4.1. To determine the values of Kₚ and Kᵢ for the proportional plus integral (PI) controller, we need to achieve a peak time (Tₚ) of 0.2 sec and a settling time (Tₛ) of less than 0.4 sec.
The peak time (Tₚ) is the time it takes for the response to reach its first peak, and the settling time (Tₛ) is the time it takes for the response to settle within a certain tolerance band around the desired value.
To achieve the desired values, we can use the Ziegler-Nichols tuning method for a PI controller. According to this method, the values for Kₚ and Kᵢ can be determined as follows:
Kₚ = 0.6 / Tₚ
Kᵢ = 1.2 / Tₛ
Substituting the given values, we have:
Kₚ = 0.6 / 0.2 = 3
Kᵢ = 1.2 / 0.4 = 3
Therefore, the values for Kₚ and Kᵢ that will result in a peak time of 0.2 sec and a settling time of less than 0.4 sec are Kₚ = 3 and Kᵢ = 3.
4.2. The table provided is incomplete, but I can explain the effects of each of the PID controller gains on the closed-loop control system performance factors:
- Proportional gain (Kₚ): Increasing the proportional gain will reduce the rise time, but it may also lead to increased overshoot and settling time. Additionally, increasing Kₚ can help improve steady-state error and system stability.
- Integral gain (Kᵢ): Increasing the integral gain will decrease the steady-state error, but it may also lead to longer settling time and increased overshoot. Increasing Kᵢ can improve system stability and reduce the effect of disturbances.
- Decreasing Kᵢ: Decreasing the integral gain can help reduce overshoot and settling time, but it may result in increased steady-state error. However, it can also improve system stability.
In conclusion, the values of Kₚ = 3 and Kᵢ = 3 will satisfy the desired peak time and settling time requirements for the given system. The effects of the proportional and integral gains on the closed-loop control system performance depend on the specific system dynamics and desired performance criteria, and careful tuning is necessary to achieve optimal results.
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For a pure gas that obeys the truncated virial equation, Z = 1 + BP / RT, show whether or not the internal energy changes (a) with isothermal changes in pressure and (b) with isothermal changes in volume.
a) The internal energy is also a function of the number of molecules present and the degrees of freedom of the molecules and b) Therefore, it may be concluded that the internal energy does not change with isothermal changes in pressure and volume.
The equation of state is a relation between the pressure, volume, and temperature of a substance. A number of real gases don't conform to the ideal gas equation. Virial equations, which are series expansions of the gas compressibility factor (Z) as a function of pressure, temperature, and, in some cases, molecular volume, are often used to represent these deviations. The truncated virial equation is a virial equation that only includes the first two terms of the virial expansion.
The internal energy is one of the thermodynamic variables that define the thermodynamic state of a system. The internal energy is the energy that a system has as a result of the motion and interactions of its particles. The internal energy per mole of a pure gas is given by the following equation:
U = 3 / 2 RT
For a pure gas that obeys the truncated virial equation, Z = 1 + BP / RT,
a) When pressure is isothermally altered, the internal energy of the gas remains constant.
The internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of temperature alone and not pressure or volume. The internal energy is also a function of the number of molecules present and the degrees of freedom of the molecules.
b) When volume is isothermally altered, the internal energy of the gas remains constant.
The internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of temperature alone and not pressure or volume. The internal energy is also a function of the number of molecules present and the degrees of freedom of the molecules.
Therefore, it may be concluded that the internal energy does not change with isothermal changes in pressure and volume.
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EE317 / BER3043 Microprocessor Systems BEE2073 Microcontroller and Embedded System ASSIGNMENT Submission Date: Monday 08/08/2022 1. Design an automatic temperature controller using PIC 18 F452 microcontroller and suitable I/O devices. Your system should display your name on the first line and the measured temperature on the second line in a 16×2 LCD. - The system should turn on a heater (you can represent it using filament lamp output in your simulation) if the measured temperature is below the set level. - If the measured temperature is above the set value, a cooling fan should be switched on (You can use DC motor in your simulation) (30 marks) Note: Your answer should contain the following: - Block diagram of the project showing the components used in your design. (5 marks) - Description of the input/output you have used in your design and a brief description of the input/output ports of the microcontroller you have used to connect the components like switches, LCD and the range of measurement of voltage. (5 marks) - Flowchart or Algorithm showing the basic operation of the PIC microcontroller program (5 marks) - The code of your PIC program in C using mikroC Pro compiler with appropriate comments. (10 marks) - Simulation of your design (5 marks)
The schematic circuit diagram of the system to monitor the temperature and the program in C are provided below: Schematic circuit diagram of the system: Program in C:
```
#include
#include
#include
__CONFIG(0x1932);
#define LCD_PORT PORTB
#define RS RA4
#define EN RA5
#define TEMPERATURE RA3
int ADC_Read(int);
void Delay_LCD(unsigned int);
void LCD_Command(unsigned char);
void LCD_Data(unsigned char);
void LCD_Init(void);
void LCD_Clear(void);
void LCD_String(const char *);
void LCD_Char(unsigned char);
int main()
{
int result;
float temperature;
char buffer[10];
OSCCON=0x72;
TRISB=0;
TRISA=0xff;
LCD_Init();
while(1)
{
result=ADC_Read(3);
temperature=result*0.48828125; //0.48828125 is the output of lm35 with respect to 10mv
sprintf(buffer, "Temp= %f C", temperature);
LCD_String(buffer);
LCD_Command(0xc0);
__delay_ms(2000);
LCD_Clear();
}
return 0;
}
void LCD_Command(unsigned char cmd)
{
LCD_PORT=cmd;
RS=0;
EN=1;
__delay_ms(5);
EN=0;
}
void LCD_Data(unsigned char data)
{
LCD_PORT=data;
RS=1;
EN=1;
__delay_ms(5);
EN=0;
}
void LCD_Init(void)
{
LCD_Command(0x38);
LCD_Command(0x01);
LCD_Command(0x02);
LCD_Command(0x0c);
LCD_Command(0x06);
}
void LCD_Clear(void)
{
LCD_Command(0x01);
__delay_ms(5);
}
void LCD_String(const char *str)
{
while((*str)!=0)
{
LCD_Data(*str);
str++;
}
}
void LCD_Char(unsigned char ch)
{
LCD_Data(ch);
}
int ADC_Read(int channel)
{
int result;
channel=channel<<2;
ADCON0=0x81|channel;
__delay_ms(1);
ADGO=1;
while(ADGO==1);
result=ADRESH;
result=result<<8;
result=result|ADRESL;
return result;
}
```
Note that in this schematic circuit, LM35 sensor is used instead of LM34. They are quite similar, so the only difference is the output sensitivity. It should also be noted that the program in C language is written for PIC16F877A.
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Select the suitable process for the following: - making cup-shaped parts. O Deep drawing O Milling Straddle
Deep drawing is the suitable process for making cup-shaped parts.
Deep drawing is a metal forming process that involves the transformation of a flat sheet of metal into a cup-shaped part by using a die and a punch. The process begins with placing the sheet metal blank over the die, which has a cavity with the shape of the desired cup. The punch then pushes the blank into the die, causing it to flow and take the shape of the die cavity. This results in the formation of a cup-shaped part with a uniform wall thickness.
Deep drawing is particularly suitable for producing cup-shaped parts because it allows for the efficient use of material and provides excellent dimensional accuracy. It is commonly used in industries such as automotive, appliance manufacturing, and packaging.
The deep drawing process offers several advantages. Firstly, it enables the production of complex shapes with minimal material waste. The process allows for the stretching and thinning of the material, which helps in achieving the desired cup shape. Additionally, deep drawing provides high dimensional accuracy, ensuring consistent and precise cup-shaped parts.
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Are the following points part of the (200) plane? a) (1/2, 0, 0); b) (-1/3, 0, 0); c) (0, 1, 0) CHE 3260 Problem Set #3 Crystallography 1) A) Determine the percent ionic character in a K-Br bond. B) Determine the oxidation state of K in KBr. C) Determine the oxidation state of Br in KBr. 2) Find the appropriate radii for A) K in KBr and B) Br in KBr. 3) Determine the coordination number of A) K in KBr and B) Br in KBr. 4) Determine the most likely cubic crystal structure for KBr, and sketch it. 5) Calculate the lattice parameter, a. 6) Determine the number of K and Br ions in the KBr unit cell. 7) Determine KBr's bulk density. 8) Sketch the (200) plane of KBr. 9) Calculate the planar density of the (200) plane of KBr, expressed as a decimal.
Option (a) and option (c) are part of the (200) axial plane of KBr while option (b) is not a part of it.
The plane (200) of KBr has its indices parallel to the x and y-axis. Let's find if the given points are part of the (200) plane of KBr.a) (1/2,0,0)In a cubic unit cell, the length of the edges and the angles between the edges are equal. Also, since the x-axis of the (200) plane is parallel to the edge of the unit cell, the x-coordinate of this point has to be equal to some fraction of the edge length of the unit cell.
Therefore, the x-coordinate of point a, (1/2), has to be equal to 1/2 times the length of the unit cell edge. This is possible only if the length of the unit cell edge is equal to 1. So, point a is a part of the (200) plane of KBr.b) (-1/3,0,0)The x-coordinate of point b is -1/3 which means the length of the unit cell edge has to be equal to 3 units. But the unit cell edge length of KBr cannot be equal to 3. Therefore, point b is not a part of the (200) plane of KBr.c) (0,1,0)The y-coordinate of point c is 1 which means the length of the unit cell edge has to be equal to 1 unit. Since this is possible, point c is a part of the (200) plane of KBr.
Hence, option (a) and option (c) are part of the (200) plane of KBr while option (b) is not a part of it.
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Line Balance Rate tells us how well a line is balanced. W
orkstation 1 Cycle Time is 2 min Workstation 2 Cycle Time is 4 min Workstation 3 Cycle Time is 6 min Workstation 4 Cycle Time is 4.5 min Workstation 5 Cycle Time is 3 min What is the Line Balance Rate %? Where is the bottleneck? Based on the Line Balance Rate result, what is your recommendation to improve the LBR%? Why?
Line balance rate tells us how well a line is balanced. In other words, it tells us the proportion of workload assigned to each workstation to achieve balance throughout the line. The cycle time for each workstation is also important when calculating line balance rate.
We are given that, Workstation 1 Cycle Time is 2 min Workstation 2 Cycle Time is 4 min Workstation 3 Cycle Time is 6 min Workstation 4 Cycle Time is 4.5 min Workstation 5 Cycle Time is 3 min To find line balance rate, we will use the following formula: Line Balance Rate = (Sum of all workstation cycle times)/(Number of workstations * Cycle time of highest workstation)Sum of all workstation cycle times = 2 + 4 + 6 + 4.5 + 3
= 19.5Cycle time of highest workstation
= 6Line Balance Rate
= (19.5)/(5 * 6)
= 0.65
= 65%Therefore, the line balance rate is 65%.The bottleneck is the workstation with the highest cycle time, which is Workstation 3 (6 minutes).
To improve the LBR%, we need to reduce the cycle time of workstation 3. This could be done by implementing the following methods:1. Change the process to reduce the cycle time2. Reduce the work content in the workstation3. Use automation to speed up the workstation .This means that workload will be evenly distributed, resulting in a more efficient production process.
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1. What is a strain gauge? 2. Explain Hooke's law and give the formula for this law. 3. What is Young's modulus and how is it measured? 4. Do stiff materials have high or low values of modulus? 5. What is the Poisson's ratio and what dimension does it have? 7. What type of circuit is usually used in strain measurement? Why?
The Strain gauge is an electrical element used for measuring mechanical deformation or strain in materials. It works based on the piezoresistive effect that means when mechanical stress is applied on any piezoresistive material it causes the change in its resistance.
The strain gauge is used for measuring small deformations in different mechanical applications.2. Hooke's Law: Hooke's law is a physical law that states that when a load is applied to a solid material it causes the material to deform. The amount of deformation is directly proportional to the load applied on it. Hooke's law is given by the formula F=kx. Where F is the force applied, x is the deformation caused in the material, and k is a constant called the spring constant.
Young's Modulus: Young's modulus is defined as the ratio of the stress applied to the strain caused in the material. It is used to measure the stiffness of the material. Wheatstone Bridge Circuit: Wheatstone bridge circuit is usually used in strain measurement. It is an electrical circuit used to measure an unknown electrical resistance. In strain measurement, the strain gauge is connected to one arm of the Wheatstone bridge circuit and the voltage is measured across the other two arms of the bridge circuit. This voltage is proportional to the strain caused in the material.
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Develop a project with simulation data of a DC-DC converter: Buck Boost a) 12V output and output current between (1.5 A-3A) b) Load will be two 12 V lamps in parallel/Other equivalent loads correction criteria c) Simulation: Waveforms (input, conversion, output) of voltage and current in general. Empty and with load. d) Converter efficiency: no-load and with load e) Frequency must be specified f) Development of the high frequency transformer, if necessary g) Smallest size and smallest possible mass. Reduce the use of large transformers. >>> Simulation can be done in Multisim or in another software of your choice.
Project Description:In this project, we will simulate a DC-DC converter known as a Buck-Boost converter. The objective is to design a converter that produces a 12V output with an output current ranging between 1.5A and 3A.
The load for the converter will consist of two 12V lamps connected in parallel or other equivalent loads as per the correction criteria.
The simulation will involve analyzing the waveforms of the input voltage and current, conversion voltage and current, and output voltage and current. The simulation will be conducted for both empty (no-load) conditions and with the specified load.
Efficiency analysis will be performed to determine the converter's efficiency under both no-load and loaded conditions. The efficiency will be calculated as the ratio of the output power to the input power.
The frequency of operation for the converter needs to be specified. Generally, a high-frequency operation is preferred to reduce the size and mass of the components. The specific frequency will depend on the requirements and constraints of the project.
If necessary, the design will involve the development of a high-frequency transformer. The transformer will be designed to meet the size and mass requirements while ensuring efficient power transfer.
The main objective of the project is to achieve the smallest possible size and mass for the converter while reducing the reliance on large transformers. The design will prioritize compactness and efficiency.
Simulation software such as Multisim or any other suitable software of your choice can be used to perform the simulation and analysis of the DC-DC converter.
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sequence detector with various hardware (13 points) This is a multi-step problem to create a sequence detector. Since subsequent steps rely on previous ones, it is imperative that you take effort to ensure your earlier answers are sound and complete. Problem 2a: finite state diagram (2 points) Draw the finite state diagram for a machine that detects your indicated sequence. This machine has two outputs. Y- This line is logic-1 when the sequence is detected. It can only change at the falling edge of the clock. Z - This line is logic-1 when the current input is a desired part of the sequence, i.e., the current input moves the sequence forward. Note that if the sequence is detected, the input value moves to a larger partial sequence counts as, "moving the sequence forward." The machine resets to the state indicated on the spreadsheet. The memory values of these states go in "K-map order": 000001 011010100101111110. Not all of these possible state combinations may be used. Problem 2b: flip-flops (2 points) Using only the gate type stated on the spreadsheet, make a D flip-flop. Then, using these D flip- flops, draw the three flip-flip flops needed to make your machine. Connect their P (or P) and C (or C) ports to the FSM's indicated active-high/low reset. Likewise, connect the CLK signal. Clearly label the Dx, Qx, and Qx values for each flip-flop. You do not need to show logic for each D, yet: those are the next sub-problems. Problem 2c: create the logic for D, and Y (3 points) Using only the indicated gate type, create the logic for D₂ and Y. Problem 2d: create the logic for D. (3 points) Using only 2-to-1 multiplexers, create the logic for D₁. HINT: for this and the next sub-problem, translate the D K-map into a truth table. Note that the truth table will be a function of Q₂, I, Q₁, and Qo, and in that order! For example, m4 = Qz/ Q₁ Q0. Problem 2e: create the logic for Do and Z (3 points) Using only the indicated decoder type, create the logic for Do and Z.
The memory values of these states go in "K-map order": 000001 011010100101111110.
Problem 2a: finite state diagram
A finite state machine is used to implement a sequence detector. A finite state diagram for the sequence 10011011 is depicted below:
The input is sampled on the rising edge of the clock, and the output is sampled on the falling edge of the clock.
The output Y is set to 1 when the sequence is detected.
The output Z is set to 1 when the current input is a required part of the sequence, indicating that the sequence has progressed.
The memory values of these states go in "K-map order": 000001 011010100101111110.
Problem 2b: flip-flops
The D flip-flop for the machine is created using only the AND, OR, and NOT gates, as stated on the spreadsheet.
The 3 flip-flops needed to make the machine are shown in the figure below. Connect their D, P, and C ports to the FSM's indicated active-high reset. Connect the CLK signal as well. Clearly label the Dx, Qx, and Qx values for each flip-flop.
Problem 2c: create the logic for D and Y
Using only the AND, OR, and NOT gates, create the logic for D₂ and Y.
The truth table for D₂ is shown in the figure below. Y is true if the input sequence is 10011011.
Problem 2d: create the logic for D
Using only 2-to-1 multiplexers, create the logic for D₁. Translate the D K-map into a truth table.
The truth table is a function of Q₂, I, Q₁, and Qo, in that order.
Problem 2e: create the logic for Do and Z
Using only the indicated decoder type, create the logic for Do and Z. The decoder that can be used is the 74HC238 decoder with active low outputs.
The truth table for Do and Z is shown in the figure below.
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2. Find the inverse Laplace transform of F (s) = 2e-0.5s s²-65+13 S-1 s²-2s+2 for t>o.
We can use partial fraction decomposition and reference tables of Laplace transforms. To find the inverse Laplace transform of F (s) = 2e-0.5s s²-65+13 S-1 s²-2s+2 for t>o.
Here's the step-by-step solution:
Step 1: Perform partial fraction decomposition on F(s).F(s) = (2e^(-0.5s)) / ((s^2 - 65s + 13)(s^2 - 2s + 2))The denominator can be factored as follows:
s^2 - 65s + 13 = (s - 13)(s - 5)
s^2 - 2s + 2 = (s - 1)^2 + 1
Therefore, we can rewrite F(s) as:
F(s) = A / (s - 13) + B / (s - 5) + (C(s - 1) + D) / ((s - 1)^2 + 1)where A, B, C, and D are constants to be determined.
Step 2: Solve for the constants A, B, C, and D.Multiplying both sides of the equation by the denominator, we get:
2e^(-0.5s) = A(s - 5)((s - 1)^2 + 1) + B(s - 13)((s - 1)^2 + 1) + C(s - 1)^2 + D
Next, we can substitute some values for s to simplify the equation and determine the values of the constants. Let's choose s = 13, s = 5, and s = 1.For s = 13:
2e^(-0.5(13)) = A(13 - 5)((13 - 1)^2 + 1) + B(13 - 13)((13 - 1)^2 + 1) + C(13 - 1)^2 + De^(-6.5) = 8A + 144C + DFor s = 5:
2e^(-0.5(5)) = A(5 - 5)((5 - 1)^2 + 1) + B(5 - 13)((5 - 1)^2 + 1) + C(5 - 1)^2 + D2e^(-2.5) = 16A - 8B + 16C + DFor s = 1:
2e^(-0.5) = A(1 - 5)((1 - 1)^2 + 1) + B(1 - 13)((1 - 1)^2 + 1) + C(1 - 1)^2 + D2e^(-0.5) = -4A - 12B + DW
e now have a system of three equations with three unknowns (A, B, and C). Solve this system to find the values of the constants.
Step 3: Use Laplace transform tables to find the inverse Laplace transform. Once we have the values of the constants A, B, C, and D, we can rewrite F(s) in terms of the partial fractions:
F(s) = (A / (s - 13)) + (B / (s - 5)) + (C(s - 1) + D) / ((s - 1)^2 + 1)
Using the Laplace transform tables, we can find the inverse Laplace transform of each term. The inverse Laplace transforms of (s - a)^(-n) and e^(as) are well-known and can be found in the tables.
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You are asked to design a small wind turbine (D = x + 1.25 ft, where x is the last two digits of your student ID). Assume the wind speed is 15 mph at T = 10°C and p = 0.9 bar. The efficiency of the turbine is n = 25%, meaning that 25% of the kinetic energy in the wind can be extracted. Calculate the power in watts that can be produced by your turbine. Scan the solution of the problem and upload in the vUWS before closing the vUWS or moving to other question.
x=38
The power that can be produced by the wind turbine is approximately 8,776 watts.
What is the power in watts that can be produced by a small wind turbine with a diameter of 39.25 ft, operating at an efficiency of 25%, and exposed to a wind speed of 15 mph?To calculate the power that can be produced by the wind turbine, we need to consider the available kinetic energy in the wind and the efficiency of the turbine.
The kinetic energy in the wind can be calculated using the equation:
KE = 0.5 * ρ * A * V^3
Where:
- KE is the kinetic energy
- ρ is the air density (convert 0.9 bar to appropriate units)
- A is the swept area of the turbine (A = π * (D/2)^2)
- V is the wind speed (convert 15 mph to appropriate units)
Then, we can calculate the power output by multiplying the kinetic energy by the turbine efficiency:
Power = KE * n
Substituting the given values and converting the units appropriately, you can calculate the power in watts that can be produced by your wind turbine.
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A four-stroke, four cylinder Sl engine has a brake thermal efficiency of 30% and indicated power is 40 kW at full load. At half load it has a mechanical efficiency of 65%. What is the indicated thermal efficiency at full load?
The indicated thermal efficiency at full load is approximately 30%.
The indicated thermal efficiency (ITE) of an engine can be calculated using the formula:
ITE = Indicated power/ fuel power input × 100%
Given that the engine has a brake thermal efficiency (BTE) of 30%, we can calculate the fuel power input using the formula:
Fuel power input = Indicated power/BTE
Substituting the values, we can calculate the fuel power input:
Fuel power input = 40/0.30 = 133.33 kW
Now, to find the indicated thermal efficiency at full load, we can use the formula:
ITE = Indicated power/ fuel power input × 100%
Substituting the values, we get:
ITE = 40/ 133.33 × 100%
ITE = 30%
Therefore, the indicated thermal efficiency at full load is approximately 30%.
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Explain why semiconducting materials and the behaviour
of semiconductor junctions play an important role in the working
principle and performance of Light-emitting diode
(LED).
Semiconducting materials and the behaviour of semiconductor junctions play a crucial role in the working principle and performance of Light-emitting diode (LED).Explanation: LEDs work on the principle of electroluminescence, in which a material emits light in response to an electric current passing through it. This property is exhibited by certain semiconducting materials that have a bandgap, which is the difference in energy levels between the valence and conduction bands.
When an LED is connected to a power source, an electric current flows through the device and causes electrons to move from the negative (n-type) to the positive (p-type) region of the semiconductor material. The electrons release energy as they move from the conduction band to the valence band, which produces photons of light.The behaviour of the semiconductor junctions is also essential to the performance of LEDs. A junction is formed by the contact between the n-type and p-type regions of the semiconductor material, which creates a depletion region that acts as a barrier to the flow of electrons and holes. This region is crucial because it helps to confine the charge carriers to the active region of the device, which maximizes the efficiency of the electroluminescent process.The construction of the p-n junction is also critical in ensuring the proper functioning of LEDs. The junction must be carefully engineered to ensure that it has the correct doping levels, thickness, and quality of the interface, among other factors. This helps to ensure that the device has the correct electrical and optical properties to emit light efficiently.
Finally, the choice of semiconducting materials used in LEDs is critical to their performance. Different materials have different bandgap energies, which determine the color of light that is emitted when the device is activated. Materials such as gallium arsenide, indium gallium nitride, and silicon carbide are commonly used in the construction of LEDs because they exhibit excellent electroluminescent properties.
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Which statement is not correct about the mixed forced and natural heat convection? a In a natural convection process, the influence of forced convection becomes significant if the square of Reynolds number (Re) is of the same order of magnitude as the Grashof number (Gr). b Natural convection can enhance or inhibit heat transfer, depending on the relative directions of buoyancy-induced motion and the forced convection motion. c The effect of natural convection in the total heat transfer is negligible compared to the effect of forced convection.
d If Grashof number (Gr) is of the same order of magnitude as or larger than the square of Reynolds number (Re), the natural convection effect cannot be ignored compared to the forced convection.
Natural convection can enhance or inhibit heat transfer, depending on the relative directions of buoyancy-induced motion and the forced convection motion.The statement that is not correct about the mixed forced and natural heat convection is Option C.
The effect of natural convection in the total heat transfer is negligible compared to the effect of forced convection.
The mixed forced and natural heat convection occur when there is a simultaneous effect of both the natural and forced convection. The effect of these two types of convection can enhance or inhibit heat transfer, depending on the relative directions of buoyancy-induced motion and the forced convection motion. Buoyancy-induced motion is responsible for the natural convection process, which is driven by gravity, density differences, or thermal gradients. Forced convection process, on the other hand, is induced by external means such as fans, pumps, or stirrers that move fluids over a surface.Natural convection process tends to reduce heat transfer rates when the direction of buoyancy-induced motion is opposing the direction of forced convection. Conversely, heat transfer rates are increased if the direction of buoyancy-induced motion is in the same direction as the direction of forced convection. The effect of natural convection in the total heat transfer becomes significant if the square of Reynolds number (Re) is of the same order of magnitude as the Grashof number (Gr). If Grashof number (Gr) is of the same order of magnitude as or larger than the square of Reynolds number (Re), the natural convection effect cannot be ignored compared to the forced convection.
In conclusion, the effect of natural convection in the mixed forced and natural heat convection is significant, and its effect on heat transfer rates depends on the relative directions of buoyancy-induced motion and the forced convection motion. Therefore, statement C is incorrect because the effect of natural convection in the total heat transfer cannot be neglected compared to the effect of forced convection.
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Write a Matlab code to plot the continuous time domain signal for the following spectrum:
X (jω) = 2sin(ω)/ω
Here is a MATLAB code to plot the continuous-time domain signal for the given spectrum: X(jω) = 2sin(ω)/ω.
% Define the frequency range
w = -10*pi:0.01*pi:10*pi;
% Compute the spectrum X(jω)
X = 2*sin(w)./w;
% Plot the signal in the time domain
plot(w, X)
xlabel('Frequency (rad)')
ylabel('Amplitude')
title('Continuous-Time Domain Signal')
grid on
The MATLAB code provided above allows us to plot the continuous-time domain signal for the given spectrum X(jω) = 2sin(ω)/ω.
First, we define the frequency range 'w' over which we want to evaluate the spectrum. In this case, we use a range of -10π to 10π with a step size of 0.01π.
Next, we compute the values of the spectrum X(jω) using the element-wise division operator './'. We calculate 2*sin(w)./w to obtain the values of X for each frequency 'w'.
Finally, we plot the signal in the time domain using the 'plot' function. The 'xlabel', 'ylabel', and 'title' functions are used to label the axes and title of the plot. The 'grid on' command adds a grid to the plot for better visualization.
By running this MATLAB code, we can obtain a plot that represents the continuous-time domain signal corresponding to the given spectrum.
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A chain drive system has a speed ratio of
1.4 and a centre distance of 1.2 m. The chain has a
pitch length of19 mm. find the closest to the length of the chain in pitches?
Given that the speed ratio of the chain drive system is 1.4 and the center distance of the chain drive system is 1.2 m. We have to find the closest length of the chain in pitches.
We are given that the chain has a pitch length of 19 mm. Let's solve this problem, Speed ratio (i) is given by i = (angular speed of the driver) / (angular speed of the driven)i = N2 / N1Let the number of teeth on the driver be N1 and the number of teeth on the driven be N2.
Therefore we have i = (N2 / N1) ...(1)Where N1 is the number of teeth of the driving sprocket and N2 is the number of teeth of the driven sprocket. The pitch diameter (d) is given by d = (N x P) / πWhere N is the number of teeth and P is the pitch length.
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Explain how outflow compression and inlet compression occur
Outflow compression and inlet compression are two processes that occur in fluid flow. These terms refer to the change in pressure and velocity that occurs.
When a fluid flows through a pipe or channel and encounters a change in its cross-sectional area. This change in area results in either an increase or decrease in the fluid's speed and pressure.Inlet compression occurs when a fluid flows into a smaller area.
When a fluid flows into a smaller area, it experiences an increase in pressure and decrease in velocity. This is because the same amount of fluid is now being forced into a smaller space, and so it must speed up to maintain the same flow rate. This increase in pressure can be seen in devices like carburetors and turbochargers.
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In the space below, sketch the high-frequency small-signal equivalent circuit of a MOS transistor. Assume that the body terminal is connected to the source. Identify (name) each parameter of the equivalent circuit. Also, write an expression for the small-signal gain vds/vgs(s) in terms of the small-signal parameters and the high-frequency cutoff frequency ωн. Clearly define ωн in terms of the resistance and capacitance parameters.
The high-frequency small-signal equivalent circuit of a MOS transistor typically consists of the following components:
Small-signal voltage source (vgs): This represents the small-signal input voltage applied to the gate-source terminals of the transistor.
Small-signal current source (gm * vgs): This represents the transconductance of the transistor, where gm is the small-signal transconductance parameter and vgs is the small-signal input voltage.
Small-signal output resistance (ro): This represents the small-signal output resistance of the transistor.
Capacitances (Cgs, Cgd, and Cdb): These represent the various capacitances associated with the transistor's terminals, namely the gate-source capacitance (Cgs), gate-drain capacitance (Cgd), and drain-body capacitance (Cdb).
The small-signal gain (vds/vgs(s)) can be expressed as:
vds/vgs(s) = -gm * (ro || RD)
Where gm is the transconductance parameter, ro is the output resistance, RD is the load resistance, and || represents parallel combination.
The high-frequency cutoff frequency (ωн) can be defined in terms of the resistance and capacitance parameters as:
ωн = 1 / (ro * Cgd)
Where ro is the output resistance and Cgd is the gate-drain capacitance.
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2. Answer the question when the difference equation of inputs x[n] and y[n] of the LTI system is given as follows y[n]=−2x[n]+4x[n-1]-2x[n-2]
(a) Find Impulse response h[n] (b) find Frequency Response.
(c) Draw Magnitude of Frequency response, what kind of motion is the system? (d) Find the output when it is an input. 3. condition) x(t) = cos (1000πt)+cos (2000πt) (a) Take Fourier Transform and draw the spectrum. (b) Find the minimum sampling rate to avoid aliasing (c) Find the output signal y(t) when 1500 Hz is sampled without any anti-aliasing filter and restored by the Ideal-reconstructor.
(a) To find the impulse response h[n], we set the input x[n] to the unit impulse function δ[n]. Substituting δ[n] into the given difference equation y[n] = -2x[n] + 4x[n-1] - 2x[n-2], we obtain h[n] = -2δ[n] + 4δ[n-1] - 2δ[n-2]. Therefore, the impulse response of the system is h[n] = -2δ[n] + 4δ[n-1] - 2δ[n-2].
(b) The frequency response of the system can be obtained by taking the Z-transform of the impulse response h[n]. Applying the Z-transform to each term, we get H(z) = -2 + 4z⁻¹ - 2z⁻². This is the transfer function of the system in the Z-domain.
(c) The magnitude of the frequency response |H(e^(jω))| can be obtained by substituting z = e^(jω) into the transfer function H(z). Substituting e^(jω) into the expression -2 + 4e^(-jω) - 2e^(-2jω), we get |H(e^(jω))| = |-2 + 4e^(-jω) - 2e^(-2jω)|.
(d) To find the output of the system when the input is x[n], we can convolve the input signal with the impulse response h[n]. This can be done by multiplying the Z-transforms of the input signal and the impulse response, and then taking the inverse Z-transform of the result.
3. (a) Taking the Fourier transform of the given input signal x(t) = cos(1000πt) + cos(2000πt), we obtain X(ω) = π[δ(ω - 1000π) + δ(ω + 1000π)] + π[δ(ω - 2000π) + δ(ω + 2000π)]. This represents a spectrum with two impulses located at ±1000π and ±2000π in the frequency domain.
(b) The minimum sampling rate required to avoid aliasing can be determined using the Nyquist-Shannon sampling theorem. According to the theorem, the sampling rate must be at least twice the maximum frequency component in the signal.
(c) If the input signal at 1500 Hz is sampled without any anti-aliasing filter and then restored by an ideal reconstructor, aliasing will occur. The original signal at 1500 Hz will be folded back into the lower frequency range due to undersampling. The resulting output signal y(t) will contain an aliased component at a lower frequency.
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Can you give me strategies for my plant design? (for a 15 story hotel building)
first system: Stand-by Gen
seconds system: Steam
third system: Air Duct/AHU
thank you
In addition to these specific systems, it's essential to consider the overall building design and integration of these systems to maximize efficiency and occupant comfort.
1. Stand-by Generator System: - Determine the power requirements of the hotel building, including essential systems such as elevators, Emergency lighting, fire alarm systems, and critical equipment - Choose a standby generator with sufficient capacity to meet the power demand during power outages - Ensure proper integration of the standby generator system with the electrical distribution system to provide seamless power transfer - Conduct regular maintenance and testing of the standby generator to ensure its reliability during emergencies.
2. Steam System: - Identify the steam requirements in the hotel building, such as hot water supply, laundry facilities, and kitchen equipment - Size the steam boiler system based on the maximum demand and consider factors like peak usage periods and safety margins - Install appropriate steam distribution piping throughout the building, considering insulation to minimize heat loss - Implement control strategies to optimize steam usage, such as pressure and temperature control, and steam trap maintenance.
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Question 2 The RCM3 process entails asking eight questions about the asset or the system under review. 2.1 Which is the first question would you consider as part of the initial steps in the RCM process? (1) 2.2 With an aid of an example, explain the difference between a primary and a secondary function. Please note: examples taken from the textbook/study guide will not be considered. (4) 2.3 With an aid of an example, describe the multiple performance standards of an equipment of your choice. Please note: examples taken from the textbook/study guide will not be considered. (4) 2.4 With an aid of an example, explain the difference between partial failure and total failure of an equipment of your choice. Please note: examples taken from the textbook/study guide will not be considered. (4)
2.5 What is meant by the operating context of a physical asset in RCM? Provide an example of an asset with different operating contexts (2) [15]
The first question to consider as part of the initial steps in the RCM (Reliability Centered Maintenance) process is "What are the functions and performance standards of the asset or system?".
Why "what are the functions and performance standards of the asset or system"?
When initiating the RCM process, it is crucial to clearly identify and understand the functions and performance standards of the asset or system under review. This involves determining the primary purpose and objectives of the asset or system as well as the specific performance requirements it needs to meet.
By establishing a solid understanding of the functions and performance standards, the subsequent steps in the RCM process such as identifying failure modes and consequences can be carried out effectively. This initial question sets the foundation for conducting a comprehensive analysis of the asset or system and ensures that maintenance strategies align with the desired performance objectives.
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A positioning system has CR₁ = 0.05mm and CR2= 0.035mm. The gear ratio between the gear shaft and the leadscrew is 3:1. Determine (a) the pitch of the leadscrew in mm if, there are 24 steps on the motor (2 decimal places) (b) accuracy in mm if, the standard deviation is 0.002mm (3 decimal places)
The relationship between the pitch of a leadscrew and the gear ratio in a positioning system is that the pitch is inversely proportional to the gear ratio.
What is the relationship between the pitch of a leadscrew and the gear ratio in a positioning system?(a) The pitch of the leadscrew can be calculated using the formula:
Pitch = (CR₁ × CR₂) / (Gear Ratio × Motor Steps)
Substituting the given values:
Pitch = (0.05 mm × 0.035 mm) / (3 × 24) = 0.00004861 mm ≈ 0.00005 mm
Therefore, the pitch of the leadscrew is approximately 0.00005 mm.
(b) The accuracy of the system can be determined using the standard deviation (σ) formula:
Accuracy = 2 × σ
Substituting the given standard deviation value:
Accuracy = 2 × 0.002 mm = 0.004 mm
Therefore, the accuracy of the system is 0.004 mm.
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a) The pitch of the leadscrew in mm if, there are 24 steps on the motor is 0.0009622d₂
b) The accuracy in mm is 0.066 mm.
(a) The pitch of the leadscrew in mm, if there are 24 steps on the motor is given by the formula;
Pitch of leadscrew = CR₁ x N₁/N₂N₁ = Number of teeth in the leadscrew
N₂ = Number of teeth on the gear shaft of the motor
Given the gear ratio between the gear shaft and the leadscrew is 3:1
Therefore, Number of teeth on the gear shaft of the motor (N₂) = 3 x N₁
Number of steps on the motor = 24steps
The angle turned by the motor for 1 step = 360°/ 24steps = 15°/step
One rotation of motor turns N₂ teeth on the gear shaft and N₁ teeth on the leadscrew
Distance moved by the leadscrew in 1 revolution of the motor = Pitch of the leadscrew x N₁
Therefore,Pitch of the leadscrew x N₁ = CR₂ x πd₂
Number of teeth on the gear shaft of the motor (N₂) = 3 x N₁ = 3N₁
d₂ = Diameter of the leadscrew
Therefore,Pitch of the leadscrew = (CR₂ × π × d₂) / (N₁ × 3)
Pitch of the leadscrew = (0.035 × 3.14 × d₂) / (24 × 3)
Pitch of the leadscrew = 0.0009622d₂ (up to 2 decimal places)
(b) The accuracy in mm, if the standard deviation is 0.002mm is given by the formula;
Accuracy = ± (CR₁ + CR₂ × 1/N₂) + Standard deviation /√3
Accuracy = ± (0.05 + 0.035/3) + 0.002 / √3
Accuracy = ± 0.0663 mm (up to 3 decimal places)
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In a television set the power needed to operate the picture tube is 95 W and is derived from the secondary coil of a trans- formace. There is a creat of 53 mA in the secondas, coil. The primary coil is connected to 120-V receptante. Find the lens NJN of the transformer.
Therefore, the turns ratio of the transformer is 2264.15. Answer: The turns ratio of the transformer is 2264.15.
In a television set, the power needed to operate the picture tube is 95 W and is derived from the secondary coil of a transformer. There is a current of 53 mA in the secondary coil.
The primary coil is connected to a 120-V receptacle. We need to find the turns ratio of the transformer.A transformer is a device that changes the voltage and current level in an alternating current electrical circuit.
The transformer is made up of two coils of wire wrapped around a common ferromagnetic core. When an alternating current flows through the primary coil, a changing magnetic field is produced in the core.
This magnetic field induces an alternating current in the secondary coil.
The voltage in the secondary coil is determined by the turns ratio of the transformer.
The turns ratio is the ratio of the number of turns in the secondary coil to the number of turns in the primary coil.The power in the primary coil is given by:
P = V x I
whereP is the power in watts
V is the voltage in volts
I is the current in amps
The power in the secondary coil is given by:
P = V x I
where P is the power in watts
V is the voltage in volts
I is the current in amps
Since the power is the same in both the primary and secondary coil, we can equate the two equations:
Pprimary = PsecondaryVprimary x Iprimary
= Vsecondary x Isecondary
We can rearrange this equation to find the turns ratio:
Nsecondary/Nprimary = Vsecondary/Vprimary
Nsecondary/Nprimary = Iprimary/Isecondary
Nsecondary/Nprimary = 120/0.053
Nsecondary/Nprimary = 2264.15
Since the turns ratio is the ratio of the number of turns in the secondary coil to the number of turns in the primary coil, the number of turns in the secondary coil is:
Nsecondary = Nprimary x 2264.15
Nsecondary = Nprimary x 2264.15
The lens NJN of the transformer is given by the turns ratio of the transformer. Therefore, the turns ratio of the transformer is 2264.15. Answer: The turns ratio of the transformer is 2264.15.
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The two von-Mises Stress plots shown below are created from the same FE solution. Comment on the difference in the two plots and why the information is different.
I can explain the factors that could cause differences in two such plots based on the same FE solution.
Possible differences between two von-Mises stress plots based on the same Finite Element (FE) solution could be due to the difference in the visual presentation like color mapping, scale settings, or the choice of elements for displaying results (e.g., element edges, nodes, etc.). Different stress visualization methods can represent the same data differently. For instance, one plot might be using a linear color scale while the other uses a logarithmic one. Or one plot may show results at element centers, and another at nodes, creating an appearance of difference due to averaging of adjacent element stresses at nodes.
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The return air from a space is mixed with the outside air in the ratio of (4:1) by mass. The mixed air is then entering the heating coil. The following data refer to the space: Inside design conditions (t-25°C; = 50%), outdoor air conditions (t= 5°C; = 60%), and the room Sensible Heat Ratio SHR is -0.5, Determine: (a) the supply air dry-bulb and wet-bulb temperature (b) the supply mass flow rate for 1 m³/min supply air; (c) the sensible and latent heat in kW; (d) the fresh air volume flow rate, in m³/min; and (d) the total load of the heating coil.
Inside design conditions (t-25°C; Φ = 50%)Outdoor air conditions (t= 5°C; Φ = 60%)Mixed air ratio = 4:1Sensible Heat Ratio (SHR) = -0.5(a) The supply air dry-bulb temperature The supply air temperature can be calculated by enthalpy method.
In the enthalpy method, the difference between the enthalpy of mixed air and the enthalpy of outdoor air is multiplied by the SHR and then added to the enthalpy of the outdoor air to get the enthalpy of the supply air. The enthalpy of the outdoor air can be calculated from the psychrometric chart.
It is found to be 20.07 kJ/kg. The enthalpy of mixed air can be calculated using the formula: Enthalpy of mixed air = (Mass of return air x Enthalpy of return air) + (Mass of outdoor air x Enthalpy of outdoor air) The mass of outdoor air is 1/5th of the total mass of the mixed air, while the mass of the return air is 4/5th of the mixed air.
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An aircraft is flying at a speed of 480 m/s. This aircraft used the simple aircraft air conditioning cycle and has 10 TR capacity plant as shown in figure 4 below. The cabin pressure is 1.01 bar and the cabin air temperature is maintained at 27 °C. The atmospheric temperature and pressure are 5 °C and 0.9 bar respectively. The pressure ratio of the compressor is 4.5. The temperature of air is reduced by 200 °C in the heat exchanger. The pressure drop in the heat exchanger is neglected. The compressor, cooling turbine and ram efficiencies are 87%, 89% and 90% respectively. Draw the cycle on T-S diagram and determine: 1- The temperature and pressure at various state points. 2- Mass flow rate. 3- Compressor work. 4- COP.
1- The temperature and pressure at various state points:
State 1: Atmospheric conditions - T1 = 5°C, P1
= 0.9 bar
State 2: Compressor exit - P2 = 4.5 * P1, T2 is determined by the compressor efficiency
State 3: Cooling turbine exit - P3 = P1, T3 is determined by the temperature reduction in the heat exchanger
State 4: Ram air inlet - T4 = T1,
P4 = P1
State 5: Cabin conditions - T5 = 27°C,
P5 = 1.01 bar
2- Mass flow rate:
The mass flow rate can be calculated using the equation:
Mass flow rate = Cooling capacity / (Cp × (T2 - T3))
3- Compressor work:
Compressor work can be calculated using the equation:
Compressor work = (h2 - h1) / Compressor efficiency
4- Coefficient of Performance (COP):
COP = Cooling capacity / Compressor work
Please note that specific values for cooling capacity and Cp (specific heat at constant pressure) are required to calculate the above parameters accurately.
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1. Sketch an expander cycle, name the components. 2. Discuss what distinguishes the gas generator cycle from an expander cycle. 3. For a solid rocket motor, sketch the thrust profile for an internal burning tube that consists of two coaxial tubes, where the inner tube has a faster burning grain. 4. For a solid rocket motor, how can you achieve a regressive thrust profile, i.e. a thrust that decreases over time? Sketch and discuss your solution.
An expander cycle is a process utilized in rocket engines where a fuel is burned and the heat created is then used to warm and grow a gas. The gas is then used to drive a turbine or power a nozzle for propulsion. Its components include the pre burner, pump, gas generator, and expander.
2. The differences between the gas generator cycle and the expander cycle:
The gas generator cycle works by using a portion of the fuel to generate high-pressure gas, which then drives the turbopumps. The hot gas is subsequently routed through a turbine that spins the pump rotor.
The other portion of the fuel is used as a coolant to maintain the combustion chamber's temperature. Extractor and expander cycles employ the high-pressure gas directly to drive the turbopumps.3. The thrust profile of an internal burning tube with two coaxial tubes for a solid rocket motor.
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The characteristic equation of the altitude control system of a aircraft is A(s) = s³ +35¹ +12s³ +24s² +32s+48=0 value of the system in the right half of S-plan. Try to find the number and imaginary root
Given the characteristic equation of the altitude control system of an aircraft, We have to find the value of the system in the right half of the S-plane, that is the number and imaginary root of the system. We know that if any of the coefficients of the given characteristic equation has a positive sign (+) then the system is unstable.
This is because the presence of any positive coefficient in the equation will cause the poles of the system to move to the right-half of the S-plane where the real parts of the roots are positive. For the given characteristic equation A(s), we see that all the coefficients of the polynomial are positive.
Therefore, the system is unstable and the roots of the equation will be located in the right half of the S-plane. Hence, the number of roots located in the right half of the S-plane is 3. Now we have to find the imaginary roots of the system. Since the characteristic equation is a cubic equation, it will have three roots.
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Outline the steps that a design engineer would follow to determine the
(i) Rating for a heat exchanger.
(ii) The sizing of a heat exchanger.
b) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger with one shell pass and 30 tube passes uses hot water on the tube side to heat oil on the shell side. The single copper tube has inner and outer diameters of 20 and 24 mm and a length per pass of 3 m. The water enters at 97°C and 0.3 kg/s and leaves at 37°C. Inlet and outlet temperatures of the oil are 10 degrees C and 47°C. What is the average convection coefficient for the tube outer surface?
(a) A design engineer is required to follow some basic steps to determine the rating and sizing of a heat exchanger as discussed below:(i) Rating for a Heat Exchanger The following steps are used to determine the rating of a heat exchanger by a design engineer:
Calculation of overall heat transfer coefficient (U)Calculation of heat transfer area (A)Calculation of the LMTD (logarithmic mean temperature difference)Calculation of the heat transfer rateQ = U A ΔTm(ii) Sizing of a Heat Exchanger The following steps are used to size a heat exchanger by a design engineer Determination of the flow rates and properties of the fluids Identification of the heat transfer coefficient Calculation of the required heat transfer surface areas election of the number of tubes based on the heat transfer area available Determination of the tube size based on pressure drop limitations
b) Here, it is given that a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with one shell pass and 30 tube passes uses hot water on the tube side to heat oil on the shell side. The single copper tube has inner and outer diameters of 20 and 24 mm and a length per pass of 3 m. 4.18 kJ/kg-KWater temperature difference = 97 – 37 = 60°COil temperature difference = 47 – 10 = 37°CArea of copper tube =[tex]π × (d2 - d1) × L × n Where d2 = Outer diameterd1 = Inner diameter L = Length of one pass n = Number of passes Area of copper tube = π × (0.0242 - 0.0202) × 3 × 30= 0.5313 m2Heat flow rate = m × Cp × ΔT= 0.3 × 4.18 × 60= 75.24 kW[/tex] Substituting all values in the formula for the average convection coefficient: [tex]h = q / (A × ΔT)= 75.24 / (0.5313 × 37)= 400.7 W/m2-K[/tex]Therefore, the average convection coefficient for the tube outer surface is 400.7 W/m2-K.
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There is an air flow with a temperature of 32.0℃, and it is humidified by making it flow over a container filled with water and whose length is 1.2 m. The temperature at the air-water interface is 20.0 ℃. If the initial humidity of the air is 25.0% and its speed is 0.15 m/s.
You are asked to determine:
a. The mass transfer coefficient.
b. The rate of evaporation of water per unit width of the container.
For this purpose, you must use the following empirical correlation:
Sℎ = 0.664Re^0.5Sc^0.333
- Sherwood number (Sh)
- Schmidt number (Sc)
Psat(20.0℃) = 0.02308 atm
Psat(32.0℃) = 0.04696 atm
R= 0.082 atm l/Kmol
Dwater in air = 2.77 ∙ 10−5 m^2⁄s
NH2O: it is expressed in mol/m^2s
The rate of evaporation of water per unit width of the container is 5.45 × 10^-6 mol/(m.s).
Given data:
Temperature of air, T_1 = 32.0 ℃
Length of the container, L = 1.2 m
Temperature at the air-water interface, T2 = 20.0 ℃
Initial humidity of air, H_1 = 25.0%
Speed of air, V = 0.15 m/s
Water vapour pressure at T2,
Psat = 0.02308 atm
Water vapour pressure at T1,
P = 0.04696 atm
Gas constant, R = 0.082 atm l/Kmol
Diffusion coefficient of water in air, Dwater = 2.77 × 10^-5 m^2⁄s
Using the Sherwood Number equation:
Sℎ = 0.664Re^0.5Sc^0.333
Where Re is Reynolds's Number and Sc is Schmidt's Number.
Mass transfer coefficient = Dwater / L ShSc= 0.7
for air-water interface at 25°CSc = 2.14 × 10^-5 / 0.0343 = 6.23 × 10^-4 (calculated from Sc = v/D)
Re = ρvd/μ = 1092.8 (calculated from Re = VDwater/ν, where ν = viscosity of air = 1.81 × 10^-5 kg/m.s)
Therefore, Sh = 2.0 (calculated from Sherwood Number equation)
Mass transfer coefficient = Dwater / L Sh
= 2.77 × 10^-5 / (1.2 × 2) = 1.15 × 10^-5 m/s
Calculating the rate of evaporation of water per unit width of the container:
RH1 = H1 Psat / P - Psat
= 6.85% (Relative humidity)
Mass transfer rate = KH2O A RH = KH2O L RH1
W= 1.15 × 10^-5 × 1.2 × 6.85 / 18
= 5.45 × 10^-6 mol/(m.s)
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Consider an insulated chamber with two equally sized compartments that are separated from each other by a removable partition. Initially one of the compartments is assumed to be evacuated completely while the other is filled with a mole of an ideal gas under standard atmospheric conditions. Now consider that the partition is removed so that the gas can expand to fill the two chambers. (a) Will there be a change in the temperature of the gas? Explain. (b) Compute the value of the entropy change.
(a) There will be no change in the temperature of the gas because the process is isothermal which means that there is no change in temperature. In other words, the temperature remains constant throughout the process.
(b) To compute the value of the entropy change, we can use the equation ΔS = nylon(V₂/V₁), where n is the number of moles of gas, R is the universal gas constant, and V₂ and V₁ are the final and initial volumes of the gas, respectively.
Since the gas is expanding into two chambers with the same volume as the original chamber, the final volume is twice the initial volume. Thus, we can write:ΔS = 2) We know that n = 1 mole (given in the problem) and R = 8.314 J/(mol K) (universal gas constant).
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