The species that posed a threat to Australia's sugarcane crop in 1930 were cane grubs. The native species of Victoria are highly threatened by cane toads.
The native species of Victoria were seriously threatened by cane toads. In addition to competing for food, they may quickly spread and colonize new places, may bring new viruses and diseases, and poison via their toxic glands. According to the Victorian Catchment and Land Protection Act of 1994, cane toads fall under the category of controlled pest animals. Threat reduction strategy for the cane toad (Bufo marinus). In order to lessen the effects of cane toads and conserve native species and ecosystems that are impacted by cane toads, the Australian Government has issued a threat abatement plan that outlines the research, management, and other efforts required. Cane Toads kill them by injecting their venom into their bodies. By utilizing poison to kill their predators, the cane toad has altered Australia's environment. This process eliminates certain species, but it also promotes the re-emergence of other prey species.
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he activity asks you to identify potential targets of antimicrobial drugs by dragging labels to the target. drag the following labels to the appropriate antimicrobial target in the diagram. view available hint(s)for part a
Antimicrobial drugs have been developed to target five bacterial targets: cell wall synthesis, protein synthesis, ribonucleic acid synthesis, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis, and intermediary metabolism.
Antimicrobials are medications that are used to prevent and treat infections in humans, animals, and plants. They include antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals, and antiparasitics.
Cell wall synthesis
Overview of the cell wall The bacterial cell wall monomer lipid II is synthesized inside the cytoplasm and then flipped outward by the transporter MurJ.
Protein synthesis
Protein synthesis refers to the process through which cells produce proteins. Transcription and translation are the two phases. Transcription is the process by which genetic instructions in DNA are transferred to mRNA in the nucleus. It is divided into three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination.
Ribonucleic acid synthesis
Transcription is the process by which RNA is synthesized using DNA as a template and is catalyzed by an enzyme called RNA polymerase. The binding of the enzyme to a promoter sequence in the DNA initiates transcription.
Intermediary metabolism.
The subfield of biochemistry traditionally concerned with the vast and highly integrated network of biochemical reactions that provides cells with forms of energy for immediate use (i.e., metabolic energy), reducing power, and biosynthetic intermediates is known as intermediary metabolism.
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cystic fibrosis is caused by a recessive allele, c. what is the probability that two people who are carriers for cystic fibrosis will have a child who is also a carrier?
If both parents have the recessive allele then the offspring will have a 1 in 4, or 25 percent chance of being affected with cystic fibrosis.
In the absence of a dominant allele, a recessive allele is a type of genetic coding that has no impact on phenotype. The more pronounced effects of the dominant allele in a recessive relationship between two alleles obscure the effects of the recessive allele. An allele is a particular variation of a gene or a particular DNA fragment. Different alleles generate a somewhat different set of proteins with various functions. If the results of a dominant allele are unpleasant in the environment that a population is living in, natural selection may select a recessive allele.
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which food is the most likely source of the infection? which food is the most likely source of the infection? turkey sprouts tomato avocado
The most contaminated raw animal products include raw or barely cooked meat and poultry, raw or barely cooked eggs, unpasteurized (raw) milk, and raw shellfish. Vegetables and fruits can also become infected.
Especially unpasteurized (raw) milk, raw seafood, raw or undercooked meat and poultry, eggs, and unpasteurized (raw) milk. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can potentially contaminate fruits and vegetables. a gram-negative bacillus; creates erratic elevated colonies and a water-soluble pigment that ranges in color from green to blue on trypticase soy agar. You will attempt to obtain pure cultures of each organism in your mix throughout the following two labs in order to identify which two bacteria you have. Infectious disorders are frequently spread from one person to another by direct contact with bacteria, viruses, or other organisms. When someone who has the bacterium or virus contacts, kisses, coughs, or sneezes on someone who is not yet done, this can happen. It spreads from one person to another.
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a gerbil is fed a normal diet including 14c-lysine. after a period of time on this diet biopsies are taken from several tissues and analyzed for radioactivity. 14c is detected in glycogen from muscles and liver, triglycerides from adipose tissue, and nucleic acids isolated from all tissues. in as much detail as you can, show how the radioactivity from an amino acid found its way into these other classes of biopolymers.
Answer:
All types of biomolecules show radiation production resulting from amino acid degradation. Lysine is converted to alanine by Lysine-pyruvate 6-transaminase.
Explanation:
How long must a constant current of 50. 0 a be passed through an electrolytic cell containing aqueous cu2+ ions to produce 3. 00 moles of copper metal?.
When a redox chemical reaction takes place inside an electrolytic cell, current or another energy source is used to develop potential across the cell.
Q=I*t
where Q= quantity of electricity in coloumbs
I = current in amperes = 50A
t= time in seconds = ?
[tex]Cu^{2+} +2e^{-1} ----[/tex]Cu
96500*2= 19300 coulombs
of electricity deposits 1 mole of Cu.
1 mole of Copper is produced by = 193000 Coloumb of electricity deposits 1 mole of Cu.
1 mole of copper is producing by =193000coloubs
5 moles of Copper is produced by=193000*5-965000C
965000-50*t
t=19300 (1 hour=3600sec)
t=5.36 hours.
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what possible genotype could a long-necked, short-legged, light-spotted, meat-digesting giraffe have?
The possible genotype of a long-necked, short-legged, light-spotted, meat-digesting giraffe is NnllddMM.
In giraffes, the long neck (N), long legs (L), dark spots (D) and the ability to digest meat (M) are all dominant traits. The long neck is the most dominant trait. It can be gay or straight, and always get the long neck trait. The light spots must be homogeneous. If we want to be a dominant trait, we have to be recessive to homogeneity. We can be heterosexual or homosexual here. There is a possibility of a short-necked, short-legged, dark-spotted, meat-digesting giraffe. He must be homosexual if he starts with a short neck. Homosexuals have the same trait. For the spotted, it can be either homosexual or heterosexual. The dominant trait is either dominant homosexuals or heterocyclics. If we are looking for the dominant trait to have a long, then any combination of these traits would give us that trait, and if we are looking for the big and small trait, it would always give us that trait. We would have short legs by Little L. It's a trait of two giraffes. The capital M and the light dots would give us the dominant feature of meat digestion.
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3) the seed coat's most important function is to provide a) a nonstressful environment for the megasporangium. b) the means for dispersal. c) dormancy. d) a nutrient supply for the embryo. e) desiccation resistance.
The seed coat's most important function is to provide desiccation resistance.
What is desiccation resistance?
The term "desiccation tolerance" describes an organism's capacity to withstand or endure conditions of extreme dryness or drought-like conditions. Physiological or behavioural adaptations to endure these periods have been required to ensure the survival of animals and plants that live in arid as well as periodically arid environments, such as transient streams or ponds. In particular, insects use a variety of defence mechanisms to prevent desiccation because they occupy a broad range of ecologically diverse niches. Typically, the change in mass under dry conditions is used to gauge an insect's desiccation resistance. As respiratory water loss is typically regarded as negligible, the overall mass difference among measurements before and following exposure to aridity is credited to body water loss.
It helps seed to remain dormant within the seed coat and germinates when there are favorable conditions. It absorb water and under stressful conditions provides it to the germinating seed .
Hence , the basic and most important function of seed coat is desiccation resistance.
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invasive species are of great concern because their eradication or management can cause both high economic costs and the decimation of native populations of flora and fauna. what is one of the reasons why invasive species tend to thrive in areas where they are introduced?
Answer:
The lack of natural predators allows invasive populations to increase very quickly.
if an atom has 12 electrons how many energy levels are used?
before it opens up into full blossom, the outer green layer of a rosebud consists of the leaflike a) stamen. b) petals. c) ovary. d) sepals.
Before it opens up into full blossom, the outer green layer of a rosebud consists of the leaflike d) sepals.
Sepals are the flower's small, leaf-shaped, green petals on the outside. They are the vegetative part of a flower that protects the emerging buds and supports the petals when they are in bloom. The sepals are thought to be modified leaves.
The sepal is a defensive organ that protects and encloses the developing reproductive structures. When the flower matures, the sepal opens and the flower blooms.
Petals are modified leaves that surround a flower's reproductive parts. To attract pollinators, they are frequently brightly colored or unusually shaped. The corolla is the collective name for a flower's petals.
The stamen is a flower's pollen-producing reproductive organ. The androecium is made up of stamens. In botany, the ovary is the enlarged basal portion of the pistil, a flower's female organ. Ovules are found in the ovary and develop into seeds after fertilization.
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there are several ways the immune system can defend the body against pathogens. click and drag to distinguish specific from nonspecific immunity.
The several ways how an immune system can defend the body against pathogens are:
1) Mechanical and chemical barriers as the first line of defense
2) The inflammatory response and phagocytosis are the second line of defense.
3) Natural killer cells and specific immunological responses serve as the third line of defense.
There are three layers of defense in immune function, which is the internal environment's defense against invading cells, proteins, and viruses. A series of barriers between the internal and external environments serves as the initial line of defense.
The innate inflammatory response (including phagocytosis) makes up the second line, while the adaptive immune responses and the innate defense provided by natural killer cells make up the third line.
Of course, the first two lines of defense do not apply to tumor cells that develop inside the body, thus the third line of defense must be used to combat them. This illustration is a condensed version of the complex immune system operation; in reality, there is a lot of mechanism overlap between various "lines of defense."
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What process uses CO2 from the atmosphere? What organisms carry out that process?
The process which uses CO₂ from the atmosphere is referred to as photosynthesis and the organisms which carry out the process is known as plants.
What is Photosynthesis?This is referred to as the process in which green plants manufacture their food in the presence of sunlight and employs the use of compounds such as water, carbon dioxide. The chlorophyll which is the green pigment found in plants help to trap solar energy from the sun.
Plants are referred to as primary producers and use Carbon dioxide and water to produce glucose and oxygen which is used by other members of the ecosystem.
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which term describes the process of sister chromatids not separating at the centromere during cell division? karyokinesis aneuploidy desegregation nondisjunction
Non-disjunction is the process of sister chromatids not separating at the centromere during cell division.
What is cell division?
The process by which a parent cell divides into two daughter cells is known as cell division. Cell growth and chromosome replication precede cell division, which often happens as part of a longer cell cycle. Mitosis and meiosis are the two distinct processes of cell division. When people talk about "cell division," they typically mean mitosis, which is the process of creating new cells for the body. The cell division process known as meiosis is what produces egg and sperm cells. A vital process for life is mitosis.
Hence the answer is non-disjunction.
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what feature appeared first in annelids? group of answer choices segmentation cephalization external appendages circulatory system pseudocoelom
Annelids, like mollusks, are among the first creatures to develop a coelom. A coelom is a mesodermal tissue-lined fluid-filled bodily cavity.
The phylum Annelida is cephalized. While it may not be visible, this phylum's segmented worms have a well-developed brain and nervous system, which is aided in part by their bilateral symmetry.
A pseudocoelom is a body cavity that is located between mesodermal and endodermal tissue and is not completely surrounded by mesodermal tissue. A "true" coelom is surrounded entirely by mesodermal tissue and can thus be divided into compartments.
Several groups of segmented worms, including worms found in mud and sand, earthworms, and leeches, are members of the phylum Annelida. Bilateral symmetry, cephalization, an open digestive system, segmentation, and a body cavity are all features of segmented worms.
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which photosystem is responsible for the production of atp and o2? which photosystem is responsible for the production of nadph?
Thus, the Calvin cycle enzymes in the chloroplast stroma utilise both ATP and NADPH that are produced when electrons flow through photosystems I and II to convert CO2 to carbohydrates.
photosystem I
What is photosystem?The two multi-protein complexes known as photosystem I and photosystem II contain the pigments required to collect photons and utilise light energy to catalyze the fundamental photosynthetic endergonic processes that result in high energy molecules.
Chemiosmosis and ATP synthesis in the chloroplast are triggered by Photosystem II. The reduced pheophytin transfers electrons to an electron transport chain in the thylakoid membrane. This ETC resembles the mitochondrial ETC in terms of both structure and function.
An essential membrane protein complex called photosystem I uses light energy to catalyze the movement of electrons from plastocyanin to ferredoxin across the thylakoid membrane. The moderate-energy hydrogen carrier NADPH is ultimately created using the electrons that Photosystem I transfers.
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what division of the nervous system is composed of the cranial and spinal nerves? biolgy abeka 10th grade
Peripheral nervous system division of the nervous system is composed of the cranial and spinal nerves.
Your nervous system's portion outside of your brain and spinal cord is known as your peripheral nervous system (PNS). It is essential for both carrying out commands from your brain to various sections of your body and relaying information from various parts of your body back to your brain. One of the two parts that make up an animal's nervous system, together with the central nervous system, is the peripheral nervous system.
Spinal nerves are mixed nerves that communicate with the spinal cord directly in order to modulate sensory and motor information coming from the body's periphery. Your brain, spinal cord, and the rest of your body receive electrical signals from your spinal nerves.
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If a human is bitten by an animal that has rabies, then it is recommended that the human receive immune globin (human rabies antibodies) and a rabies vaccination (with inactive virus) as well. Which of the following is the best (and most specific) explanation for why both are recommended in this case?
a. Because rabies is such a serious illness, using antibodies and a vaccine provides the strongest possible immediate protection. Both antibodies and the vaccine provide a rapid immediate response to prevent illness from developing.
b. The rabies antibodies provide a rapid response but short-lived response while the vaccination provides slower but longer-lasting protection.
c. The rabies vaccination is relatively new and ineffective, so it is important to give the immune globin as well to make certain that the viruses cannot cause disease.
While the immunization offers slower but more durable protection, the rabies antibodies offer a quick but transient response. There are rabies immunoglobulins and vaccinations for humans to immunization.
People are immunized with the same vaccine either before or after exposure to rabies antibodies(see PEP) (less common). People who work in high-risk occupations, such as laboratories handling live rabies and rabies-related (lyssavirus) viruses, as well as people (such as animal antibodies disease control staff and wildlife rangers) whose professional or recreational activities of antibodies might put them in close proximity to bats, carnivores, or other mammals that may be infected, antibodies should get pre-exposure immunization.
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What is the role of ATP in transport across a cell membrane?
1 .ATP is an amino acid that is used to build transport proteins.
2. ATP is an energy molecule that helps with active transport.
3. ATP is an enzyme that speeds up chemical reactions in the cell.
4. ATP is a carrier protein that transports substances across the cell membrane.
Answer:
2. ATP is an energy molecule that helps with active transport.
Explanation:
ATP is used to transport molecules across the membrane through active transport. Active transport means moving molecules from a less crowded area of a cell to a more crowded area. This transport requires energy in order to carry out the transfer, so energy molecules/ATP is required.
fatty acids are adenylated prior to reacting with coenzyme a to make acyl-coa. what is the purpose of the adenylation?
The purpose of adenylation is Adenylation causes ATP to be added to acyl chains, Which allows for the length of the acyl chain to increase, Adenylation inhibits the interaction of Acyl-CoA with Coenzyme A, and This forms a phosphodiester bond that Coenzyme A can "attack." A correct answer is an option(e).
Adenylation is a tasteful organic process used to chemically mobilize carboxylate substrates by condensing bureaucracy accompanying ATP to save pyrophosphate (the hidden motive). The adenylation (A) rule selectively combines alike amino acids into NRPs from a much best monomer pool, including all 20 proteinogenic amino acids, in addition to any of nonproteinogenic amino acids, aryl acids, oily acids, and hydroxy acid construction blocks.
A fatty acid is a carboxylic acid with an aliphatic chain, that is either soggy or unsaturated. Dietary grease holds a combination of soggy, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids. Foods are frequently classified apiece ruling type of oily acids they hold, even though meals hold all three types.
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The complete question is:
Fatty acids are adenylated prior to reacting with Coenzyme A to make Acyl-CoA. What is the purpose of adenylation?
a. Adenylation leads to the addition of ATP to acyl chains.
b. This allows for the growth of acyl chain length.
c. Adenylation prevents Acyl-CoA from interacting with Coenzyme A.
d. This creates a phosphodiester bond that can be "attacked" by Coenzyme A.
e. All of the above
portage you are looking for media that will help you distinguish between two gram positive bacteria. what type of media would be best for this?
Tellurite agar, therefore, is used to select for Gram-positive organisms, and nutrient agar supplemented with penicillin can be used to select for Gram-negative organisms.
Differential means are used to differentiate closely related organisms or groups of organisms. Mannitol salt agar (MSA), which is selective for gram-positive bacteria and differential for mannitol. Tests Used to Identify Gram-Positive Bacteria
catalase test.
Mannitol Saline Agar (MSA)
Blood Agar Plates (BAP)
Streak-stab technique.
Taxa P (Optochin Susceptibility Test)
Taxa A (bacitracin susceptibility test)
Try CAMP.
Aesculin bile agar. Gram stain is a common technique used to differentiate two large groups of bacteria based on their different cell wall constituents. The Gram stain procedure distinguishes between Gram positive and Gram negative groups by staining these cells red or violet.
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For every adenine on one strand of DNA, there is a thymine on the opposing strand of DNA. For every cytosine on one strand of DNA, there is a guanine on the opposing strand of DNA. This is because
DNA strands are complementary with each other.
For every adenine on one strand of DNA, there is a thymine on the opposing strand of DNA. For every cytosine on one strand of DNA, there is a guanine on the opposing strand of DNA. This is because DNA strands are complementary with each other.
The hereditary substance in humans and almost all other organisms is DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid. Almost every cell in a person's body contains the same DNA. The majority of DNA is found in the cell nucleus (where it is known as nuclear DNA), but a small amount can also be found in the mitochondria (where it is called mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA). Mitochondria are cell structures that convert food energy into a state that cells can use.
DNA stores information as a code composed of four chemical bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Human DNA is made up of approximately 3 billion bases, with more than 99 percent of those bases being the same in all people.
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opening of sodium channels in the axon membrane causes hyperpolarization and increased negative charge inside the membrane. hyperpolarization and decreased positive charge inside the membrane. depolarization and increased positive charge inside the membrane. depolarization and increased negative change inside the membrane. repolarization and increased positive charge inside the membrane.
The correct option (d) Both depolarization and increased positive charge inside the membrane.
Depolarization or hypopolarization is a change within a cell that occurs when the cell's electric charge distribution shifts, resulting in less negative charge inside the cell relative to the outside.
What happens during a depolarization?
The gated sodium ion channels on the neuron's membrane suddenly open during the depolarization phase, allowing sodium ions (Na+) present outside the membrane to rush into the cell. The internal charge of the nerve changes from -70 mV to -55 mV as sodium ions enter the cell quickly.
The entry of sodium and calcium ions caused by the opening of membrane channels causes depolarization.
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how many sets of chromosome 21 are present in each cell after 1) mitosis, 2) meiosis, and 3) if a nondisjunction event occurred during anaphase i?
Each daughter cell will have half of the original 46 chromosomes, or 23 chromosomes. Each chromosome consists of 2 sister chromatids. The daughter cells now move on to the third and final phase of meiosis: meiosis II.
At the end of meiosis I there are two haploid cells. Most of complete trisomy 21 is caused by chromosome nondisjunction that occurs during maternal meiotic division (∼90%). Errors occur more frequently in the first maternal meiotic division than in the second. Nondisjunction can occur during meiosis I and meiosis II, resulting in abnormal number of gamete chromosomes. The key difference between nondisjunction in meiosis 1 and 2 is that during meiosis 1, the homologous chromosomes do not separate while in meiosis II the sister chromatids do not separate. Each chromosome contains 1 DNA in anaphase II meiosis. The remaining centromeric cohesin is cleaved in anaphase II, allowing segregation of sister chromatids. The mother cell remains diploid in nature (46 chromosomes in each cell) after meiosis I. After meiosis II, when each mother cell divides into two gametes, each gamete cell contains 23 chromosomes.
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why do lipoprotein particles (e.g. vldl) only have a monolayer of phospholipids instead of a typical lipid bilayer?
Lipoprotein particles only have a monolayer of phospholipids because the phosphate of the lipids interacts with the triglycerides and cholesterol esters of the particle. The monolayer protects the particles from bile acids.
What is the role of the phospholipid monolayer at the outer surface of lipoprotein particles?
The lipid monolayer, along with binding proteins, that surround lipid droplets is what helps stabilize the oil drop in the aqueous cell environment due to the amphipathic nature of these molecules.
What are the functions of lipid monolayer?
Lipid monolayers are used as experimental model systems to study the physical-chemical properties of biomembranes. With this purpose, surface pressure/area per molecule isotherms provide a way to obtain information on the packing and compressibility properties of the lipids.
What is the difference between monolayer and bilayer?
The difference is that in bilayers the flux of solution is expressed as a volume change of the vesicles and in monolayers as an area change. By extension, the same approach should apply to the surface pressure area lipid process.
Thus, the monolayer protects the particles from bile acids.
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STEMscopedia: Introduction to photosynthesis answers
Photosynthesis is the process in which light energy is converted to chemical energy in the form of sugars.
what is photosynthesis ?The process in which plants, algae and certain bacteria use light energy of sunlight, water, carbon dioxide and convert light them into chemical energy and starch. called as photosynthesis.
Photosynthesis occur in special organelles named chloroplast which has its own DNA, genes and hence can synthesize their own proteins.
Chloroplasts have stroma, fluid, and stack of thylakoids known as grana, three types of chlorophyll such as chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, and carotenoids.
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From the RFLP data below, fill in the appropriate letters to complete the following statement: ______ is the child of _____ and _____
a. C is the child of B and A b. A is the child of B and C c. B is the child of D and C d. D is the child of A and C
C is the offspring of B and A, in accordance with the Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) of a DNA’s information below.
The term "restriction fragment length polymorphism" (RFLP), short for "restriction fragment length polymorphism," refers to changes (or variances) in people's DNA sequences at places identified by restriction enzymes. By processing the DNA with such a restriction enzyme, this variation causes the DNA fragments to be formed in various sizes (or lengths). Any genomic DNA may be distinguished using RFLP markers depending on the existence or presence of restriction enzyme domains. The specific location is recognized and cleaved by restriction enzymes. Furthermore, a sizable DNA sample, whose isolation can be difficult and time-consuming, is needed for RFLP. In comparison, PCR can rapidly amplify minute quantities of DNA.
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the testcross aa bb × aa bb produces the progeny shown: 40 aa bb, 10 aa bb, 10 aa bb, 40 aa bb. what was the arrangement of the genes in the aa bb parent?
The arrangement of the genes in the aa bb parent is in repulsion. The genes are in repulsion because the most numerous progeny are the nonrecombinants.
What does it mean when genes are in repulsion?
Repulsion refers to the case where each homologous chromosome has one dominant and one recessive allele from the two genes.
What is Gametic repulsion?
Similarly, it was observed that when two such dominant alleles or two recessive alleles come from different parents, they tend to remain separate. This was called gametic repulsion.
What is repulsion configuration?
When one wild-type allele and one mutant allele are on one homologous chromosome, and the opposite is on the other, this is known as a repulsion (or trans) configuration (e.g., A+b– / a–B+). The way to determine the orientation is to look at the parents (or P generation) of that cross if you know their genotypes of them.
Thus, the arrangement of genes is in repulsion.
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An investigator proposes a study to determine the clinical relevance of a new technique to quantitate minimal residual disease (mrd) during therapy for acute lymphoblastic leukemia in adolescents. The study requires that two additional bone marrow aspirates be performed during the course of treatment. The subject's treatment will not be altered based in the results of the assay, but if the presence of minimal residual disease is found to predict for higher risk of relapse, future patients with this disease would benefit from improved treatment. This study is approvable only if:.
The study will only be approved if there is the permission of both the parents as well as the assent of the child.
In the said study, the investigator has basically proposed a study in order to tell the clinical relevance of some new technique which basically quantitates the MRD or the minimal residual disease during the therapy for the acute lymphoblastic leukemia which is seen in the case of adolescents.
Since the study basically requires that two more bone marrow aspirates which have to performed while the patient is being treated. This study can only be approved if both of the parents give their permission and also there is the assent of the child.
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which of the following is not a part of inspiration? group of answer choices the pressure in the lungs increases. the rib cage moves up and out. the diaphragm contracts and moves down. the intercostal muscles pull the ribs outward. air rushes into the lungs.
The pressure in the lungs increases is not a part of inspiration.
The process of moving air into and out of the lungs to facilitate gas exchange with the internal environment, primarily to flush out carbon dioxide and bring in oxygen, is known as breathing (or ventilation).
The process of taking air into the lungs is known as inspiration (inhalation). Because it is the result of muscle contraction, it is the active phase of ventilation. The diaphragm contracts and the thoracic cavity expands during inspiration. This lowers the intraalveolar pressure, allowing air to enter the lungs.
Expiration (exhalation) is the process by which air is expelled from the lungs during the breathing cycle. The relaxation of the diaphragm and elastic recoil of tissue during expiration reduces thoracic volume while increasing intraalveolar pressure. Expiration forces air from the lungs.
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what is the reading frame? be able to translate mrna into amino acids (a codon chart will be provided)
A reading frame is one of three different approaches to reading a nucleotide sequence. Say we have the DNA sequence acttagccgggacta, which consists of 15 base pairs. Starting with the first letter, "a," also known as the first reading frame, we can begin to translate or read the DNA.
How to spot an open reading frame Finding the sequence that corresponds to a start codon will help you identify the reading frame; it will be ATG. until a stop codon is reached, read this sequence in base triplets.
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