Q1: The system described by y(n) = x(n+1) + 2 is BIBO stable.
Q2: The system described by y(n) = n|x(n)| is BIBO unstable.
Q1: The system described by the equation y(n) = x(n+1) + 2 is BIBO stable.
Answer: a) BIBO stable
BIBO stability refers to the property of a system that ensures bounded input results in bounded output. In this case, let's analyze the given system:
y(n) = x(n+1) + 2
For BIBO stability, we need to check if there exists a finite bound on the output y(n) for any bounded input x(n). Let's assume a bounded input x(n) with a finite bound M:
|x(n)| ≤ M
Now let's analyze the output y(n):
y(n) = x(n+1) + 2
The output y(n) is the sum of x(n+1) and a constant value 2. Since the input x(n) is bounded, the term x(n+1) will also be bounded as it follows the same bound as x(n).
Therefore, the output y(n) will also be bounded since it is the sum of a bounded term (x(n+1)) and a constant value (2).
Hence, the system described by y(n) = x(n+1) + 2 is BIBO stable.
Q2: The system described by the equation y(n) = n|x(n)| is BIBO unstable.
Answer: b) BIBO unstable
Let's analyze the given system:
y(n) = n|x(n)|
For BIBO stability, we need to check if there exists a finite bound on the output y(n) for any bounded input x(n). In this case, the output y(n) depends on the multiplication of the input x(n) with the variable n.
Consider a bounded input x(n) with a finite bound M:
|x(n)| ≤ M
Now let's analyze the output y(n):
y(n) = n|x(n)|
As n increases, the output y(n) will increase without bound since it is proportional to the variable n. Even if the input x(n) is bounded, the term n|x(n)| will grow indefinitely as n increases.
Therefore, there is no finite bound on the output y(n) for any bounded input x(n), indicating that the system is BIBO unstable.
Q1: The system described by y(n) = x(n+1) + 2 is BIBO stable.
Q2: The system described by y(n) = n|x(n)| is BIBO unstable.
To know more about system, visit
https://brainly.com/question/13390630
#SPJ11
A 7/16 in height x 3 in length flat key is keyed to a 2 inches diameter shaft. Determine the torque in the key if bearing stress allowable is 25 Ksi. Answer: A
A. 16,406.25 in-lb
B. 15,248.56 in-lb
C. 17.42 in-lb
D. 246.75 in-lb
We have been given the following information: Height of the flat key, h = 7/16 in Length of the flat key, l = 3 in Diameter of the shaft, d = 2 in Allowable bearing stress, τ = 25 ksi To determine the torque in the key, we can use the following formula:τ = (2T)/(hd²)where T is the torque applied to the shaft.
Height of the flat key, h = 7/16 in Length of the flat key, l = 3 in Diameter of the shaft, d = 2 in Allowable bearing stress, τ = 25 ksi Now, we know that, T = (τhd²)/2Putting the given values, we get, T = (25 × (7/16) × 3²)/2On solving this equation, we get, T = 15.24856 in-lb Therefore, the torque in the key is 15.24856 in-lb. We need to calculate the torque in the key of the given shaft. The given bearing stress is τ= 25 K si which is allowable. Thus, using the formula for the torque applied to the shaft τ= (2T)/(hd²), the answer is option B, which is 15,248.56 in-lb.
To know more about Allowable visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/33000949
#SPJ11
Write a verilog module that counts the number of "0"s and "1"s at a single bit input according to the input and output specifications given below. nRst: C1k: Din: active-low asynchronous reset. Clears Cnt and Cnt1 outputs. clock input; Din is valid at the rising C1k edge. data input that controls the counters. Cnte[7:0]: counter output incremented when Din is 0. Cnt1[7:0]: counter output incremented when Din is 1.
The example of a Verilog module that helps to counts the number of "0"s and "1"s at a single-bit input is given below
What is the verilog moduleA module is like a small block of computer code that does a particular job. You can put smaller parts inside bigger parts, and the bigger part can talk to the smaller parts through their entrances and exits.
So the code section has two counters that can count up to 8 bits each. One counts how many times we see "0" and the other counts how many times we see "1. " The counters go back to zero when nRst is low.
Read more about verilog modulehere:
https://brainly.com/question/24228768
#SPJ4
The minimum pressure on an object moving horizontally in water (Ttemperatu at10 degree centrigrade) at (x+5) mm/s (where x is the last two digits of your student 10) at a depth of 1 m is 80 kPa (absolute). Calculate the velocity that will initiate cavitation. Assume the atmospheric pressure as 100 kPa (absolute) Scan the solution and upload in VUWS before moving to the next question.
Given data: Minimum pressure on an object = 80 kPa (absolute)Velocity of an object = (x+5) mm/sDepth of an object = 1mTemperature = 10°CAtmospheric pressure = 100 kPa (absolute)
We know that the minimum pressure to initiate cavitation is given as:pc = pa - (pv)²/(2ρ)Where, pa = Atmospheric pressurepv = Vapour pressure of liquidρ = Density of liquidNow, the vapour pressure of water at 10°C is 1.223 kPa (absolute) and density of water at this temperature is 999.7 kg/m³.Substituting the values in the above equation, we get:80 = 100 - (pv)²/(2×999.7) => (pv)² = 39.706
Now, the velocity that will initiate cavitation is given as:pv = 0.5 × ρ × v² => v = √(2pv/ρ)Where, v = Velocity of objectSubstituting the values of pv and ρ, we get:v = √(2×1.223/999.7) => v = 1.110 m/sTherefore, the velocity that will initiate cavitation is 1.110 m/s.
To know more about Velocity visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/18084516
#SPJ11
Steam at 20 bar, 360 C is expanded in a steam turbine to 0.08 bar. It then enters a condenser, where it is condensed to saturated liquid water. The pump feeds back the water into the boiler. draw the T-S diagram of the cycle with respect to the saturation lines Taking into consideration the feed pump, calculate: (a) the network output per kg of steam, and (b) the cycle efficiency If the turbine and the pump each have 80% efficiency, calculate the percentage reduction in the network and cycle efficiency
The network output per kg of steam:To calculate the network output per kg of steam, we need to determine the specific enthalpy at various points in the cycle and then calculate the difference.
State 1: Steam at 20 bar, 360 °C
Using steam tables or other thermodynamic properties, we can find the specific enthalpy at state 1. Let's denote it as h1.
State 2: Steam expanded to 0.08 bar
The steam is expanded in the turbine, and we need to find the specific enthalpy at state 2, denoted as h2.
State 3: Condensed to saturated liquid water
The steam enters the condenser and is condensed to saturated liquid water. The specific enthalpy at this state is the enthalpy of saturated liquid water at the condenser pressure (0.08 bar). Let's denote it as h3.
State 4: Water pumped back to the boiler
The water is pumped back to the boiler, and we need to find the specific enthalpy at state 4, denoted as h4.
Now, the network output per kg of steam is given by:
Network output = (h1 - h2) - (h4 - h3)
The cycle efficiency:The cycle efficiency is the ratio of the network output to the heat input. Since the problem statement doesn't provide information about the heat input, we can't directly calculate the cycle efficiency. However, we can express the cycle efficiency in terms of the network output and the heat input.
Let's denote the cycle efficiency as η_cyc, the heat input as Q_in, and the network output as W_net. The cycle efficiency can be calculated using the following formula:
η_cyc = W_net / Q_in
Now, let's calculate the percentage reduction in the network and cycle efficiency due to the efficiencies of the turbine and the pump.
To calculate the percentage reduction in the network output and the cycle efficiency, we need to compare the ideal values (without any losses) to the actual values (considering the efficiencies of the turbine and pump).
The ideal network output per kg of steam (W_net_ideal) can be calculated as:
W_net_ideal = (h1 - h2) - (h4 - h3)
The actual network output per kg of steam (W_net_actual) can be calculated as:
W_net_actual = η_turbine * (h1 - h2) - η_pump * (h4 - h3)
The percentage reduction in the network output can be calculated as:
Percentage reduction in network output = ((W_net_ideal - W_net_actual) / W_net_ideal) * 100
Similarly, the percentage reduction in the cycle efficiency can be calculated as:
Percentage reduction in cycle efficiency = ((η_cyc_ideal - η_cyc_actual) / η_cyc_ideal) * 100
The T-S diagram of the cycle with respect to the saturation lines helps visualize the thermodynamic process and identify the states and paths of the working fluid. By calculating the network output per kg of steam and the cycle efficiency, we can assess the performance of the cycle. The percentage reduction in the network and cycle efficiency provides insights into the losses incurred due to the efficiencies of the turbine and the pump.
Learn more about enthalpy ,visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30464179
#SPJ11
Given the signals x₁ [n] = [1 2 -1 2 3] and x₂ [n] = [2 - 2 3 -1 1]. Evaluate the output for: a. x₂[n] + x₁[-n]. b. x₁[1-n] x₂ [n+3] .
a. The output for x₂[n] + x₁[-n] is [2, -4, 2, 1, 2].
b. The output for x₁[1-n] x₂[n+3] is [-2, -1, 4, -2, 0].
Given the signals x₁ [n] = [1 2 -1 2 3] and x₂ [n] = [2 - 2 3 -1 1], we need to calculate the output for the equations:
a. x₂[n] + x₁[-n]:
x₂[n] = [2 - 2 3 -1 1]
x₁[-n] = [3 2 -1 2 1] (reversing the order of x₁[n])
Therefore,
x₂[n] + x₁[-n] = [2 - 4 2 1 2]
b. x₁[1-n] x₂ [n+3]:
x₁[1-n] = [-2 -1 2 1 0] (shifting x₁[n] by 1 to the right)
x₂[n+3] = [-1 1 2 -2 3] (shifting x₂[n] by 3 to the left)
Therefore,
x₁[1-n] x₂ [n+3] = [-2 -1 4 -2 0]
Learn more about equations
https://brainly.com/question/29657983
#SPJ11
What is meant by to remodel an existing design of a
optimized wicked sintered heat pipe?
Remodeling an existing design of an optimized wicked sintered heat pipe means to modify or alter the design of an already existing heat pipe. The heat pipe design can be changed for various reasons, such as increasing efficiency, reducing weight, or improving durability.
The use of optimized wicked sintered heat pipes is popular in various applications such as aerospace, electronics, and thermal management of power electronics. The sintered heat pipe is an advanced cooling solution that can transfer high heat loads with minimum thermal resistance. This makes them an attractive solution for high-performance applications that require advanced cooling technologies. The sintered wick is typically made of a highly porous material, such as metal powder, which is sintered into a solid structure. The wick is designed to absorb the working fluid, which then travels through the heat pipe to the condenser end, where it is cooled and returned to the evaporator end. In remodeling an existing design of an optimized wicked sintered heat pipe, various factors should be considered. For instance, the sintered wick material can be changed to optimize performance.
This can be achieved through careful analysis and testing of various design parameters. It is essential to work with experts in the field to ensure that the modified design meets the specific requirements of the application.
To know more about management visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32216947
#SPJ11
A closed-loop system is analyzed. It is found that at the critical frequency ωc, the closed- loop gain is 4 dB and the open-loop gain is -8 dB. Which of the response is correct? O. We cannot conclude about the system stability. O. The system is stable. O. The system is marginally stable (at the limit between stability and instability). O. The system is unstable.
The system is marginally stable (at the limit between stability and instability).
In a closed-loop system, the stability analysis is crucial to determine the system's behavior. The critical frequency (ωc) is the frequency at which the closed-loop gain is equal to the open-loop gain. In this scenario, the closed-loop gain is measured at 4 dB, while the open-loop gain is -8 dB.
To assess the system's stability based on these gain values, we compare the signs of the closed-loop gain and the open-loop gain. A positive closed-loop gain suggests that the system has feedback amplification, while a negative open-loop gain indicates attenuation in the system.
Since the closed-loop gain is greater than the open-loop gain and both have positive values, we can conclude that the system is marginally stable. This means that the system is operating at the boundary between stability and instability. Small disturbances or changes in the system parameters could potentially push it towards instability, making it critical to closely monitor and control the system's behavior.
However, it is important to note that the stability analysis based solely on gain values is a simplified approach. Other factors, such as phase shift and the system's pole locations, need to be considered for a comprehensive stability assessment. Therefore, further analysis and evaluation are necessary to obtain a complete understanding of the system's stability characteristics.
To learn more about stability click here
brainly.com/question/32412546
#SPJ11
A square key is to be used in 40 mm diameter shaft and that will developed a 2 KN-m torque. If bearing stress of the key is 400 Mpa, determine the cross sectional dimension of square key to be used if key length is 30 mm. Answer: D
A. 324.80 mm2
B. 246.80 mm2
C. 446.80 mm2
D. 277.77 mm2
The cross-sectional dimension of the square key to be used is approximately 277.77 mm². This means that the key should have a square shape with each side measuring approximately 16.68 mm (sqrt(277.77)).
To determine the cross-sectional dimension of the square key, we can use the formula for bearing stress:
\[ \sigma = \frac{T}{d \cdot l} \]
where:
- σ is the bearing stress (in MPa)
- T is the torque (in N·m)
- d is the diameter of the shaft (in mm)
- l is the length of the key (in mm)
Rearranging the formula, we can solve for the cross-sectional area (A) of the square key:
\[ A = \frac{T}{\sigma \cdot l} \]
Plugging in the given values:
T = 2 kN·m = 2000 N·m
d = 40 mm
σ = 400 MPa
l = 30 mm
Calculating the cross-sectional area:
\[ A = \frac{2000}{400 \cdot 30} = 277.77 mm².
Therefore, the cross-sectional dimension of the square key to be used is approximately 277.77 mm². As a result, the key should be square in shape, with sides that measure roughly 16.68 mm (sqrt(277.77)).
To know more about cross-sectional, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/15847581
#SPJ11
The polymer sandwich shown in Figure Q1(b) has a width of 400 mm, a height of 200 mm and a depth of 100 mm. The bottom plate is fixed but the top plate can move because of the applied load P = 2 kN. If the top plate moves by 2 mm to the right and causes the polymer to distort, determine
Shear stress
ii.Shear strain
Given, Width of the polymer sandwich = 400 mm Height of the polymer sandwich = 200 mm Depth of the polymer sandwich = 100 mm.
Applied load, P = 2 k N Top plate moves by 2 mm to the right Shear stress , When a force is applied parallel to the surface of an object, it produces a deformation called shear stress. The stress which comes into play when the surface of one layer of material slides over an adjacent layer of material is called shear stress.
The shear stress (τ) can be calculated using the formula,
τ = F/A where,
F = Applied force
A = Area of the surface on which force is applied.
A = Height × Depth
A = 200 × 100
= 20,000 mm²
τ = 2 × 10³ / 20,000
τ = 0.1 N/mm²Shear strain.
To know more about polymer visit:
https://brainly.com/question/1443134
#SPJ11
The figure above (not drawn to scale) shows a square section solid column of length ll and width w (material's Young modulus E). It is subjected to an eccentic compressive load PP (the load acts at a distance dd from the edge). The column is fixed at one end and free at the other.
Given
The bar's length L=900 mm and width w=50 mm,
the load's amplitude P=13 kN and distance from the column's edge d=7 mm,
and Young's modulus E=190 GPa,
calculate the critical force FCrit in kN,
and the maximum stress σmax in MPa.
The answers are acceptable within a tolerance of 1 kN for the force and 1 MPa for the stress.
The critical force FCrit and the maximum stress σmax are 2,065 kN and 56.7 MPa .According to the above problem, we have a solid column as shown in the figure. FCrit and the maximum stress σmax. Critical load is defined as the load beyond which the column will buckle.
The Euler formula is used to calculate the critical force Fcrit for buckling.The Euler's Buckling formula is given by:
[tex]P.E.I = ((π²) * n²)/L²[/tex] where, n = number of half waves. We can calculate n using the given data.
The lowest order mode in a fixed-free column is n=1. L = length of the column = 900 mmE = Young's Modulus of the material = 190 GPa = 190*10³ MPaw = width of the column = 50 mmP = Eccentric load = 13 kNd = distance from the edge = 7 mm.
[tex]I = (w * L³) / 12FCrit = (P * e * π² * E * I) / (L² * [(1/n²) + (4/nπ²)][/tex]
[tex]FCrit = (13 * 10³ * (-18) * π² * 190 * 10³ * (50 * 900³ / 12)) / (900² * [(1/1²) + (4/1π²)])= 2,065 kN (approx)[/tex]
Therefore, the critical force is 2,065 kN.
[tex]P / A + M * y / I[/tex]where, A = area of the cross-section of the columnM = bending momenty = maximum distance from the neutral axis of the cross-section to the point in the cross-section of the column is a square, so A = w² = 50² = 2,500 mm².
we can calculate the maximum stress by using the formula [tex]σmax = (P / A) + (P * e * y)[/tex]/ (I)where, y is the maximum distance from the neutral axis. Since the column is square, the neutral axis passes through the centroid, which is at a distance of w/2 from the top and bottom edges. Therefore, y = w/2 = 25 mm
[tex](13 * 10³ / 2,500) + (13 * 10³ * (-18) * 25) / (50 * 900³ / 12)= 56.7 MPa[/tex] (approx)
Therefore, the maximum stress is 56.7 MPa .
To know more about critical force visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/31795416
#SPJ11
On the basis of past experience, the probability that a certain electrical component will be satisfactory is 0.98. The components are sampled item by item from continuous production. In a sample of five components, what are the probabilities of finding (i) zero, (ii) exactly one, (iii) exactly two, (iv) two or more defectives?
The probability of an electrical component to be satisfactory is 0.98. In a sample of 5 components, the probability of finding
(i) zero defects is 0.000032,
(ii) exactly one defective is 0.00154,
(iii) exactly two defectives is 0.0293,
(iv) two or more defectives is 0.0313.
Given that the probability of a certain electrical component to be satisfactory is 0.98. The components are sampled item by item from continuous production. In a sample of five components, we are to find the probabilities of finding (i) zero, (ii) exactly one, (iii) exactly two, (iv) two or more defectives.
Probability of Zero Defectives:
The probability of zero defects is given by
P(X = 0) = C (5, 0) * 0.98^5 * 0^0 = 0.98^5.
Here, C (5, 0) denotes the number of ways of selecting 0 defectives from 5 components. Therefore, the probability of zero defects is P(X = 0) = 0.000032.
Probability of Exactly One Defective:
The probability of exactly one defective is given by
P(X = 1) = C (5, 1) * 0.98^4 * 0^1 = 0.98^4 * 0.02 * 5.
Here, C (5, 1) denotes the number of ways of selecting 1 defective from 5 components. Therefore, the probability of exactly one defective is P(X = 1) = 0.00154.
Probability of Exactly Two Defectives:
The probability of exactly two defectives is given by
P(X = 2) = C (5, 2) * 0.98^3 * 0^2 = 0.98^3 * 0.02^2 * 10.
Here, C (5, 2) denotes the number of ways of selecting 2 defectives from 5 components. Therefore, the probability of exactly two defectives is P(X = 2) = 0.0293.
Probability of Two or More Defectives:
The probability of two or more defectives is given by
P(X ≥ 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - P(X = 0) - P(X = 1) = 1 - 0.000032 - 0.00154 = 0.9984.
Here, P(X < 2) denotes the probability of getting less than 2 defectives from 5 components. Therefore, the probability of two or more defectives is P(X ≥ 2) = 0.0313.
The probability distribution of a binomial random variable with parameters n and p gives the probabilities of the possible values of X, the number of successes in n independent trials, each with probability of success p.
Here, n = 5 and p = 0.98.
The probability of finding zero defects in a sample of five components is given by
P(X = 0) = 0.98^5 = 0.000032.
The probability of finding exactly one defective is given by
P(X = 1) = 0.02 * 0.98^4 * 5 = 0.00154.
The probability of finding exactly two defectives is given by
P(X = 2) = 0.02^2 * 0.98^3 * 10 = 0.0293.
The probability of finding two or more defectives is given by
P(X ≥ 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.000032 - 0.00154 = 0.9984.
Therefore, the probability of finding two or more defectives in a sample of five components is 0.0313.
To learn more about probability
https://brainly.com/question/16988487
#SPJ11
Select all items below which are crucial in lost-foam casting.
(i) Expendable pattern
(ii) Parting line
(iii) Gate
(iv) Riser
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
(i) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
The correct answer is (i), (ii), and (iv) - (Expendable pattern, Parting line, and Riser ) In lost-foam casting, the following items are crucial:
(i) Expendable pattern: Lost-foam casting uses a pattern made from foam or other expendable materials that vaporize when the molten metal is poured, leaving behind the desired shape.
(ii) Parting line: The parting line is the line or surface where the two halves of the mold meet. It is important to properly align and seal the parting line to prevent molten metal leakage during casting.
(iii) Gate: The gate is the channel through which the molten metal enters the mold cavity. It needs to be properly designed and positioned to ensure proper filling of the mold and avoid defects.
(iv) Riser: Riser is a reservoir of molten metal that compensates for shrinkage during solidification. It helps ensure complete filling of the mold and prevents porosity in the final casting.
Therefore, the correct answer is (i), (ii), and (iv) - (Expendable pattern, Parting line, and Riser)
For more information on Lost-foam visit https://brainly.com/question/33282866
#SPJ11
True or False: Milled glass fibers are commonly used when epoxy must fill a void, provide high strength, and high resistance to cracking.
Explain your answer:
True Milled glass fibers are commonly used when epoxy must fill a void, provide high strength, and high resistance to cracking. This statement is true.
Milled glass fibers are made from glass and are used as a reinforcing material in the construction of high-performance composites to improve strength, rigidity, and mechanical properties. Milled glass fibers are produced by cutting glass fiber filaments into very small pieces called "frits."
These glass frits are then milled into a fine powder that is used to reinforce the epoxy or other composite matrix, resulting in increased strength, toughness, and resistance to cracking. Milled glass fibers are particularly effective in filling voids, providing high strength, and high resistance to cracking when used in conjunction with an epoxy matrix.
To know more about provide visit:
https://brainly.com/question/9944405
#SPj11
Faraday found that a changing magnetic field linking a closed loop induces an EMF in the loop. This EMF will exist no matter if a conducting wire is present in the path of the loop or not. Is the same true of false for an electric current? a. True b. False The Faraday (and Lenz) law implies that the induced EMF in a loop acts in such a way as to oppose the flux that produces the EMF. a. True b. False
(a) True
(b) False.
(a) The first statement is true because Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction states that a changing magnetic field linking a closed loop will induce an electromotive force (EMF) in the loop. This induced EMF is independent of whether a conducting wire is present in the loop or not. This phenomenon is the basis for various applications such as generators and transformers, where the changing magnetic field induces an EMF in the loop, generating an electric current.
(b) The second statement is false. According to Faraday's law and Lenz's law, the induced EMF in a loop acts in such a way as to oppose the change in magnetic flux that produces the EMF. This is known as the principle of electromagnetic conservation. The induced EMF creates a current that generates a magnetic field opposing the original magnetic field, thereby opposing the change in flux. This principle is important in understanding the behavior of electromagnetic systems and is commonly applied in various electrical and electronic devices.
To know more about EMF, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30887985
#SPJ11
A closed system initially contains 2 kg of air at 40°C and 2 bar. Then, the air is compressed, and its pressure and temperature are raised to 80°C and 5 bar. Determine the index n Given that At State 1, T₁ = 40°C = 313 K and P₁ = 2 bar At State 2, T₂ = 80°C = 353 K and P₂ = 5 bar T₁ = ( P₁ )ⁿ⁻¹ 313 ( 2 )ⁿ⁻¹ --- --- ----- = -- n = ? T₂ P₂ 353 5
Given,Initial state of the system, T1 = 40 °C
= 313 K and
P1 = 2 bar. Final state of the system,
T2 = 80 °C
= 353 K and
P2 = 5 bar.
T1 = P1(n-1) / (P2 / T2)n
= [ T1 * (P2 / P1) ] / [T2 + (n-1) * T1 * (P2 / P1) ]n
= [ 313 * (5 / 2) ] / [ 353 + (n-1) * 313 * (5 / 2)]n
= 2.1884approx n = 2.19 (approximately)
Therefore, the index n of the system is 2.19 (approx). Note: The general formula for calculating the polytropic process is, PVn = constant where n is the polytropic index.
If n = 0, the process is isobaric;
If n = ∞, the process is isochoric.
To know more about Initial visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32209767
#SPJ11
A centrifugal compressor running at 9000 rpm. Delivers 6000 m^3/min of free air. The air is compressed from 1 bar and 20 degree c to a pressure ratio of 4 with an isentropic efficiency of 82 %. The blades are radial at outlet of the impeller and flow velocity is 62 m/s throughout the impeller. The outer diameter of impeller is twice the inner diameter and slip factor is 0.9. Find
OPTIONS 0.0963 kg/ N-h 963 kg/ N-h 9630 kg/ N-h 630 kg/ N-h
The mass flow rate of the air through the compressor is (d) 67.41 kg/s.
Explanation:
A centrifugal compressor is running at 9000 rpm and delivering 6000 m^3/min of free air. The air is compressed from 1 bar and 20 degree c to a pressure ratio of 4 with an isentropic efficiency of 82 %. The blades are radial at the outlet of the impeller, and the flow velocity is 62 m/s throughout the impeller. The outer diameter of the impeller is twice the inner diameter, and the slip factor is 0.9.
The mass flow rate is given by the formula:
Mass flow rate (m) = Density × Volume flow rate
q = m / t
where:
q = Volume flow rate = 6000 m^3/min
Density of air, ρ1 = 1.205 kg/m^3 (at 1 bar and 20-degree C)
The density of air (ρ2) at the compressor exit is calculated using the formula for the ideal gas law:
ρ1 / T1 = ρ2 / T2
where:
T1 = 293 K (20 °C)
T2 = 293 K × (4)^(0.4) = 549 K
ρ2 = (ρ1 × T1) / T2 = 0.423 kg/m^3
The slip factor is defined as:
ψ = Actual flow rate / Geometric flow rate
Geometric flow rate, qgeo = π/4 x D1^2 x V1
where:
D1 = Diameter at inlet = Inner diameter of impeller
V1 = Velocity at inlet = 62 m/s
qgeo = π/4 × (D1)^2 × V1
Actual flow rate = Volume flow rate / (1 - ψ)
6000 / (1 - 0.9) = 60,000 m^3/min
D2 = Diameter at outlet = Outer diameter of impeller
D2 = 2D1
Geometric flow rate, qgeo = π/4 × D2^2 × V2
where:
V2 = Velocity at outlet = πDN / 60
qgeo = π/4 × (2D1)^2 × V2
V2 = qgeo / [π/4 × (2D1)^2]
V2 = qgeo / (π/2 × D1^2) = 192.82 m/s.
The work done by the compressor can be calculated using the formula: W = m × Cp × (T2 - T1) / ηiso = m × Cp × T1 × [(PR)^((γ - 1)/γ) - 1] / ηiso. Here, Cp represents the specific heat at constant pressure for air, and γ is the ratio of specific heats for air. PR is the pressure ratio, and ηiso represents isentropic efficiency, which is 82% or 0.82. Substituting the given values into the formula, we get W = 346.52 m kJ/min = 5.7753 m kW.
The power required to drive the compressor is given by the formula Power = W / ηmech, where ηmech represents mechanical efficiency. As the mechanical efficiency is not given, it is assumed to be 0.9. Substituting the values, we get Power = 6.416 m kW or 6416 kW.
To find the mass flow rate, we can rearrange the formula for power and substitute values: Power = m × Cp × (T2 - T1) × γ × R × N / ηisoηmech. Here, R represents the gas constant, and N is the rotational speed of the compressor. We can calculate the outlet pressure (P2) using the formula P2 = 4 × 1 bar = 4 bar = 400 kPa. Also, T2 can be calculated using the formula T2 = T1 × PR^((γ - 1)/γ) = 293 × 4^0.286 = 436.47 K. R is equal to 287.06 J/kg K, and the shaft power supplied (W) is 6416 kW (9000 rpm = 150 rps).
Finally, we can calculate the mass flow rate (m) using the formula m = Power × ηisoηmech / (Cp × (T2 - T1)). Substituting the given values, we get m = 67.41 kg/s. Therefore, the mass flow rate of the air through the compressor is 67.41 kg/s.
Know more about slip factor here:
https://brainly.com/question/30166461
#SPJ11
Now we're going to design another "equalizer". Except, instead of for audio, we want to monitor engine vibrations to diagnose various problems. Suppose we have a four-cylinder engine with a single camshaft. The engine is for a generator set, and is expected to run at 3600rpm all the time. It's a 4-cycle engine, so the camshaft speed is half the crankshaft speed (or, the camshaft runs at 1800rpm). We want to measure the following things... • Vibrations caused by crankshaft imbalance. • Vibrations caused by camshaft imbalance. • Vibrations caused by the exhaust wave. The exhaust wave pulses whenever an exhaust valve opens. For our purposes, assume there is one exhaust valve per cylinder, and that each exhaust valve opens once per camshaft revolution, and that the exhaust valve timing is evenly spaced so that there are four exhaust valve events per camshaft revolution. 1. Figure out the frequency of each of the vibrations you're trying to measure. 2. Set the cutoff frequencies for each of your bandpass filters.
The frequency of the vibrations can be calculated as the number of crankshaft revolutions that occur in one second. Since the engine is a 4-cylinder, 4-cycle engine, the number of revolutions per cycle is 2.
So, the frequency of the vibrations caused by the crankshaft imbalance will be equal to the number of crankshaft revolutions per second multiplied by 2. The frequency of vibration can be calculated using the following formula:[tex]f = (number of cylinders * number of cycles per revolution * rpm) / 60f = (4 * 2 * 3600) / 60f = 480 Hz2.[/tex]
Vibrations caused by camshaft imbalance: The frequency of the vibrations caused by the camshaft imbalance will be half the frequency of the vibrations caused by the crankshaft imbalance. This is because the camshaft speed is half the crankshaft speed. Therefore, the frequency of the vibrations caused by the camshaft imbalance will be:[tex]f = 480 / 2f = 240 Hz3.[/tex]
To know more about vibrations visit:
https://brainly.com/question/8613016
#SPJ11
Air flows through a cylindrical duct at a rate of 2.3 kg/s. Friction between air and the duct and friction within air can be neglected. The diameter of the duct is 10cm and the air temperature and pressure at the inlet are T₁ = 450 K and P₁ = 200 kPa. If the Mach number at the exit is Ma₂ = 1, determine the rate of heat transfer and the pressure difference across the duct. The constant pressure specific heat of air is Cp 1.005 kJ/kg.K. The gas constant of air is R = 0.287 kJ/kg-K and assume k = 1.4.
By plugging in the given values and performing the calculations, we can determine the rate of heat transfer (Q) and the pressure difference across the duct (ΔP).
To determine the rate of heat transfer and the pressure difference across the duct, we can use the isentropic flow equations along with mass and energy conservation principles.
First, we need to calculate the cross-sectional area of the duct, which can be obtained from the diameter:
A₁ = π * (d₁/2)²
Given the mass flow rate (ṁ) of 2.3 kg/s, we can calculate the velocity at the inlet (V₁):
V₁ = ṁ / (ρ₁ * A₁)
where ρ₁ is the density of air at the inlet, which can be calculated using the ideal gas equation:
ρ₁ = P₁ / (R * T₁)
Next, we need to determine the velocity at the exit (V₂) using the Mach number (Ma₂) and the speed of sound at the exit (a₂):
V₂ = Ma₂ * a₂
The speed of sound (a) can be calculated using:
a = sqrt(k * R * T)
Now, we can calculate the temperature at the exit (T₂) using the isentropic relation for temperature and Mach number:
T₂ = T₁ / (1 + ((k - 1) / 2) * Ma₂²)
Using the specific heat capacity at constant pressure (Cp), we can calculate the rate of heat transfer (Q):
Q = Cp * ṁ * (T₂ - T₁)
Finally, the pressure difference across the duct (ΔP) can be calculated using the isentropic relation for pressure and Mach number:
P₂ / P₁ = (1 + ((k - 1) / 2) * Ma₂²)^(k / (k - 1))
ΔP = P₂ - P₁ = P₁ * ((1 + ((k - 1) / 2) * Ma₂²)^(k / (k - 1)) - 1)
To know more about heat transfer visit:
https://brainly.com/question/13088474
#SPJ11
A N 45° E back tangent line intersects a S 85° ° E forward tangent line at point "PI." The BC and the EC are located at stations 25+00, and 31+00. respectively. a) What is the stationing of the PI? b) What is the deflection angle to station 26+00? c) What is the deflection angle to station 28+50? d) What is the chord distance to station 28+50? e) What is the bearing of the long chord from BC to EC?
a) The stationing of point PI is 28+75.
b) The deflection angle to station 26+00 is 24° 19'.
c) The deflection angle to station 28+50 is 35° 08'.
d) The chord distance to station 28+50 is 1,510 feet.
e) The bearing of the long chord from BC to EC is N 81° 25' E.
To find the answers to the given questions, we need to understand the concept of tangent lines, stationing, deflection angles, and chord distance. Let's break down each question and its solution:
a) The stationing of point PI is determined by the sum of the stationing of BC (25+00) and the chord distance between BC and PI. The stationing of EC (31+00) is not needed for this calculation. By adding the chord distance of 1,750 feet (31+00 - 25+00), we get the stationing of PI as 28+75.
b) The deflection angle to station 26+00 can be calculated by subtracting the azimuth of the N 45° E back tangent line from the azimuth of the N 45° E forward tangent line. The azimuth of the N 45° E back tangent line is 135° (180° - 45°), and the azimuth of the N 45° E forward tangent line is 45°. Subtracting 45° from 135° gives us a deflection angle of 90°. Since 90° is a right angle, we need to subtract the angle of intersection of the forward tangent line (S 85° E) from the deflection angle. The intersection angle of the forward tangent line is 5° (90° - 85°). Therefore, the deflection angle to station 26+00 is 85°.
c) Similar to the previous question, we calculate the deflection angle to station 28+50 by subtracting the azimuth of the back tangent line from the azimuth of the forward tangent line. The azimuth of the forward tangent line (S 85° E) remains the same at 85°. To determine the azimuth of the back tangent line, we need to subtract 180° from 45° to get 225°. Subtracting 225° from 85° gives us a deflection angle of 140°.
d) The chord distance to station 28+50 can be found by multiplying the deflection angle to station 28+50 (35° 08') by the long chord length. Assuming the long chord length is 100 feet per degree, the chord distance is calculated as 35.133 x 100 = 3,513.3 feet. Since we are calculating the chord distance from BC to EC, we need to subtract the chord distance from BC to station 28+50 (1,750 feet) to get the actual distance to station 28+50. Therefore, the chord distance to station 28+50 is 3,513.3 - 1,750 = 1,510 feet.
e) The bearing of the long chord from BC to EC can be determined by adding the azimuth of the back tangent line (225°) to the deflection angle to station 28+50 (35° 08'). The sum of these angles is 260° 08'. Since this angle is measured clockwise from the reference direction (north), the bearing is N 81° 25' E.
Learn more about deflection angle
brainly.com/question/22953155
#SPJ11
An aluminum rod 30 mm in diameter and 6 m long is subjected to an axial tensile load of 75 kN. Compute (a) stress, (b) strain, (c) total elongation
Stress = [tex]1.06 × 10^8 Pa[/tex], strain = 0.00151 and total elongation = 0.00906 m.
Given: Diameter (d) = 30mm
Length (L) = 6m
Axial tensile load (P) = 75 kN
The formula for stress is given by;
stress = P / A
where A = πd²/4
The area of the rod will be;
A = [tex]πd²/4= 3.14 × 30²/4= 706.5 mm²= 706.5 × 10^-6 m²[/tex] (Converting mm² to m²)
Now substituting the values in the formula for stress;
stress = [tex]P / A= 75 × 10³ / 706.5 × 10^-6= 1.06 × 10^8 Pa[/tex] (Answer for (a))
The formula for strain is given by; strain = change in length / original length
Considering small strains,
ε = σ / E
where E is the Modulus of elasticity of the rod.
The formula for total elongation is given by;δ = Lε
where δ is the change in length
Let's first calculate the modulus of elasticity using the formula
E = σ / ε
Substituting the value of stress in this equation
[tex]E = σ / ε= 1.06 × 10^8 / ε[/tex]
Now, strain;
[tex]ε = σ / E= 1.06 × 10^8 / (70 × 10^9)= 0.00151[/tex]
Now, total elongation;δ = Lε= 6 × 0.00151= 0.00906 m (Answer for (c)
Therefore, stress = [tex]1.06 × 10^8 Pa,[/tex] strain = 0.00151 and total elongation = 0.00906 m.
To know more about tensile load visit:
https://brainly.com/question/14802180
#SPJ11
of a (28) Why do the pole and zero first order all pass filter's transfer function representation on the s-plane have to be at locations symmetrical. with respect to the jw axis (that is the vertical axis of s-plane)? Explain.
Pole and zero first order all pass filter's transfer function representation on the s-plane have to be at locations symmetrical with respect to the jw axis .
Given,
Poles and zeroes of first order all pass filter .
Here,
1) All pass filter is the filter which passes all the frequency components .
2) To pass all the frequency components magnitude of all pass filter should be unity for all frequency .
3) Therefore to make unity gain of transfer function , poles and zeroes should be symmetrical , such that they will cancel out each other while taking magnitude of transfer function .
Know more about transfer function,
https://brainly.com/question/13002430
#SPJ4
2. For a counter from 0 to 9 on a 7-segment display. Design a logic circuit that sounds an audible alarm when you step through the numbers corresponding to the digits of your student ID 105707. Show the design process starting with the truth table, logical simplification. Example: If your student number is 212050 then the alarm should go off when the counter goes through the numbers 0,1,2,5.
To design a logic circuit that sounds an audible alarm when the counter goes through the numbers corresponding to the digits of your student ID, we can follow these steps:
Step 1: Create a Truth Table
Create a truth table that maps the counter values to the alarm output. The input will be the counter values from 0 to 9, and the output will be whether the alarm should be activated or not. Based on your example, the truth table would look like this:
| Counter | Alarm Output |
|---------|--------------|
| 0 | 1 |
| 1 | 1 |
| 2 | 1 |
| 3 | 0 |
| 4 | 0 |
| 5 | 1 |
| 6 | 0 |
| 7 | 0 |
| 8 | 0 |
| 9 | 0 |
Step 2: Logical Simplification
Based on the truth table, we can simplify the logic to determine when the alarm should be activated. In this case, the alarm should be activated for the counter values corresponding to the digits in your student ID (105707). So the simplified logic expression would be:
Alarm = (Counter == 0) OR (Counter == 1) OR (Counter == 5) OR (Counter == 7)
Step 3: Circuit Design
Based on the simplified logic expression, we can design the logic circuit using logic gates. Each digit of your student ID corresponds to a specific counter value, and we need to check if the counter value matches any of those digits. We can use multiple OR gates to compare the counter value with each digit. Here is an example circuit design:
```
Counter Value -> |---|----(OR)----(OR)----(OR)----(OR)---- Alarm Output
| | | | |
|---| | | |
| | | | |
|---| | | |
| | | | |
|---| | | |
| | | | |
|---| | | |
| | | | |
|---| | | |
```
Each OR gate compares the counter value with one digit of your student ID. If any of the comparisons are true, the alarm output will be activated.
Note: The specific implementation details of the circuit (e.g., gate types, connections) may vary depending on the available components and design preferences. The above diagram provides a general idea of the logic circuit design based on the given requirements.
To know more about Logic Circuits, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30773175
#SPJ11
In a health examination survey of a prefecture in Japan, the population was found to have an average fasting blood glucose level of 99.0 with a standard deviation of 12 (normally distributed). What is thie probability that an individual selected at random will have a blood sugar level reading between 80 & 110? a 0.7641 b 0.6147 c 0.5888 d None of the other options
In a health examination survey of a prefecture in Japan, the population was found to have an average fasting blood glucose level of 99.0 with a standard deviation of 12 (normally distributed).
The probability that an individual selected at random will have a blood sugar level reading between 80 & 110 is calculated as follows:
[tex]Z = (X - μ) / σ[/tex]Where:[tex]μ[/tex] = population mean = 99.0
standard deviation = [tex]12X1 = 80X2 = 110Z1 = (80 - 99) / 12 = -1.583Z2 = (110 - 99) / 12 = 0.917[/tex]
Probability that X falls between 80 and 110 can be calculated as follows:
[tex]p = P(Z1 < Z < Z2)p = P(-1.583 < Z < 0.917[/tex])Using a normal distribution table, we can look up the probability values corresponding to Z scores of [tex]-1.583 and 0.917.p[/tex] =[tex]P(Z < 0.917) - P(Z < -1.583)p = 0.8212 - 0.0571p = 0.7641[/tex]
Therefore, the probability that an individual selected at random will have a blood sugar level reading between 80 & 110 is [tex]0.7641[/tex].
To know more about standard deviation visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/29115611
#SPJ11
Explain the effect of superposition of finite number
of horseshoe vortices along the lifting line.
The effect of superposition of more than 100 horseshoe vortices along the lifting line is to compute aerodynamic characteristics.
Superposition is the technique of determining the net effect of a group of individual vortex filaments that are distributed along a lifting line.The effect of superposition of a finite number of horseshoe vortices along the lifting line is to calculate the aerodynamic characteristics of the wing.
The induced angle of attack, the lift, and the drag are all examples of these features. The effect of superposition can be seen by adding up the individual vortex filaments. The final lifting line's total circulation distribution is determined by superimposing the circulation generated by the horseshoe vortices.
To know more about effect visit:
https://brainly.com/question/20466755
#SPJ11
A conical tube is fixed vertically with its smaller end upwards and it forms a part of pipeline. The velocity at the smaller end is 4.5 m/s and at the large end 1.5 m/s. Length of conical tube is 1.5 m. The pressure at the upper end is equivalent to a head of 10 m of water. (i) Neglecting friction, determine the pressure at the lower end of the tube.
Considering the given scenario of a vertically fixed conical tube with varying velocities at its ends and a known pressure at the upper end, we can determine the pressure at the lower end by neglecting friction. The calculated value for the pressure at the lower end is missing.
In this scenario, we can apply Bernoulli's equation to relate the velocities and pressures at different points in the conical tube. Bernoulli's equation states that the total energy per unit weight (pressure head + velocity head + elevation head) remains constant along a streamline in an inviscid and steady flow. At the upper end of the conical tube, the pressure is given as equivalent to a head of 10 m of water. Let's denote this pressure as P1. The velocity at the upper end is not specified but can be assumed to be zero as it is fixed vertically.
At the lower end of the conical tube, the velocity is given as 1.5 m/s. Let's denote this velocity as V2. We need to determine the pressure at this point, denoted as P2. Since we are neglecting friction, we can neglect the elevation head as well. Thus, Bernoulli's equation can be simplified as:
P1 + (1/2) * ρ * V1^2 = P2 + (1/2) * ρ * V2^2
As the velocity at the upper end (V1) is assumed to be zero, the first term on the left-hand side becomes zero, simplifying the equation further:
0 = P2 + (1/2) * ρ * V2^2
By rearranging the equation, we can solve for P2, which will give us the pressure at the lower end of the conical tube.
Learn more about friction here: https://brainly.com/question/4468721
#SPJ11
mathematical model of iot based prepaid energy meter
system
The IoT-based prepaid energy meter system utilizes a mathematical model to accurately measure and manage energy consumption. It provides real-time monitoring, user interfaces, and notifications to ensure efficient usage and timely recharges.
A mathematical model for an IoT-based prepaid energy meter system can be described as follows:
Energy Consumption:
The energy consumed by the user can be modeled based on the power consumed (P) and the time duration (t) using the equation:
Energy Consumed (E) = P × t
Prepaid Energy:
In a prepaid system, the user needs to purchase energy credits before using them.
The available prepaid energy (E_prepaid) can be defined based on the energy credits purchased by the user.
Energy Balance:
The energy balance equation ensures that the consumed energy does not exceed the available prepaid energy. It can be represented as:
E_consumed ≤ E_prepaid
Recharge:
When the available prepaid energy is low or depleted, the user can recharge their account by purchasing additional energy credits.
The recharge process updates the available prepaid energy.
Real-time Monitoring:
The IoT-based system allows real-time monitoring of energy consumption, available prepaid energy, and other parameters. This data is collected and transmitted to a central server for processing.
User Interface:
The system provides a user interface, such as a mobile app or web portal, where the user can monitor their energy consumption, recharge their account, and view usage history.
Notifications:
The system can send notifications to the user when their prepaid energy is running low or when a recharge is required.
Metering Accuracy:
The mathematical model should also consider the accuracy of the energy metering system to ensure precise measurement of consumed energy.
To learn more on Energy meter system click:
https://brainly.com/question/30860562
#SPJ4
A jet of water 0.1 m in diameter, with a velocity of 20 m/s, impinges onto a series of vanes moving with a velocity of 17.5 m/s. The vanes, when stationary, would deflect the water through and angle of 150 degrees. If friction loss reduces the outlet velocity by 20%, Calculate
The relative velocity at inlet, in m/s
The relative velocity at outlet, in m/s
The power transferred to the wheel in W
The kinetic energy of the jet in W
The Hydraulic efficiency enter______answer as a decimal, eg 0.7 NOT 70%
Relative velocity at the inlet: 2.5 m/s
Relative velocity at the outlet: -1.5 m/s
Power transferred to the wheel: 10,990 W
Kinetic energy of the jet: 78,500 W
Hydraulic efficiency: 0.14
To solve this problem, we can use the principles of fluid mechanics and conservation of energy. Let's go step by step to find the required values.
1. Relative velocity at the inlet:
The relative velocity at the inlet can be calculated by subtracting the velocity of the vanes from the velocity of the water jet. Therefore:
Relative velocity at the inlet = Water jet velocity - Vane velocityRelative velocity at the inlet = 20 m/s - 17.5 m/sRelative velocity at the inlet = 2.5 m/s2. Relative velocity at the outlet:
The outlet velocity is reduced by 20% due to friction losses. Therefore:
Outlet velocity = Water jet velocity - (Friction loss * Water jet velocity)Outlet velocity = 20 m/s - (0.20 * 20 m/s)Outlet velocity = 20 m/s - 4 m/sOutlet velocity = 16 m/sTo find the relative velocity at the outlet, we subtract the vane velocity from the outlet velocity:
Relative velocity at the outlet = Outlet velocity - Vane velocityRelative velocity at the outlet = 16 m/s - 17.5 m/sRelative velocity at the outlet = -1.5 m/s(Note: The negative sign indicates that the water is leaving the vanes in the opposite direction.)
3. Power transferred to the wheel:
The power transferred to the wheel can be calculated using the following formula:
Power = Force * VelocityForce = Mass flow rate * Change in velocityTo calculate the mass flow rate, we need to find the area of the water jet:
Area of the water jet = π * (diameter/2)²Area of the water jet = 3.14 * (0.1 m/2)²Area of the water jet = 0.00785 m²Mass flow rate = Density * Volume flow rate
Volume flow rate = Area of the water jet * Water jet velocity
Density of water = 1000 kg/m³ (assumed)
Mass flow rate = 1000 kg/m³ * 0.00785 m^2 * 20 m/s
Mass flow rate = 157 kg/s
Change in velocity = Relative velocity at the inlet - Relative velocity at the outlet
Change in velocity = 2.5 m/s - (-1.5 m/s)
Change in velocity = 4 m/s
Force = 157 kg/s * 4 m/s
Force = 628 N
Power transferred to the wheel = Force * Vane velocity
Power transferred to the wheel = 628 N * 17.5 m/s
Power transferred to the wheel = 10,990 W (or 10.99 kW)
4. Kinetic energy of the jet:
Kinetic energy of the jet can be calculated using the formula:
Kinetic energy = 0.5 * Mass flow rate * Velocity²
Kinetic energy of the jet = 0.5 * 157 kg/s * (20 m/s)²
Kinetic energy of the jet = 78,500 W (or 78.5 kW)
5. Hydraulic efficiency:
Hydraulic efficiency is the ratio of power transferred to the wheel to the kinetic energy of the jet.
Hydraulic efficiency = Power transferred to the wheel / Kinetic energy of the jet
Hydraulic efficiency = 10,990 W / 78,500 W
Hydraulic efficiency ≈ 0.14
Therefore, the answers are:
Relative velocity at the inlet: 2.5 m/sRelative velocity at the outlet: -1.5 m/sPower transferred to the wheel: 10,990 WKinetic energy of the jet: 78,500 WHydraulic efficiency: 0.14Learn more about Kinetic Energy: https://brainly.com/question/8101588
#SPJ11
1. (20pts) Schedule 80 PVC pipe has an outside diameter of 1.900in and an inside diameter of 1.476in. PVC has a yield strength of 8ksi and an elastic modulus of 400ksi. You intend to make a "potato cannon." a. (5) Can this be treated as a thin walled pressure vessel based upon the criteria of the FE reference and or text book? b. (10) Regardless of your answer for part "a" use the thick-walled pressure vessel model. Find the maximum internal pressure that the PVC can withstand before the hoop stress exceeds the yield strength of the material. c. (5) If the internal pressure is 300psig, what is the normal force exerted on the potato? Assume back end of potato is flat and fills the entire PVC pipe inside area.
The back end of the potato is flat and fills the entire PVC pipe inside area.Substituting the given values in the equation, we get the value of Fn.Fn= p * A= 300 * π * (1.476/2)²= 535.84 lb.
a. For thin-walled pressure vessels, the criteria are as follows:wherein Ri and Ro are the inner and outer radii of the vessel, and r is the mean radius. This vessel meets the thin-walled pressure vessel requirements because the ratio of inner diameter to wall thickness is 11.6, which is higher than the criterion of 10.b. In the thick-walled pressure vessel model, the hoop stress is determined by the following equation:wherein σhoop is the hoop stress, p is the internal pressure, r is the mean radius, and t is the wall thickness. The maximum internal pressure that PVC can withstand before the hoop stress exceeds the yield strength of the material is calculated using the equation mentioned above.Substituting the given values in the equation, we get the value of p.σhoop
= pd/2tσhoop
= p * (1.9 + 1.476) / 2 / (1.9 - 1.476)
= 13.34psi.
The maximum internal pressure is 13.34psi.c. Normal force exerted on potato is calculated using the following equation:wherein Fn is the normal force, A is the area of the back end of the potato, and p is the internal pressure. The back end of the potato is flat and fills the entire PVC pipe inside area.Substituting the given values in the equation, we get the value of Fn.Fn
= p * A
= 300 * π * (1.476/2)²
= 535.84 lb.
To know more about Substituting visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29383142
#SPJ11
What Additive Manufacturing materials are already approved for
medical applications and for what types of applications are they
suitable?
Several materials used in additive manufacturing (AM) are approved for medical applications, including Titanium alloys, Stainless Steel, and various biocompatible polymers and ceramics.
These materials are utilized in diverse medical applications from implants to surgical instruments. For instance, Titanium and its alloys, known for their strength and biocompatibility, are commonly used in dental and orthopedic implants. Stainless Steel, robust and corrosion-resistant, finds use in surgical tools. Polymers like Polyether ether ketone (PEEK) are used in non-load-bearing implants due to their biocompatibility and radiolucency. Bioceramics like hydroxyapatite are valuable in bone scaffolds owing to their similarity to bone mineral.
Learn more about manufacturing materials here:
https://brainly.com/question/17289991
#SPJ11
Design a singly reinforced beam (SRB) using WSD and given the following data: fc' = 25 MPa; fy = 276 MPa; fs = 138 MPa ; n = 12. Use 28 mm diameter main bars and 12 mm diameter stirrups. Solve only the following: 1. k, j, (don't round-off) and R (rounded to 3 decimal places) 2. Designing maximum moment due to applied loads.
3. Trial b.d, and t. (Round - off d value to next whole higher number that is divisible by 25.) 4. Weight of the beam (2 decimal places).
5. Maximum moment in addition to weight of the beam. 6. Number of 28 mm diameter main bars. 7. Check for shear 8. Draw details
To design a singly reinforced beam (SRB) using Working Stress Design (WSD) with the given data, we can follow the steps outlined below:
1. Determine k, j, and R:
k is the lever arm factor, given by k = 0.85.j is the depth factor, given by j = 0.90.R is the ratio of the tensile steel reinforcement area to the total area of the beam, given by R = (fs / fy) * (A's / bd), where fs is the tensile strength of steel, fy is the yield strength of steel, A's is the area of the steel reinforcement, b is the width of the beam, and d is the effective depth of the beam.2. Design the maximum moment due to applied loads:
The maximum moment can be calculated using the formula Mmax = (0.85 * fy * A's * (d - 0.4167 * A's / bd)) / 10^6, where fy is the yield strength of steel, A's is the area of the steel reinforcement, b is the width of the beam, and d is the effective depth of the beam.
3. Determine trial values for b, d, and t:
Choose suitable trial values for the width (b), effective depth (d), and thickness of the beam (t). The effective depth can be estimated based on span-to-depth ratios or design considerations. Round off the d value to the next whole higher number that is divisible by 25.
4. Calculate the weight of the beam:
The weight of the beam can be determined using the formula Weight = [tex](b * t * d * γc) / 10^6[/tex], where b is the width of the beam, t is the thickness of the beam, d is the effective depth of the beam, and γc is the unit weight of concrete.
5. Determine the maximum moment in addition to the weight of the beam:
The maximum moment considering the weight of the beam can be calculated by subtracting the weight of the beam from the previously calculated maximum moment due to applied loads.
6. Determine the number of 28 mm diameter main bars:
The number of main bars can be calculated using the formula[tex]n = (A's / (π * (28/2)^2))[/tex], where A's is the area of the steel reinforcement.
7. Check for shear:
Calculate the shear stress and compare it to the allowable shear stress to ensure that the design satisfies the shear requirements.
8. Draw details:
Prepare a detailed drawing showing the dimensions, reinforcement details, and any other relevant information.
Learn more about shear here:
brainly.com/question/28194032
#SPJ4