Problem 1.9. Find the relative ertrema of the following function. Determine whether each
ertremum is a marimum or a minimum.
f(x) =
[tex] \frac{ {x}^{2} }{ {x}^{4} + 16 } [/tex]
​

Answer:

384.61

Step-by-step explanation:

ok the 3000 does NOW MATTER  they ask about the norm. so 2500 ÷ 6.50$

=384.61 :)

Answer:

when the doubled the pair of sandals manufactured=3000-2500

=500

the amount spend on manufacturing running shoes=,2500-500

=2000

number of sandals made=500//2.50

(without doubling) =200

number of running shoes =2000/4

=500

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x^2+8x-3=0 (move constant to other side by adding 3 to each side)

x^2+8x=3 (halve thr linear coefficient, square it and add to each side, (8/2)^2=16)

x^2+8x+16=3+16 (now the left side is a perfect square)

(x+4)^2=19 (now take the square root of each side)

x+4=+-(19^(1/2)) (finally subtract the constant to isolate x by itself)

x= -4+-(19^(1/2))

x=negative four plus or minus the square root of nineteen

Answer:

D) x = negative four plus or minus the square root of nineteen

Step-by-step explanation:

I took the exam

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Trust me, take the square root of 24, which divides into 2 x 2 x 2 x 3, and you pull a pair of 2 out, left inside a 6

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Solving for the elapsed time

distance traveled = (speed of first train + speed of second train) * elapsed time

280 miles = (95 mph + 105 mph) * elapsed time

280 miles = 200 mph * elapsed time

elapsed time = 280 miles / 200 mph

elapsed time = 1.4 hours

elapsed time = 1 hour and 24 minutes

It will take 1 hour and 24 minutes for the two trains to be 280 miles apart.

Answer: it’s (6,8)

Step-by-step explanation: I took the test

Answer:

if any number power of 0 is 1

so, (4)^0 =1

if any number power of -1 is equal to one divide this number.

like;

a^(-1) = 1/a

Therefore,

2^(-3) = 2^(-1) x  2^(-1) x  2^(-1)

         = 1/2 x   1/2 x   1/2

Hence solution of 2^(-3). (4) ^0 is,

1/2 x   1/2 x   1/2 x 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C 37.5

Step-by-step explanation:

1 inch is 30 feet. so feet is 30 x [number of inches]. 30 x 1.25 = 37.5

Answer:

y - 7 = 1/2(x - 7)

Step-by-step explanation:

Point slope form is y - y1 = m (x - x1)

So find m = y2 - y1/ x2 - x1, so m = -1 - 7 / -9 - 7, m = -8 / -16 so m = 1/2

Then sub your (7,7) so y - 7 = 1/2(x - 7)

Answer:

D) -2

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope = -3

(1, -9)

y - y1 = m(x - x1)

y + 9 = -3(x - 1)

y + 9 = -3x + 3

y = -3x - 6

y = -3x - 6

0 = -3x - 6

6 = -3x

x = -2

Answer:

74

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

its 0.60(36)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y = -7

Step-by-step explanation:

I wrote how I did

and the steps

Answer: -7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a = 2

b = 1

c = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

The quadratic equation, 2x² + x + 1 = 0, is expressed in the standard form as ax² + bx + c, where a ≠ 0.

Thus,

a = 2

b = 1 (1 * x = x)

c = 1

Answer:

the answer to that is B hope it helps

Answer:

08255555/10000000 this is the answer

Answer:

0.8255555 = [tex]\frac{33}{40}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Showing the work

Rewrite the decimal number as a fraction with 1 in the denominator

0.825 = [tex]\frac{0.825}{1}[/tex]

Multiply to remove 3 decimal places. Here, you multiply top and bottom by 103 = 1000

[tex]\frac{0.825}{1}[/tex] × [tex]\frac{1000}{1000}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{825}{1000}[/tex]

Find the Greatest Common Factor (GCF) of 825 and 1000, if it exists, and reduce the fraction by dividing both numerator and denominator by GCF = 25,

[tex]\frac{825/25}{1000/25}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{33}{40}[/tex]

Therefore

X= [tex]\frac{33}{40}[/tex]

In conclusion,

0.825555 = [tex]\frac{33}{40}[/tex]

Hope it helps

Please mark me as the brainliest

Thank you

Answer:

a) 89.97% of men have arm spans between 66 and 76 ​inches.

b) The z-score for this​ person's arm span is 5.68. 0% of males have an arm span at least as long as this​ person

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the zscore of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Mean of 71.4 inches and a standard deviation of 3.1 inches.

This means that [tex]\mu = 71.4, \sigma = 3.1[/tex]

a. What percentage of men have arm spans between 66 and 76 ​inches?

The proportion is the pvalue of Z when X = 76 subtracted by the pvalue of Z  when X = 66. The percentage is the proportion multiplied by 100.

X = 76

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{76 - 71.4}{3.1}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.48[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.48[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.9306

X = 66

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{66 - 71.4}{3.1}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -1.74[/tex]

[tex]Z = -1.74[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.0409

0.9306 - 0.0409 = 0.8997

0.8997*100% = 89.97%

89.97% of men have arm spans between 66 and 76 ​inches.

b. A particular professional basketball player has an arm span of almost 89 inches. Find the​ z-score for this​ person's arm span. What percentage of males have an arm span at least as long as this​ person?

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{89 - 71.4}{3.1}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 5.68[/tex]

The z-score for this​ person's arm span is 5.68.

Z = 5.68 has a pvalue of 1

1 - 1 = 0

0% of males have an arm span at least as long as this​ person

The percentage of men who have arm spans between 66 and 76 ​inches is 89.97% and the percentage of males who have an arm span at least as long as this​ person is 0%.

Given :

According to survey​ data, the distribution of arm spans for males is approximately Normal with a mean of 71.4 inches and a standard deviation of 3.1 inches.

a) The formula of z-score is given below:

[tex]\rm Z = \dfrac{X-\mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

where [tex]\mu[/tex] is the mean and [tex]\sigma[/tex] is the standard deviation.

When X = 66 the formula of z-score becomes:

[tex]\rm Z = \dfrac{66-71.4}{3.1}[/tex]

Z = -1.74

The p-value regarding the (Z = -1.74) is 0.0409.

When X = 76 the formula of z-score becomes:

[tex]\rm Z = \dfrac{76-71.4}{3.1}[/tex]

Z = 1.48

The p-value regarding the (Z = 1.48) is 0.9306.

Now, the percentage of men who have arm spans between 66 and 76 ​inches is:

= (0.9306 - 0.0409) [tex]\times[/tex] 100 %

= 89.97%

b) Now, at X = 89 the formula of z-score becomes:

[tex]\rm Z = \dfrac{89-71.4}{3.1}[/tex]

Z = 5.68

The p-value regarding the (Z = 5.68) is 1.

So, the percentage of males who have an arm span at least as long as 89 inches ​is:

= (1 - 1) [tex]\times[/tex] 100 %

= 0%

For more information, refer to the link given below:

https://brainly.com/question/13299273

Answer:

Hey! I'll only help with a few..

Step-by-step explanation:

2. 2c(7c+1)

3. The expression is not factorable with rational numbers.

4. 2x^3y^2(4-11 x^2y^4)

Hope this helps!

Have a nice day!♥

Answer:

7.6

Step-by-step explanation:

I used a calculator

Answer:

38/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Convert the mixed number 7 3/5 Into an improper fraction first by multiplying the denominator (5) by the whole number part (7) and add the numerator (3) to get the new numerator. Place the new numerator (38) over the old denominator (5) .

Answer:

567

Step-by-step explanation:

Please mark brainliest

Answer:

567

Step-by-step explanation:

35

Step-by-step explanation:

x+55 + 90=180

x= 180-145

x=35

Answer:

C. 216

Step-by-step explanation:

6³ = 6 x 6 x 6

6 x 6 = 36

36 x 6 = 180 + 36

180 + 36 = 216

hope this helps

Answer:

5 pennies

7 nickels

19 dimes

$2.3

Step-by-step explanation:

first i like to find 1%

50/100=1%

50/100=0.5

then multiply to find %'s

0.5x10=pennies

0.5x10=5

0.5x38=dimes

0.5x38=19

since there are 2 more nickels than pennies there are 7 nickels since there are 5 pennies

then find each value and add

5x.01+7x.05+19x.10

0.05+0.35+1.9=$2.3

Answer:

the total monthly cost is $742.36

Step-by-step explanation:

The computation of the total monthly cost is shown below:

= Mortgage payment + insurance + taxes + electricity + phone service + fuel + water + repairs

= $347.90 + $17 + $84 + $64.40 + $33.50 + $98.25 + $17.44 + $79.87

= $742.36

Hence, the total monthly cost is $742.36

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  1. area DEF = 2π cm²

  2. arc JK = 2π cm

Step-by-step explanation:

1. The area is given by ...

  A = 1/2r²θ . . . . . where r is the radius and θ is the central angle in radians

Your sector has an area of ...

  A = (1/2)(3 cm)²(80(π/180)) = (1/2)(9 cm²)(4/9π)

  A = 2π cm²

__

2. The length of an arc is ...

  s = rθ . . . . . . . where r is the radius and θ is the central angle in radians

  s = (5 cm)(72(π/180)) = (5 cm)(2/5π)

  s = 2π cm . . . arc length

_____

Additional comment

There are π radians in 180°, so an angle in degrees can be converted to an angle in radians by multiplying by π/180°. (The units of degrees cancel, leaving a pure number. "Radians" have no units.)

Answer:

4/8 3/6 5/10 2/4 6/12

Step-by-step explanation:

pls give me the crown pls

and i hope this helped you :)

how DO I DELETE THIS ANSWER

Answer:

The system has one solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the number of solutions of the system, we equal both equations for y.

If we have ax = b, in which both a and b are different of 0, we have one solution.

If both a and b are 0, we have infinite solutions.

If a is 0 and b is not, there are no solutions.

y=6/7x-8 and y=7/9x+10/9

So

[tex]\frac{6x}{7} - 8 = \frac{7x}{9} + \frac{10}{9}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{6x}{7} - \frac{7x}{9} = \frac{10}{9} + 8[/tex]

[tex]\frac{54x - 49x}{63} = \frac{10}{9} + \frac{72}{9}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{5x}{63} = \frac{82}{9}[/tex]

[tex]45x = 63*82[/tex]

Both a and b are different of 0, so the system has one solution.

Answer:

A. P(x=17)  = 0.00121

B. P(x=10) = 0.15768

C. P(x=12)=0.0888

D. No , x can take any value more than 8

complete sentence or two

Step-by-step explanation:

Here n= 24 ;   p= 0.39 ; q = 1-0.39= 0.71

Applying binomial probability distribution

P(X=x) = nCx p^x q^n-x

Part A.

P(x=17) = 24c17 p ^17 q^24-17

P(x=17)             = 0.00121510493

Part B.

P(x=10) = 24c10 p ^10 q^24-10

P(x=10) = 0.1576877824

Part C.

P(x=12) = 24c12 p ^12 q^24-12

P(x=12)=0.08887201897

D. The random variable X can obviously take on anyone of the (n+1) integer value 0,1,23,-------,n in the binomial probability distribution

where

the trials are fixed

and the successes and failures are independent.

Answer:

Step-by-step exlanation:

What you do is $18,000 x 5% which is 900 and then you do 900 x 10 = 9000!