0.968 × 2.395 × 29m = 64.5 lb (approximately).

Therefore, the mass of extracted ammonia is 64.5 lb (approx).

Answer: The mass of extracted ammonia is 64.5 lb (approx).

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1. Explain any one type of DC motor with a neat
diagram.
2. Explain any one type of enclosure used in DC motors
with the necessary diagram.

Answers

1. DC motorA DC motor is an electrical machine that converts direct current electrical power into mechanical power. These types of motors function on the basis of magnetic forces. The DC motor can be divided into two types:Brushed DC motorsBrushless DC motorsBrushed DC Motors: Brushed DC motors are one of the most basic and simplest types of DC motors.

They are commonly used in low-power applications. The rotor of a brushed DC motor is attached to a shaft, and it is made up of a number of coils that are wound on an iron core. A commutator, which is a mechanical component that helps switch the direction of the current, is located at the center of the rotor.

Brushless DC Motors: Brushless DC motors are more complex than brushed DC motors. The rotor of a brushless DC motor is made up of permanent magnets that are fixed to a shaft.

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A fixed bias JFET whose VDD = 14V, RD =1.6k, VGG = -1.5 v, RG =1M,IDSS = 8mA, and VP = -4V. Solve for: a. ID = ________ MA b. VGS = ________ V
c. VDS = ________ V

Answers

In the Given question , A fixed bias JFET whose VDD = 14V, RD =1.6k, VGG = -1.5 v, RG =1M,IDSS = 8mA, and VP = -4V.

Given :
VDD = 14V
RD = 1.6k
VGG = -1.5V
RG = 1M
IDSS = 8mA
VP = -4V

The expression for ID is given by:
ID = (IDSS) / 2 * [(VP / VGG) + 1]²

Substituting the given values,
ID = (8mA) / 2 * [( -4V / -1.5V) + 1]²
ID = (8mA) / 2 * (2.67)²
ID = 8.96mA

Substituting the given values,
VGS = -1.5V - 8.96mA * 1M
VGS = -10.46V

b. VGS = -10.46V

The expression for VDS is given by:
VDS = VDD – ID * RD

Substituting the given values,
VDS = 14V - 8.96mA * 1.6k
VDS = 0.85V

c. VDS = 0.85V

the values are as follows:
a. ID = 8.96mA
b. VGS = -10.46V
c. VDS = 0.85V

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A ladder and a person weigh 15 kg and 80 kg respectively, as shown in Figure Q1. The centre of mass of the 36 m ladder is at its midpoint. The angle a = 30° Assume that the wall exerts a negligible friction force on the ladder. Take gravitational acceleration as 9.81m/s? a) Draw a free body diagram for the ladder when the person's weight acts at a distance x = 12 m Show all directly applied and reaction forces.

Answers

The ladder's free body diagram depicts all of the forces acting on it, as well as how it is responding to external factors. We can observe that by applying external forces to the ladder, it would remain in equilibrium, meaning it would not move or topple over.

Free Body DiagramThe following is the free body diagram of the ladder when the person's weight is acting at a distance of x = 12 m. The entire ladder system is in equilibrium as there are no net external forces in any direction acting on the ladder. Consequently, the system's center of gravity remains at rest.Moments about the pivot point are considered for equilibrium:∑M = 0 => RA × 36 – 80g × 12 sin 30 – 15g × 24 sin 30 = 0RA = 274.16 NAll other forces can be calculated using RA.

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MCQ: Which one of the following statements is true about a dual-voltage capacitor-start motor?
A. The auxiliary-winding circuit operates at 115 volts on 115-volt and 230-volt circuits.
B. The main windings are identical to obtain the same starting torques on 115-volt and 230-volt circuits.
C. The direction of rotation is reversed by interchanging the leads of one main winding.
D. The main windings are connected in series for 115-volt operation.
2. An auxiliary phase winding is used in a single-phase fractional horsepower motor to
A. decrease flux density. B. decrease motor heating. C. reverse motor rotation. D. increase motor speed.
3. The device which responds to the heat developed within the motor is the
A. shading coil. B. short-circuiter. C. bimetallic protector. D. current-operated relay.

Answers

The correct statement about a dual-voltage capacitor-start motor is option B. The main windings are identical to obtain the same starting torques on 115-volt and 230-volt circuits.

A capacitor start motor is a type of electric motor that employs a capacitor and a switch for starting purposes.

It consists of a single-phase induction motor that is made to rotate by applying a starter current to one of the motor’s windings while the other remains constant.

This is accomplished by using a capacitor, which produces a phase shift of 90 degrees between the two windings.

2. The answer to the second question is option C. Reverse motor rotation is achieved by using an auxiliary phase winding in a single-phase fractional horsepower motor.

In order to start the motor, this auxiliary winding is used. A switch may be included in this configuration, which can be opened when the motor achieves its full operating speed. This winding will keep the motor running in the right direction.

3. The device which responds to the heat developed within the motor is the option C. A bimetallic protector responds to the heat produced inside the motor.

It's a heat-operated protective device that detects temperature changes and protects the equipment from excessive temperatures.

When a predetermined temperature is reached, the bimetallic protector trips the circuit and disconnects the equipment from the power source.

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Q1) Search about Design and Fabrication for compressor in Ac of car supported with photographs

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The compressor is a vital component of the car's air conditioning system. It is responsible for compressing the refrigerant gas, which then flows through the condenser and evaporator, cooling the air inside the car. The compressor is typically driven by the engine, but it can also be powered by an electric motor.

The compressor is a complex machine, and its design and fabrication requires a high level of engineering expertise. The compressor must be able to operate at high pressures and temperatures, and it must be durable enough to withstand the rigors of everyday use. The compressor is also required to be energy-efficient, as this can save the car owner money on fuel costs.

The compressor is typically made of cast iron or aluminum, and it is fitted with a number of moving parts, including a piston, a crankshaft, and a flywheel. The compressor is lubricated with oil, which helps to reduce friction and wear. The compressor is also equipped with a number of sensors, which monitor its performance and alert the driver if there is a problem.

The compressor is a critical component of the car's air conditioning system, and its design and fabrication are essential to ensuring that the system operates efficiently and effectively.

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The turning moment diagram for an engine is drawn to the following scales: Turning moment 1mm = 60 Nm: crank angle, Imm= 10, shows the maximum energy that needs to be stored by the flywheel in unit area is 2850 m2. The flywheel rotates at an average speed of 220 rpm with a total speed change of 2.5%. If the mass of the flywheel is 500 kg, find the appropriate dimensions (inner diameter, outer diameter and thickness) of the flywheel. Given the inner diameter of the flywheel is 0.9 outer diameter and the density is 7.2 Mg/m3

Answers

We can calculate the dimensions of the flywheel using the given information and the above formulas. m = Volume * ρ

To determine the dimensions of the flywheel, we need to calculate the energy stored and use it to find the required mass and dimensions.

Calculate the energy stored in the flywheel:

The maximum energy stored per unit area (U) is given as 2850 m². Since the total energy stored (E) is directly proportional to the volume of the flywheel, we can calculate it as follows:

E = U * Volume

Calculate the total energy stored in the flywheel:

The total energy stored is given by:

E = (1/2) * I * ω²

Where I is the moment of inertia and ω is the angular velocity.

Calculate the moment of inertia (I) of the flywheel:

The moment of inertia can be calculated using the formula:

I = m * r²

Where m is the mass of the flywheel and r is the radius of gyration.

Calculate the radius of gyration (r):

The radius of gyration can be calculated using the formula:

r = √(I / m)

Calculate the inner diameter (D_inner) and outer diameter (D_outer) of the flywheel:

Given that the inner diameter is 0.9 times the outer diameter, we can express the relationship as:

D_inner = 0.9 * D_outer

Calculate the thickness (t) of the flywheel:

The thickness can be calculated as:

t = (D_outer - D_inner) / 2

Given the density (ρ) of the flywheel material, we can calculate the mass (m) as:

m = Volume * ρ

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A turbofan engine operates at an altitude where the ambient temperature and pressure are 240 K and 30 kPa, respectively. The flight Nach number is 0.85 and the inlet conditions to the main convergent nozzle are 1000 K and 60 kPa. If the nozzle efficiency is 0.95, the ratio of specific heats is 1.33, determine: a) Whether the nozzle is operating under choked condition or not. b) Determine the nozzle exit pressure.

Answers

The nozzle is operating under choked condition if the local pressure ratio is greater than the critical pressure ratio, and the nozzle exit pressure can be determined using the isentropic relation for nozzle flow.

Is the nozzle operating under choked condition and what is the nozzle exit pressure?

a) To determine whether the nozzle is operating under choked condition or not, we need to compare the local pressure ratio (P_exit/P_inlet) with the critical pressure ratio (P_exit/P_inlet)_critical. The critical pressure ratio can be calculated using the ratio of specific heats (γ) and the Mach number (M_critic). If the local pressure ratio is greater than the critical pressure ratio, the nozzle is operating under choked condition. Otherwise, it is not.

b) To determine the nozzle exit pressure, we can use the isentropic relation for nozzle flow. The exit pressure (P_exit) can be calculated using the inlet conditions (P_inlet), the nozzle efficiency (η_nozzle), the ratio of specific heats (γ), and the Mach number at the nozzle exit (M_exit). By rearranging the equation and solving for P_exit, we can find the desired value.

Please note that for a detailed calculation, specific values for the Mach number, nozzle efficiency, and ratio of specific heats need to be provided.

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14. Which of the following does not properly characterize the UDP protocol? (a) datagram (b) unreliable (c) connectionless (d) in order delivery 15. Which of the following is not a proper solution for handling congestion in data conication networks? (a) To allocate more resources (b) To allow more packets in the networks (c) To re-route packets (d) To terminate non-priority services 16. What is the primary purpose of the routing proces? (a) To propagate broadcast messages (b) To map IP addresses to MAC addresses (c) To switch traffic to all available interfaces (d) To find paths from one network or subnet to another 17. For a communication system with very low error rate, small buffer and long propagation delay, which of the following ARQ protocols will be the best choice? (a) Go-Back-N (b) Stop-and-Wait (c) Selective Repeat. (d) Any of above 18. Which one is not included in the TCP/IP protocol suite? (a) Session (b) Network layer (c) Transport layer (d) Application layer 19. Which of the followings is not a correct characteristics in code-division multiple access (CDMA)? (a) It need to implement a dynamic power control mechanism. (b) The degree of interference is independent of the number of users. (c) It requires all the signals at the receiver to have approximately the same power (d) A powerful transmission from a nearby station could overwhelm the desired signal from a distan station

Answers

14. (d) in order delivery

15. (d) To terminate non-priority services

16. (d) To find paths from one network or subnet to another

17. (b) Stop-and-Wait

18. (a) Session

19. (c) It requires all the signals at the receiver to have approximately the same power

14. The UDP protocol does not guarantee in-order delivery of packets. Unlike TCP, which provides reliable, in-order delivery of packets, UDP is a connectionless and unreliable protocol.

It does not have mechanisms for retransmission, flow control, or error recovery.

15. Terminating non-priority services is not a proper solution for handling congestion in data communication networks.

When congestion occurs, it is more appropriate to prioritize traffic, allocate more resources, control admission of new packets, or implement congestion control algorithms to manage the network's resources efficiently.

16. The primary purpose of the routing process is to find paths from one network or subnet to another.

Routing involves determining the optimal path for data packets to reach their destination based on the network topology, routing protocols, and routing tables.

It enables packets to be forwarded across networks and subnets.

17. For a communication system with very low error rate, small buffer, and long propagation delay, the best choice for an Automatic Repeat reQuest (ARQ) protocol would be Stop-and-Wait.

Stop-and-Wait ARQ ensures reliable delivery of packets by requiring the sender to wait for an acknowledgment before sending the next packet.

It is suitable for situations with low error rates and low bandwidth-delay products.

18. The session layer is not included in the TCP/IP protocol suite. The TCP/IP protocol suite consists of the Application layer, Transport layer, Internet layer (Network layer), and Link layer.

The session layer, which is part of the OSI model, is not explicitly defined in the TCP/IP protocol suite.

19. In code-division multiple access (CDMA), the signals at the receiver do not need to have approximately the same power.

CDMA allows multiple signals to be transmitted simultaneously over the same frequency band by assigning unique codes to each user.

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Kilograms of Saturated water liquid at 200kPa is in a constant pressure piston cylinder. At this state the piston is 0.1 m from the cylinder bottom. The water is heated to occupy 200 times the original volume:
a) initial volume in m3
b) initial temperature in C
c) final volume in m3
d) final quality X2

Answers

To solve the given problem, we can use the properties of saturated water in a constant pressure piston-cylinder system. Here's how we can approach each part of the problem:

a) To find the initial volume, we need to determine the specific volume (v) of saturated water at 200 kPa. The specific volume can be obtained from the saturated water table. Let's assume the initial specific volume is v1.

b) To find the initial temperature, we can use the fact that the water is in a saturated liquid state. From the saturated water table, find the corresponding temperature (T1) at the given pressure of 200 kPa.

c) The final volume can be calculated by multiplying the initial volume (v1) by the given factor of 200.

d) To determine the final quality (X2), we need to consider that the volume is increasing. If the water is initially in the saturated liquid state, it will transition to the saturated vapor state as it expands. Thus, the final quality (X2) will be 1.0, indicating that the water has completely vaporized.

Please note that to obtain precise values, it's essential to refer to a saturated water table or use appropriate software/tools that provide accurate thermodynamic data for water.

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2) (40%) True or false? a) For horizontal flow of a liquid in a rectangular duct between parallel plates, the pressure varies linearly both in the direction of flow and in the direction normal to the plates. b) For flows occurring between r= 0 and r= a in cylindrical coordinates, the term In r may appear in the final expression for one of the velocity components. c) For flows in ducts and pipes, the volumetric flow rate can be obtained by differentiating the velocity profile. d) If, in three dimensions, the pressure obeys the equation Op/ dy = -pg, and both Op/ Ox and op/ öz are nonzero, then integration of this equation gives the pressure as p = -ogy+c, where c is a constant.

Answers

a) For horizontal flow of a liquid in a rectangular duct between parallel plates, the pressure varies linearly both in the direction of flow and in the direction normal to the plates. This is a true statement.

b) For flows occurring between r= 0 and r= a in cylindrical coordinates, the term In r may appear in the final expression for one of the velocity components. This statement is also true.

c) For flows in ducts and pipes, the volumetric flow rate can be obtained by differentiating the velocity profile. This is a true statement

d) If, in three dimensions, the pressure obeys the equation Op/ dy = -pg, and both Op/ Ox and op/ öz are nonzero, then integration of this equation gives the pressure as p = -ogy+c, where c is a constant. This statement is true.

a) For horizontal flow of a liquid in a rectangular duct between parallel plates, the pressure varies linearly both in the direction of flow and in the direction normal to the plates. This is a true statement. For horizontal flow of a liquid in a rectangular duct between parallel plates, the pressure varies linearly both in the direction of flow and in the direction normal to the plates.

b) For flows occurring between r= 0 and r= a in cylindrical coordinates, the term In r may appear in the final expression for one of the velocity components. This statement is also true. In r may appear in the final expression for one of the velocity components in flows occurring between r= 0 and r= a in cylindrical coordinates.

c) For flows in ducts and pipes, the volumetric flow rate can be obtained by differentiating the velocity profile. This is a true statement as well. For flows in ducts and pipes, the volumetric flow rate can be obtained by differentiating the velocity profile.

d) If, in three dimensions, the pressure obeys the equation

Op/ dy = -pg,

and both Op/ Ox and op/ öz are nonzero, then integration of this equation gives the pressure as

p = -ogy+c,

where c is a constant. This statement is true. If, in three dimensions, the pressure obeys the equation

Op/ dy = -pg,

and both Op/ Ox and op/ öz are nonzero, then integration of this equation gives the pressure as

p = -ogy+c,

where c is a constant.

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(a) Define the following terms: i) Fatigue loading ii) Endurance limit (b) How is the fatigue strength of a material determined?

Answers

a) i) Fatigue loading Fatigue loading refers to the type of loading that develops due to cyclic stress conditions. Fatigue loading, unlike static loading, can occur when the same loading is repeatedly applied on a material that is already under stress.

This fatigue loading effect can result in a material experiencing different amounts of stress at different times during its lifespan, ultimately leading to failure if the stress levels exceed the endurance limit of the material. ii) Endurance limit. The endurance limit is defined as the maximum amount of stress that a material can endure before it starts to experience fatigue failure.

This means that if the material is subjected to stresses below its endurance limit, it can withstand an infinite number of stress cycles without undergoing fatigue failure. The fatigue strength of a material is typically determined by subjecting the material to a series of cyclic loading conditions at different stress levels.

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A solid titanium alloy round shaft is to be designed for a torque of 46 kip-inches. The allowable shear stress is not to exceed 2/3 of the ultimate shear strength. What is the required diameter of the shaft based on shear stress? (inches)

Answers

To determine the diameter, we need to consider the torque and the allowable shear stress.

The allowable shear stress is 2/3 of the ultimate shear strength. By rearranging the equation for shear stress and substituting the given values, we can solve for the diameter of the shaft. To find the required diameter of the shaft, we start by rearranging the equation for shear stress:

Shear Stress = (16 * Torque) / (pi * d^3)

Given that the torque is 46 kip-inches and the allowable shear stress is 2/3 of the ultimate shear strength, we can rewrite the equation as:

(2/3) * Ultimate Shear Strength = (16 * Torque) / (pi * d^3)

We need to determine the diameter (d), so we isolate it in the equation:

d^3 = (16 * Torque) / ((2/3) * Ultimate Shear Strength * pi)

Taking the cube root of both sides, we find:

d = cuberoot((16 * Torque) / ((2/3) * Ultimate Shear Strength * pi))

Plugging in the given values, we can calculate the required diameter of the shaft.

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a. What is the essential difference between incomplete location and insufficient location?
b. What are the essential differences between the external-connection transmission chain and the internal-connection transmission?
c. What aspects do the geometric errors of machine tool include?

Answers

Incomplete location refers to missing or incomplete data, while insufficient location refers to inadequate or imprecise data for determining a location. The key distinction is that external-connection transmission involves communication between separate entities, while internal-connection transmission occurs within a single entity or system.  Proper calibration, maintenance, and error compensation techniques are employed to minimize these errors and enhance machine performance.

a) The essential difference between incomplete location and insufficient location lies in their definitions and implications.

Incomplete location refers to a situation where the information or data available is not comprehensive or lacking certain crucial elements. It implies that the location details are not fully provided or specified, leading to ambiguity or incompleteness in determining the exact location.

Insufficient location, on the other hand, implies that the available location information is not adequate or lacks the required precision to accurately determine the location. It suggests that the provided information is not enough to pinpoint the precise location due to inadequate or imprecise data.

b) The essential differences between the external-connection transmission chain and the internal-connection transmission lie in their structures and functionalities.

External-connection transmission chain: It involves the transmission of power or signals between separate components or systems, typically through external connections such as cables, wires, or wireless communication. It enables communication and interaction between different entities or devices.

Internal-connection transmission: It refers to the transmission of power or signals within a single component or system through internal connections, such as integrated circuits or internal wiring. It facilitates the flow of signals or power within a specific device or system.

c) The geometric errors of a machine tool include various aspects:

Straightness error: This refers to deviations from a perfectly straight line along a linear axis.Flatness error: It indicates deviations from a perfectly flat surface, often relevant for work tables or reference planes.Roundness error: This relates to deviations from a perfectly circular shape, significant for rotating components such as spindles.Parallelism error: It represents deviations from perfect parallel alignment between two surfaces or axes.Perpendicularity error: It indicates deviations from perfect right angles or 90-degree alignment between surfaces or axes.Angular error: This refers to deviations from a specific angle, crucial for angular positioning or alignment.Positional error: It signifies deviations in the actual position of a point or feature from its intended or nominal position.Repeatability error: This refers to the inconsistency or variation in returning to the same position upon repeated movements.

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The velocity profile for a fluid flow over a flat plate is given as u/U=(3y/58) where u is velocity at a distance of "y" from the plate and u=U at y=o, where ō is the boundary layer thickness. Determine the displacement thickness and the momentum thickness for the above velocity profile

Answers

The displacement thickness is (58/9)*(1-(1/3)*(δ*/ō)²), and the momentum thickness is (116/81)*[(δ*/ō)²-(1/4)*(δ*/ō[tex])^4[/tex]].

We are given the velocity profile for a fluid flow over a flat plate is:

u/U = (3y/58)

Where:

u is the velocity at a distance of "y" from the plate and u = U at y = 0.

U is the free-stream velocity.

ō is the boundary layer thickness.

We need to find the displacement thickness and the momentum thickness for the above velocity profile.

Displacement Thickness:

It is given by the integral of (1-u/U)dy from y=0 to y=ō.

Therefore, the displacement thickness can be calculated as:

δ* = ∫[1-(u/U)] dy, 0 to δ*

δ* = ∫[1-(3y/58U)] dy, 0 to δ*

δ* = [(58/9)*((y/ō)-(y³)/(3ō³))] from 0 to δ*

δ* = (58/9)*[(δ*/ō)-((δ*/ō)³)/3]

δ* = (58/9)*(1-(1/3)*(δ*/ō)²)

Momentum Thickness:

IT  is given by the integral of (u/U)*(1-u/U)dy from y=0 to y=ō.

Therefore, the momentum thickness can be written as;

θ = ∫[(u/U)*(1-(u/U))] dy, 0 to δ*

θ = ∫[(3y/58U)*(1-(3y/58U))] dy, 0 to δ*

θ = [(116/81)*((y/ō)²)-((y/ō[tex])^4[/tex])/4] from 0 to δ*

θ = (116/81)*[(δ*/ō)²-(1/4)*(δ*/ō[tex])^4[/tex]]

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Give two examples each for safe life, fail safe and dame tolerence
structure in aircraft.

Answers

Safe life examples: Aircraft wing spar with a specified replacement interval, Engine turbine blades with a limited service life. Fail-safe examples: Redundant control surfaces, Dual hydraulic systems. Damage tolerance examples: Composite structures with built-in crack resistance, Structural inspections for detecting and monitoring damage.

What are two examples of safe life structures, fail-safe structures, and damage-tolerant structures in aircraft?

Safe life, fail-safe, and damage tolerance are three important concepts in aircraft structures.

Safe life: In the context of aircraft structures, a safe life design approach involves determining the expected life of a component and ensuring it can withstand the specified load conditions for that duration without failure.

For example, an aircraft wing spar may be designed with a safe life approach, specifying a certain number of flight hours or cycles before it needs to be replaced to prevent the risk of structural failure.

Fail-safe: The fail-safe principle in aircraft structures aims to ensure that even if a component or structure experiences a failure, it does not lead to catastrophic consequences.

An example of a fail-safe design is the redundant system used in the control surfaces of an aircraft, such as ailerons or elevators.

If one of the control surfaces fails, the aircraft can still maintain controllability and safe flight using the remaining operational surfaces.

Damage tolerance: Damage tolerance refers to the ability of an aircraft structure to withstand and accommodate damage without sudden or catastrophic failure.

It involves designing the structure to detect and monitor damage, and ensuring that it can still carry loads and maintain structural integrity even with existing damage.

An example is the use of composite materials in aircraft structures. Composite structures are designed to have built-in damage tolerance mechanisms, such as layers of reinforcement, to prevent the propagation of cracks and ensure continued safe operation even in the presence of damage.

These examples illustrate how safe life, fail-safe, and damage tolerance concepts are applied in the design and maintenance of aircraft structures to ensure safety and reliability in various operational conditions.

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A drive system consists of single strand Roller chain with a * inch pitch running on a 17 tooth drive input sprocket with a speed ratio of 2.7: 1 (The output shaft rotates 2.7 times faster than the input). Use the accepted initial design parameter for roller chains, Center distance D+ (0.5)d Find Required number of teeth on driven sprocket Sprocket pitch diameters (driver and driven) Total Chain Length in inches Chain Velocity in Feet per minute if the drive sprocket is attached to a 3600 rpm three phase electric motor.

Answers

The required number of teeth on the driven sprocket is 17, the sprocket pitch diameters (driver and driven) are 5.411 in, the total chain length in inches is 21.644 in and the chain velocity is 897.3 ft/min.

Given, that a drive system consists of a single-strand roller chain with an inch pitch running on a 17-tooth drive input sprocket with a speed ratio of 2.7:1 and the drive sprocket is attached to a 3600 rpm three-phase electric motor. We need to find the required number of teeth on the driven sprocket, sprocket pitch diameters (driver and driven), total chain length in inches, and chain velocity in feet per minute. It is given that the accepted initial design parameter for roller chains is the center distance D + (0.5)d.

Required number of teeth on the driven sprocket

= N1P1

= N2P2N2

= (N1P1)/P2N2

= (17 × 1)/1N2

= 172

Sprocket pitch diameters Driver pitch diameter

PD1 = (N1 × P)/πPD1

= (17 × 1)/πPD1

= 5.411 in Driven pitch diameter PD2

= (N2 × P)/πPD2

= (17 × 1)/πPD2

= 5.411 in 3.

Total Chain Length in inches

D + (0.5)d = C/2

= (PD1 + PD2)/2

= (5.411 + 5.411)/2

= 5.411 inC

= 2 × D+ (0.5)dC

= 2 × 5.411C

= 10.822 in Total chain length

= 2C + (N2 - N1) × (P/2)

Total chain length

= 2 × 10.822 + (17 - 17) × (1/2)

Total chain length = 21.644 in 4.

Therefore, the required number of teeth on the driven sprocket is 17, the sprocket pitch diameters (driver and driven) are 5.411 in, the total chain length in inches is 21.644 in and the chain velocity is 897.3 ft/min.

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Question 6 (easy) The main purpose of adding Derivative (D) control is to O A. to increase the time constant O B. to increase settling time O C. to decrease or eliminate steady state error O D. to increase damping ratio

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The main purpose of adding Derivative (D) control is to increase the damping ratio of a system. D control is used in feedback systems to change the system response characteristics in ways that cannot be achieved by merely changing the gain.

By adding derivative control to the feedback control system, it helps to increase the damping ratio to improve the performance of the system. Let's discuss how D control works in a feedback control system. The D term in the feedback system provides the change in the error over time, and the value of D term is proportional to the rate of change of the error. Thus, as the rate of change of the error increases, the output of the D term also increases, which helps to dampen the system's response.

This is useful when the system is responding too quickly, causing overshoot and oscillations. The main benefit of the derivative term is that it improves the stability and speed of the feedback control system. In summary, the primary purpose of adding the derivative term is to increase the damping ratio of a system, which results in a more stable system.

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Q4. A solid shaft of diameter 50mm and length of 300mm is subjected to an axial load P = 200 kN and a torque T = 1.5 kN-m. (a) Determine the maximum normal stress and the maximum shear stress. (b) Repeat part (a) but for a hollow shaft with a wall thickness of 5 mm.

Answers

Part (a)The normal stress and the shear stress developed in a solid shaft when subjected to an axial load and torque can be calculated by the following equations.

Normal Stress,[tex]σ =(P/A)+((Mz×r)/Iz)[/tex]Where,[tex]P = 200kNA

= πd²/4 = π×(50)²/4

= 1963.4954 mm²Mz[/tex]

= T = 1.5 kN-mr = d/2 = 50/2 = 25 m mIz = πd⁴/64 = π×(50)⁴/64[/tex]

[tex]= 24414.2656 mm⁴σ[/tex]

[tex]= (200 × 10³ N) / (1963.4954 mm²) + ((1.5 × 10³ N-mm) × (25 mm))/(24414.2656 mm⁴)σ[/tex]Shear Stress.

[tex][tex]J = πd⁴/32 = π×50⁴/32[/tex]

[tex]= 122071.6404 mm⁴τ[/tex]

[tex]= (1.5 × 10³ N-mm) × (25 mm)/(122071.6404 mm⁴)τ[/tex]

[tex]= 0.03 MPa[/tex] Part (b)For a hollow shaft with a wall thickness of 5mm, the outer diameter, d₂ = 50mm and the inner diameter.

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A polymeric cylinder initially exerts a stress with a magnitude (absolute value) of 1.437 MPa when compressed. If the tensile modulus and viscosity of this polymer are 16.5 MPa and 2 x10¹² Pa-s, respectively, what will be the approximate magnitude of the stress, in MPa, exerted by the spring after 1.8 day(s)? Answer Format: X.X Unit: MPa

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The stress, in MPa, exerted by the spring after 1.8 days is approximately 0.176 MP

a. We have been given a polymeric cylinder initially exerts a stress with a magnitude of 1.437 MPa

when compressed and the tensile modulus and viscosity of this polymer are 16.5 MPa and 2 × 10¹² Pa-s respectively.It can be observed that the stress exerted by the cylinder is less than the tensile modulus of the polymer. Therefore, the cylinder behaves elastically.

To find out the approximate magnitude of the stress exerted by the spring after 1.8 days, we can use the equation for a standard linear solid (SLS):

σ = σ0(1 - exp(-t/τ)) + Eε

whereσ = stress

σ0 = initial stress

E = tensile modulus

ε = strain

τ = relaxation time

ε = (σ - σ0)/E

Time = 1.8 days = 1.8 × 24 × 3600 s = 155520 s

Using the values of σ0, E, and τ from the given information, we can find out the strain:

ε = (1.437 - 0)/16.5 × 10⁶ε = 8.71 × 10⁻⁸

From the equation for SLS, we can write:

σ = σ0(1 - exp(-t/τ)) + Eεσ

= 1.437(1 - exp(-155520/2 × 10¹²)) + 16.5 × 10⁶ × 8.71 × 10⁻⁸σ

= 1.437(1 - 0.99999999961) + 1.437 × 10⁻⁴σ ≈ 0.176 MPa

Thus, the stress exerted by the spring after 1.8 days is approximately 0.176 MPa.

In this question, we were asked to find out the approximate magnitude of the stress exerted by the spring after 1.8 days. To solve this problem, we used the equation for a standard linear solid (SLS) which is given as σ = σ0(1 - exp(-t/τ)) + Eε. Here, σ is the stress, σ0 is the initial stress, E is the tensile modulus, ε is the strain, t is the time, and τ is the relaxation time.Using the given values, we first found out the strain. We were given the initial stress and the tensile modulus of the polymer. Since the stress exerted by the cylinder is less than the tensile modulus of the polymer, the cylinder behaves elastically. Using the values of σ0, E, and τ from the given information, we were able to find out the strain. Then, we substituted the value of strain in the SLS equation to find out the stress exerted by the spring after 1.8 days. The answer we obtained was approximately 0.176 MPa.

Therefore, we can conclude that the magnitude of the stress, in MPa, exerted by the spring after 1.8 days is approximately 0.176 MPa.

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Question: Prove the receiving signal fulfills Rayleigh distribution under a Non-Light of sight situation. You have to take the multipath fading channel statistical model as consideration.
(Note: handwritten must be clear please! handwritten must be clear please!)
PDF (R)= R/O^2 exp(- R^2 / 20^2)

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The Rayleigh distribution is commonly used to model the amplitude of a signal in wireless communication systems, particularly in situations with multipath fading.

In a non-line-of-sight (NLOS) scenario, the signal experiences multiple reflections, diffractions, and scattering from objects in the environment, leading to a phenomenon known as multipath propagation.

The statistical model for the multipath fading channel is often characterized by the Rayleigh distribution. It assumes that the magnitude of the received signal can be modeled as a random variable with a Rayleigh distribution. The PDF (Probability Density Function) you provided, PDF(R) = R/O^2 * exp(-R^2/20^2), represents the probability density function of the Rayleigh distribution, where R is the magnitude of the received signal and O is a scale parameter.

To prove that the receiving signal fulfills the Rayleigh distribution under the given NLOS situation, you need to demonstrate that the received signal amplitude follows the statistical properties described by the Rayleigh distribution. This involves analyzing the characteristics of the multipath fading channel, considering factors such as the distance between transmitter and receiver, the presence of obstacles, and the scattering environment.

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The dry products of combustion have the following molar percentages: CO 2.7% 025.3% H20.9% CO2 16.3% N2 74.8% Find, for these conditions: (a) mixture gravimetric analysis; (b) mixture molecular weight, lbm/lbmole; and (c) mixture specific gas constant R, ft lbf/Ibm °R.

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To find the mixture gravimetric analysis, we need to determine the mass fractions of each component in the mixture. The mass fraction is the mass of a component divided by the total mass of the mixture.

Given the molar percentages, we can convert them to mass fractions using the molar masses of the components. The molar masses are as follows:

CO: 28.01 g/mol

O2: 32.00 g/mol

H2O: 18.02 g/mol

CO2: 44.01 g/mol

N2: 28.01 g/mol

(a) Mixture Gravimetric Analysis:

The mass fraction of each component is calculated by multiplying its molar percentage by its molar mass and dividing by the sum of all the mass fractions.

Mass fraction of CO: (0.027 * 28.01) / (0.027 * 28.01 + 0.253 * 32.00 + 0.009 * 18.02 + 0.163 * 44.01 + 0.748 * 28.01)

Mass fraction of O2: (0.253 * 32.00) / (0.027 * 28.01 + 0.253 * 32.00 + 0.009 * 18.02 + 0.163 * 44.01 + 0.748 * 28.01)

Mass fraction of H2O: (0.009 * 18.02) / (0.027 * 28.01 + 0.253 * 32.00 + 0.009 * 18.02 + 0.163 * 44.01 + 0.748 * 28.01)

Mass fraction of CO2: (0.163 * 44.01) / (0.027 * 28.01 + 0.253 * 32.00 + 0.009 * 18.02 + 0.163 * 44.01 + 0.748 * 28.01)

Mass fraction of N2: (0.748 * 28.01) / (0.027 * 28.01 + 0.253 * 32.00 + 0.009 * 18.02 + 0.163 * 44.01 + 0.748 * 28.01)

(b) Mixture Molecular Weight:

The mixture molecular weight is the sum of the mass fractions multiplied by the molar masses of each component.

Mixture molecular weight = (Mass fraction of CO * Molar mass of CO) + (Mass fraction of O2 * Molar mass of O2) + (Mass fraction of H2O * Molar mass of H2O) + (Mass fraction of CO2 * Molar mass of CO2) + (Mass fraction of N2 * Molar mass of N2)

(c) Mixture Specific Gas Constant:

The mixture specific gas constant can be calculated using the ideal gas law equation:

R = R_universal / Mixture molecular weight

where R_universal is the universal gas constant.

Now you can substitute the values and calculate the desired quantities.

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A block is pressed 0.1 m against a spring(k = 500 N/m), and then released. The kinetic coefficient of friction between the block and the horizontal surface is 0.6. Determine mass of block, if it travels 4 m before stopping. Use work and energy method.

Answers

If the block travels 4 m before stopping, then the mass of the block is 0.085 kg.

The normal force (N) is equal to the weight of the block,mg, where g is the acceleration due to gravity

.N = m × g

friction = μk × m × g

Net force = Applied force - Frictional force= F - friction= ma

The work done against friction during this displacement is given by:

Work done against friction (Wf) = friction × distance= μk × m × g × distance

Wf = 0.6 × m × 9.8 × 4

The kinetic energy of the block at the end of the displacement is given by:Kinetic energy (K) = 1/2 × m × v²

Where,v is the final velocity of the block

We know that the block stops at the end of the displacement, so final velocity is 0.

Therefore,K = 0

Using the work-energy principle, we know that the work done by the spring force should be equal to the work done against friction during the displacement.

That is,Work done by spring force (Ws) = Work done against friction (Wf)

Ws = 2.5 J = Wf

0.5 × k × x² = μk × m × g × distance

0.5 × 500 × 0.1² = 0.6 × m × 9.8 × 40.05 = 5.88m

Simplifying, we get,m = 0.085 kg

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Describe different kinds of flow metres in detail.

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Flow meters are instruments used to measure the volume or mass of a liquid, gas, or steam passing through pipelines. Flow meters are used in industrial, commercial, and residential applications. Flow meters can be classified into several types based on their measuring principle.



Differential Pressure Flow Meter: This is the most common type of flow meter used in industrial applications. It works by creating a pressure difference between two points in a pipe. The pressure difference is then used to calculate the flow rate. Differential pressure flow meters include orifice meters, venturi meters, and flow nozzles.

Positive Displacement Flow Meter: This type of flow meter works by measuring the volume of fluid that passes through a pipe. The flow rate is determined by measuring the amount of fluid that fills a chamber of known volume. Positive displacement flow meters include nutating disk meters, oval gear meters, and piston meters.

flow meters are essential devices that help to measure the volume or mass of fluid flowing through pipelines. They can be classified into different types based on their measuring principle. Each type of flow meter has its advantages and limitations.

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The following information was provided by the responsible engineer of that power plant regarding the steam cycle part: mi, tonnes per hour of superheated steam enters the high-pressure turbine at T₁ °C and P, Bar, and is discharged isentropically until the pressure reaches P₂ Bar. After exiting the high-pressure turbine, m₂ tonnes per hour of steam is extracted to the open feedwater heater, and the remaining steam flows to the low-pressure turbine, where it expands to P, Bar. At the condenser, the steam is totally condensed. The temperature at the condenser's outflow is the same as the saturation temperature at the same pressure. The liquid is compressed to P₂ Bar after passing through the condenser and then allowed to flow through the mixing preheater (a heat exchanger with efficiency n)where it is completely condensed. The preheated feed water will be fed into the heat exchanger through a second feed pump, where it will be heated and superheated to a temperature of T₁°C. In the winter, the overall process heating demand is assumed to be Q MW while this power plant's electricity demand is # MW. 5. Schematic of the power plant: An excellent and high-quality schematic must be presented, with all necessary and appropriate information pertinent to the analysis' content. Any diagramming and vector graphics application, such as Microsoft Visio, can be used. (Maximum 1 page).

Answers

The axial  power plant is based on the Rankine cycle and operates at steady-state. A schematic diagram of a steam cycle power plant has been provided.

Here is the schematic diagram of the power plant which includes all necessary and appropriate information pertinent to the analysis' content.  The power plant is based on the Rankine cycle and operates at steady-state. A schematic diagram of a steam cycle power plant has been provided. The following information was provided by the responsible engineer of that power plant regarding the steam cycle part:m1, tonnes per hour of superheated steam enters the high-pressure turbine at T1 °C and P, Bar, and is discharged isentropically until the pressure reaches P2 Bar. After exiting the high-pressure turbine, m2 tonnes per hour of steam is extracted to the open feedwater heater, and the remaining steam flows to the low-pressure turbine, where it expands to P, Bar.

At the condenser, the steam is totally condensed. The temperature at the condenser's outflow is the same as the saturation temperature at the same pressure. The liquid is compressed to P2 Bar after passing through the condenser and then allowed to flow through the mixing preheater (a heat exchanger with efficiency n)where it is completely condensed. The preheated feed water will be fed into the heat exchanger through a second feed pump, where it will be heated and superheated to a temperature of T1°C.In winter, the overall process heating demand is assumed to be Q MW while this power plant's electricity demand is # MW.  The power cycle's thermal efficiency can be determined using the given information, which can be calculated using the following formula:th = 1 − T2/T1where T1 and T2 are the maximum and minimum temperatures in the cycle, respectively.

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You are asked to design a small wind turbine (D = x +1.25 ft, where x is the last two digits of your student ID). Assume the wind speed is 15 mph at T = 10°C and p = 0.9 bar. The efficiency of the turbine is n = 25%, meaning that 25% of the kinetic energy in the wind can be extracted. Calculate the power in watts that can be produced by your turbine.

Answers

The power in watts that can be produced by the turbine is 291.4 W.

From the question above, Diameter of the wind turbine, D = x + 1.25 ft

Efficiency of the wind turbine, n = 25% = 0.25

Wind speed, v = 15 mph

Temperature, T = 10° C

Pressure, p = 0.9 bar

The power in watts that can be produced by the turbine.

Diameter of the turbine, D = x + 1.25 ft

Let's put the value of D in terms of feet,1 ft = 0.3048 m

D = x + 1.25 ft = x + 1.25 × 0.3048 m= x + 0.381 m

Kinetic energy of the wind turbine,Kinetic energy, K.E. = 1/2 × mass × (velocity)²

Since mass is not given, let's assume the mass of air entering the turbine as, m = 1 kg

Kinetic energy, K.E. = 1/2 × 1 × (15.4)² = 1165.5 Joules

Since the efficiency of the turbine, n = 0.25 = 25%The power that can be extracted from the wind is,P = n × K.E. = 0.25 × 1165.5 = 291.4 Joules

So, the power in watts that can be produced by the turbine is 291.4 J/s = 291.4 W.

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Using an allowable shearing stress of 8,000 psi, design a solid steel shaft to transmit 14 hp at a speed of 1800 rpm. Note(1) : Power =2 nf where fis frequency (Cycles/second) and Tis torque (in-Ib). Note(2): 1hp=550 ft-lb =6600 in-b

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Using an allowable shearing stress of 8,000 psi, design a solid steel shaft to transmit 14 hp at a speed of 1800 rpm. The minimum diameter is 1.25 inches.

Given:

Power, P = 14 hp speed,

N = 1800 rpm

Shear stress, τ = 8000 psi

The formula used: Power transmitted = 2 * π * N * T/60,

where T = torque

T = (P * 6600)/N

= (14 * 6600)/1800

= 51.333 in-lb

The minimum diameter, d, of the shaft is given by the relation, τ = 16T/πd²The above relation is derived from the following formula, Shearing stress, τ = F / A, where F is the force applied, A is the area of the object, and τ is the shearing stress. The formula is then rearranged to solve for the minimum diameter, d. Substituting the values,

8000 = (16 * 51.333)/πd²d

= 1.213 in

≈ 1.25 in

The minimum diameter is 1.25 inches.

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IF an 85% efficient alternator operating at 1800RPM were putting
out 100kW of power how much torque would need tro be delivered by
the prime mover?

Answers

To determine the amount of torque that the prime mover would need to deliver to operate an 85% efficient alternator operating at 1800 RPM and putting out 100 kW of power, the following equation is used:Power = (2π × RPM × Torque) / 60 × 1000 kW = (2π × 1800 RPM × Torque) / 60 × 1000

Rearranging the equation to solve for torque:Torque = (Power × 60 × 1000) / (2π × RPM)Plugging in the given values:Torque = (100 kW × 60 × 1000) / (2π × 1800 RPM)≈ 318.3 Nm

Therefore, the prime mover would need to deliver about 318.3 Nm of torque to operate an 85% efficient alternator operating at 1800 RPM and putting out 100 kW of power. This can also be written as 235.2 lb-ft.

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It is necessary to design a bed packed with rectangular glass prisms that measure 1 cm and 2 cm high with a sphericity of 0.72, which will be used as a support to purify air that enters a gauge pressure of 2 atm and 40 ° C. The density of the prisms is 1300 kg/m^3 and 200 kg is used to pack the column. The column is a polycarbonate tube with a diameter of 0.3 and a height of 3.5 m. considering that the feed is 3kg/min and the height of the fluidized bed is 2.5 m. Determine the gauge pressure at which the air leaves, in atm.

Answers

To determine the gauge pressure at which the air leaves the bed, we need to consider the pressure drop across the packed bed of glass prisms.

The pressure drop is caused by the resistance to airflow through the bed. First, let's calculate the pressure drop due to the weight of the glass prisms in the bed:

1. Determine the volume of the glass prisms:

  - Volume = (area of prism base) x (height of prism) x (number of prisms)

  - Area of prism base = (length of prism) x (width of prism)

  - Number of prisms = mass of prisms / (density of prisms x volume of one prism)

2. Calculate the weight of the glass prisms:

  - Weight = mass of prisms x g

3. Calculate the pressure drop due to the weight of the prisms:

  - Pressure drop = (Weight / area of column cross-section) / (height of fluidized bed)

Next, we need to consider the pressure drop due to the resistance to airflow through the bed. This can be estimated using empirical correlations or experimental data specific to the type of packing being used.

Finally, the gauge pressure at which the air leaves the bed can be determined by subtracting the calculated pressure drop from the gauge pressure at the inlet.

Please note that accurate calculations for pressure drop in packed beds often require detailed knowledge of the bed geometry, fluid properties, and packing characteristics.

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A 0.5 m long vertical plate is at 70 C. The air surrounding it is at 30 C at 1 atm. The velocity of air from the blower coming into the plate is 10 m/s
(a) what is the Grashof Number for the flow? Is the flow over the plate laminar or turbulent?
(b) what is the Reynolds Number for the flow? Is the flow over the plate laminar or turbulent?
(c) Is it natural or forced or mixed convection flow?
(d) find the most accurate estimate for the average heat transfer coefficient (h) over the plate
(e) what is the rate of convection heat transfer from the plate assuming that the width of the plate is 1 m?
(F) what is the thickness of the thermal boundary at the top of the plate?

Answers

A 0.5 m long vertical plate is at a temperature of 70°C. The air around it is at 30°C and 1 atm. At 10 m/s, the air comes into the plate from the blower.

The answers to the given queries are as follows:

1) Grashof Number of Flow Grashof Number is calculated using the following formula:

Gr = (gβΔTl³) / (ν²) Here, g is acceleration due to gravity, β is coefficient of thermal expansion, ΔT is temperature difference between the two surfaces, l is the length of the plate, and ν is the kinematic viscosity of the fluid.The values of the constants can be found in the following way:g = 9.81 m/s²β = 1/T where T is the average temperature between the two surfacesν = μ / ρ, where μ is dynamic viscosity, and ρ is density.

Now, we can use these formulas to find the values of the constants, and then use the Grashof Number equation to solve for Gr.Gr = 4.15 x 10^9

The Reynolds number is used to determine whether the flow is laminar or turbulent. It is defined as:

Re = (ρvl) / μ Here, ρ is the density of the fluid, v is the velocity of the fluid, l is the length of the plate, and μ is the dynamic viscosity of the fluid.

The value of the constants can be found in the following way:

ρ = 1.18 kg/m³

μ = 1.85 x 10^-5 Ns/m²

Re = 31,783

Since the value of Re is greater than 2300, the flow is turbulent.

3) The type of flow is mixed convection flow because it is influenced by both natural and forced convection.

4) The most accurate estimate for the average heat transfer coefficient can be found using the following equation:

Nu = (0.60 + 0.387(Gr Pr)^(1/6)) / (1 + (0.559 / Pr)^(9/16))

Here, Nu is the Nusselt number, Gr is the Grashof number, and Pr is the Prandtl number.

We already know the value of Gr, and we can find the value of Pr using the following formula:

Pr = ν / αwhere α is the thermal diffusivity of the fluid. α = k / (ρ cp), where k is the thermal conductivity of the fluid, and cp is the specific heat at constant pressure.

Now we can use these equations to find the value of Nu, which will help us solve for h, using the following formula:

Nu = h l / k

The value of h is found to be 88.8 W/m²K.5)

The rate of convection heat transfer from the plate is given by the following formula:

q = h A ΔTwhere A is the area of the plate, and ΔT is the temperature difference between the two surfaces.

Now, the width of the plate is 1m, so the area of the plate is 0.5 m x 1 m = 0.5 m².

Now, we can use the equation to find the value of q:

q = 88.8 x 0.5 x (70-30)q = 2220 W6)

The thickness of the thermal boundary at the top of the plate can be found using the following equation:

δ = 5 x ((x / l) + 0.015(Re x / l)^(4/5))^(1/6)

Here, δ is the thermal boundary layer thickness, l is the length of the plate, and x is the distance from the leading edge of the plate.

The value of Re x / l can be found using the following formula:

Re x / l = (ρ v x) / μ

Now, we can use these equations to find the value of δ, when x = 0.5 m.

In conclusion, the Grashof number is 4.15 x 10^9, and the flow is turbulent because the Reynolds number is 31,783. The type of flow is mixed convection flow because it is influenced by both natural and forced convection. The most accurate estimate for the average heat transfer coefficient is 88.8 W/m²K. The rate of convection heat transfer from the plate is 2220 W. Finally, the thickness of the thermal boundary at the top of the plate is 0.0063 m.

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3. How is convergent evolution different from divergent evolution? Provide an example of each in your answer. Question 5 (a) Draw the sketch that explain the changes occurs in the flow through oblique and normal shock waves? (5 marks) (b) The radial velocity component in an incompressible, two-dimensional flow (v, = 0) is: V, = 2r + 3r2 sin e Determine the corresponding tangential velocity component (ve) required to satisfy conservation of mass. (10 marks) (c) Air enters a square duct through a 1.0 ft opening as is shown in figure 5-c. Because the boundary layer displacement thickness increases in the direction of flow, it is necessary to increase the cross-sectional size of the duct if a constant U = 2.0 ft/s velocity is to be maintained outside the boundary layer. Plot a graph of the duct size, d, as a function of x for 0.0 SX S10 ft, if U is to remain constant. Assume laminar flow. The kinematic viscosity of air is v = 1.57 x 10-4 ft2/s. (10 marks) U= 2 ft/s 1 ft dux) 2 ft/s In the US, inflation is essentially always positive. Is the realor nominal GDP going to be higher before 2004 in knowing thesestatements? What about following 2004? What about in the year2004? please solve and show workingsb) Consider a linear transformation \( T(x, y)=(x+y, x+2 y) \). Show whether \( T \) is invertible or not and if it is, find its inverse. An industrial plant absorbs 500 kW at a line voltage of 480 V with a lagging power factor of 0.8 from a three-phase utility line. The apparent power absorbed is most nearly O a. 625 KVA O b. 500 KVA O c. 400 KVA O d. 480 KVA A fluid in a fire hose with a 46.5 mm radius, has a velocity of 0.56 m/s. Solve for the power, hp, available in the jet at the nozzle attached at the end of the hose if its diameter is 15.73 mm. Express your answer in 4 decimal places. 3. (10 points) At 448 C the equilibrium constant Kc for thereaction is 50.5. Predict in which direction the reaction proceedsto reach equilibrium if we start with 0.10M HI, 0.020M H2 and 0.30MI2. _____________ lacks a defined primary structure and is not considered a polysaccharide. a.Hemicellulose b.Cellulose c.Lignin d.Pectin Sketch a 1D, 2D, and 3D element type of your choice. (sketch 3 elements) Describe the degrees of freedom per node and important input data for each structural element. (Material properties needed, etc 1. (a) Let A and B be two events. Suppose that the probability that neither event occurs is 3/8. What is the probability that at least one of the events occurs? (b) Let C and D be two events. Suppose P(C)=0.5,P(CD)=0.2 and P((CD) c)=0.4 What is P(D) ? Designing vaccines to elicit drugs?Could we somehow create a vaccine to have the immune system target and attack cocaine molecules once they are present in us?Designing vaccines to melanoma cancer?Could we somehow create a vaccine to have the immune system target and attack molecules only found on cancer cells like melanoma?What challenges might you face with attempting to elicit an effective immune response to the melanoma cancer?What other signals are missing to ACTIVATE this T helper cell? Why or why not?What benefits do you see in this system of shutting off cells that are stick to things that are NOT associated with PAMP detection?B cells:What is the function of a B cell once active?What is required for B cell activation?Explain the process based on your understanding?What is the difference between a B cells antigen receptor and its antibodies?B cells require T helper cell help (binding) for full activation. But which helper cell?How does your immune system use antibodies?In other words, what are the functions of antibodies?What is the difference between passive and active immunity? A vapor-compression refrigeration system utilizes a water-cooled intercooler with ammonia as the refrigerant. The evaporator and condenser temperatures are -10 and 40C, respectively. The mass flow rate of the intercooler water is 0.35 kg/s with a change in enthalpy of 42 kJ/kg. The low-pressure compressor discharges the refrigerant at 700 kPa. Assume compression to be isentropic. Sketch the schematic and Ph diagrams of the system and determine: (a) the mass flow rate of the ammonia refrigerant, (b) the capacity in TOR, (c) the total compressor work, and (d) the COP. Arthropods have tagma and jointed appendages. Sketch and explain how a typical Hexapod differs from a Crustacean. List at least 5 differences and 2 shared traits along with the overall comparison to body plan organization and unique features. describe massively parallel computing and grid computing and discuss how they transform the economics of supercomputing. What are the differences between innate and adaptive immunity?Describe with examples A rigid (closed) tank contains 10 kg of water at 90C. If 8 kg of this water is in the liquid form and the rest is in the vapor form. Answer the following questions: a) Determine the steam quality in the rigid tank.b) Is the described system corresponding to a pure substance? Explain.c) Find the value of the pressure in the tank. [5 points] d) Calculate the volume (in m) occupied by the gas phase and that occupied by the liquid phase (in m). e) Deduce the total volume (m) of the tank.f) On a T-v diagram (assume constant pressure), draw the behavior of temperature with respect to specific volume showing all possible states involved in the passage of compressed liquid water into superheated vapor.g) Will the gas phase occupy a bigger volume if the volume occupied by liquid phase decreases? Explain your answer (without calculation).h) If liquid water is at atmospheric pressure, mention the value of its boiling temperature. Explain how boiling temperature varies with increasing elevation. 1. What is a firms fundamental goal and what happens if the firm doesnt pursue this goal?2. Explain how the marginal product of labor and the average product of labor change as the quantity of labor employed increases (a) initially and (b) eventually.3. What is the law of diminishing returns? Why does the marginal product of labor eventually diminish? Dan's Pizza Company makes frozen pizzas in a perfectly competitive market. The market price of pizza is $10, and Dan is a price taker. His daily cost of making pizzas is C(q) = 59 + (q?/80), and his marginal cost is MC = 5+q/40. A. (4 points) What is the equation for Dan's average variable cost curve? B. (6 points) What is Dans short-run supply function? C. (6 points) How many pizzas should Dan sell each day? D. (5 points) How much economic profit or loss does Dan's make? E. (4 points) What will happen to the number of firms in the pizza market in the long run? Why?Previous questionNext questionNot the exact question you're looking for?Post any question and get expert help quickly.Start learning Your assignment is to find microbes from soil that areresistantto the antibiotic kanamycin. Briefly describe a primary screenstrategy forthis purpose. BE SPECIFIC. What name is given to an event with a probability of greater than zero but less than one? a) Contingent b) Guaranteed c) Impossible d) Irregular