PLZ HELP Sound is a form of wave. List at least three reasons to support the idea that sound is a wave

Answer: B.) HYDROPLANE

Explanation: The term hydroplane can be used to refer to a condition which usually occur during a downpour or on surfaces covered by water. It occurs when water forms a barrier or comes in between the frictional grip which occurs between the road surface and the car tyres. The contact between the car tyres and the road surface is supposed to give adequate frictional support which prevents the car from skidding or skidding uncontrollably on the road surface. However, when water comes invetween the surface, traction is lost and skidding results due to very low Coefficient of friction between the road and Tyre which was supposed to provide a firm grip between the tyres and the road surface.

When a vehicle is traveling on wet or slick roads, hydroplaning can occur. The correct answer is b) hydroplane.

When a vehicle is traveling on wet or slick roads, hydroplaning can occur. Hydroplaning happens when a layer of water builds up between the tires of the vehicle and the road surface, leading to a loss of traction.

This loss of traction can cause the vehicle to skid or slide, making it difficult to control. The tires ride on top of the water rather than maintaining contact with the road, resulting in reduced traction and control of the vehicle.

Therefore, When a vehicle is traveling on wet or slick roads, hydroplaning can occur. The correct answer is b) hydroplane.

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Answer:

amongst the properties that makes aluminium a metal is that it is malleable and ductile...and it has high melting and boiling points

I hope that helps

Explanation:

properties of metals include

1. high melting and boiling points

2 high densities

3 malleability and ductility

Answer:

for every action thete is an equal and opposite reaction

Answer:

Newton’s third law of motion says that for every action there is a(n)

equal and opposite reaction.

Explanation:

just got it right edg 1928

Answer:

It is not a uniform velocity, because his velocity increases for 5 m every second (acceleration = 5m/s2), meaning his velocity always changes.

When he starts at rest, his velocity is 0 m/s. But in 1 second later, his velocity is already 5m/s. At 2 seconds, his velocity will be 10 m/s.

Answer:

Sound as a Longitudinal Wave

For a sound wave traveling through air, the vibrations of the particles are best described as longitudinal. Longitudinal waves are waves in which the motion of the individual particles of the medium is in a direction that is parallel to the direction of energy transport.

Answer:

Hey!

Here is your answer!

Explanation:

LONGITUDINAL WAVES:

These are waves where the transferral of energy is PARALLEL to the direction it travels in...For Example...Sound Waves are Longitudinal as they move in a series of COMPRESSIONS and RAREFACTIONS (typical of all Longitudinal Waves)...

The compressions are known in diagrams to be an area of a dense collection of PARTICLES where the energy (or sound in this case) is being transferred in the same direction as the movement...

The rarefactions are shown as almost empty area of particles where the medium (the matter of which the wave travels in) is moving...

Hope this helps!

*here's a diagram*

Answer:

we should not drop a magnet on the floor because the magnets tend to lose magnetism gradually and become weak over a period of time if they are not stored properly.

Answer:

Well depending on the floor like say if it was a wooden floor the magnet might lose it magnetism, if concrete floor the magnetic brake and still lose it magnetism, if a metal floor the magnet would stick not sure if it wood lose it magnetism or not but the possibilities still there, basically what I'm saying is the magnet would lose its magnetism if it were to interact with the floor maybe temporary or maybe permanently.

for those with with a learning disability it's a

Explanation:

Answer: C.) Neptune

Explanation:

The Gravitational Potential Energy (GPE) of a body is calculated using the formula :

GPE = mgh

Where m = mass of the body

g = acceleration due to gravity

h = distance above a surface

Mass = 10kg

h = 2m

Using the formula :

GPE of lamp on Earth: g = 9.8

GPE = 10 × 9.8 × 2 = 71.8J

GPE of lamp on Mercury: g = 3.59

GPE = 10 × 3.59 × 2 = 196J

GPE of lamp on Mars: g = 3.7

GPE = 10 × 3.7 × 2 = 74J

GPE of lamp on Neptune: g = 14.07

GPE = 10 × 14.07 × 2 = 281.4J

GPE of lamp on Uranus: g = 9

GPE = 10 × 9 × 2 = 180J

GPE of lamp on Pluto: g = 0.42

GPE = 10 × 0.42 × 2 = 8.4J

Neptune has the highest gravitational potential energy as the value of acceleration due to gravity acting on objects is highest on Neptune.

Answer:

The correct option is;

C) Neptune

Explanation:

The force of gravity is given by the equation;

[tex]F_g = G\dfrac{m_1m_2}{r^2} = m_2 \times g[/tex]

Where:

m₁ = Mass of the planet

m₂ = Mass of the body = 10 kg

r = The distance between the body and the planet = 2 m

g = Gravitational acceleration on the planet

G = Gravitational constant

Given that the potential energy, PE = m × g × h

We have that,

[tex]PE = m_2 \times g \times (r + 2) = G\dfrac{m_1m_2}{r^2} \times (r + 2) \approx G\dfrac{m_1m_2}{r^2} \times r = G\dfrac{m_1m_2}{r}[/tex]

Therefore, the gravitational potential energy is directly proportional to the acceleration of gravity, such that the body will have the most gravitational potential energy in the planet with the highest acceleration due to gravity which is Neptune with acceleration due to gravity of 14.07 m/s².

Answer:

85.0 please I don't understand

Answer

3m/s²

Explanation

u=o

t=25s

v=75m/s

from Newton's first law of motion,

v=u+at

75=0+a(25)

75=25a

a= 75/25

a=3m/s²

The acceleration of the airplane is 3m/s².

Acceleration is rate of change of velocity with time. Due to having both direction and magnitude, it is a vector quantity. Si unit of acceleration is meter/second² (m/s²).

Given parameters:

Initial velocity of the airplane: u=o.

Time taken: t=25s.

Final velocity of the airplane: v=75m/s.

We have to find acceleration of the plane: a = ?

We know that for accelerating motion of the air plane; final velocity can be expressed as:

    v=u+at

⇒ 75=0+a(25)

⇒ 75=25a

⇒ a= 75/25

⇒ a= 3m/s².

hence, acceleration of the airplane is 3m/s².

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Answer:

8.43 m/s²

Explanation:

Average acceleration is the change in velocity over change in time.

a = Δv/Δt

First, convert km/h to m/s.

45 km/h = 12.5 m/s

500 km/h = 138.9 m/s

Now find the acceleration.

a = (138.9 m/s − 12.5 m/s) / 15.0 s

a = 8.43 m/s²

Answer:

An Electric "charge" is a property of matter that causes a force to repel or attract when placed into a magnetic field. These charges can be replicated into positive and negative electrons when made from a chemical reaction.

Answer:

an electri

Explanation:

Answer:

Writing of a story that ends with the character becoming poor with no friends.

Explanation:

There was a young girl who believed that all things revolve around her. She had the money, the power, the family, and the beauty to ensure she was the center of attention. She would always be the main focus, everywhere she goes.

But there came a time when she had a major misfortune. Her family had come upon unfortunate times. They are going to lose their money and may even be jailed for embezzlement. It was true that she had no idea what her parents had done but she was also so familiar with the 'princess' lifestyle that she did not know how to downgrade her lifestyle. And so, when this misfortune happened, she was unsure how to react. She also assumed that her friends will be there for her. Little did she know everyone was just after her wealth and influence and had nothing to do with genuine friendship.

In a few months, their family position moved from top to bottom, which everyone found hard to accept. She had to maintain her status while at the same time try to live up with that without losing her circle. But as rumors spread fast and she wasn't able to spend the way she would normally send, she eventually experienced a dwindled friend circle. And in about a year, she had lost all of her friends, couldn't even convince someone to stay with her faithfully and worse of all, she was also poor, the very status she had degradingly taunted other people with.

Answer:

P = VI = (IR)I = I2R

Explanation:

What the equation means is that if you double the current you end up with 4 times the power loss. It's like the area of carpet you need for a room - if you make the room twice as long and twice as wide you need 4x as much carpet. The physical explanation is that the voltage difference along a wire depends on the current - more current flowing with a resistance means more voltage (pressure of electricity if you like) is built up.

This extra voltage means more power. So if you double the current your would double the power, but you also double the voltage which doubles the power again = 4x as much power. P = VI = (IR)I = I2R

I hope this helps you out, if I'm wrong, just tell me.

As I mentioned earlier, Ohm's law gives us the formula P = IV, where V is the voltage ( also known as the electrical potential difference ) and I is the current. It is confusing that P = I²R and P = IV are one in the same - so I want to go a bit deeper on that.

We have three formulas, P = IV, P = I²R, and P = V² / R. Each are considered the same. The two formulas P = I²R, and P = V² / R are derived from the statement that P = IV, under the condition V = IR. Substitute the value of V from this second condition V = IR into P = IV. You would get the following -

P = I( IR ),

P = I²R

That is how one can derive the formula P = I²R, and how P = IV and P = I²R are thought to be one in the same. If you would like, take a look at how to get the formula " P = V² / R, "

V = IR, P = IV

I = V / R, P = IV

P = ( V / R )V,

P = V² / R

Hope that helps!

Answer:

D. the water's latent heat of vaporization is being pulled from the air.

Explanation:

A swamp cooler also generally referred to as the evaporative cooler is an electronic device that uses moisture to cool air. This simply means that, the electronic device works on the principle of evaporation of water to cool the surrounding air.

In swamp coolers, water absorbs large amount of warm air via the evaporative wet cooler pad, so as to evaporate and consequently cooling the air effectively and efficiently.

Swamp coolers are effective because the water's latent heat of vaporization is being pulled from the air.

The latent heat of vaporization can be defined as the energy that is being absorbed by water during evaporation.

The swamp coolers are typically made up of the following essential components, these are;

1. Float.

2. Blower.

3. Pump.

4. Evaporative pad.

5. Water supply valve.

Hence, through the principle of evaporative cooling (latent heat of vaporization), swamp coolers reduces or lower the air temperature in its surroundings.

Answer:

B and D

Explanation:

Answer:

[tex]m=35.58 kg[/tex]

Explanation:

Using the first Newton's equation

[tex]\Sum F_{T}=F-mgsin(25)-\mu mgcos(25)=0[/tex]

We just need to solve it for m:

[tex]m=\frac{F}{g(sin(25)+\mu cos(25))}[/tex]

[tex]m=\frac{350}{9.81(sin(25)+0.64cos(25))}[/tex]

[tex]m=35.58 kg[/tex]

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

1.) Magnitude = 5596 N

2.) Direction = 60 degrees

Explanation: You are given that the breakdown vehicle A is exerting a force of 4000 N at angle 45 degree to the vertical and breakdown vehicle B is exerting a force of 2000 N

Let us resolve the two forces into X and Y component

Sum of the forces in the X - component will be 4000 × cos 45 = 2828.43 N

Sum of the forces in the Y - component will be 2000 + ( 4000 × sin 45 )

= 2000 + 2828.43

= 4828.43 N

The resultant force R will be

R = sqrt ( X^2 + Y^2 )

Substitutes the forces at X component and Y component into the formula

R = sqrt ( 2828.43^2 + 4828.43^2 )

R = sqrt ( 31313752.53 )

R = 5595.87 N

The direction will be

Tan Ø = Y/X

Substitute Y and X into the formula

Tan Ø = 4828.43 / 2828.43

Tan Ø = 1.707106

Ø = tan^-1( 1.707106 )

Ø = 59.64 degree

Therefore, approximately, the magnitude and direction of the resultant force on the truck are 5596 N and 60 degree respectively.

Answer:

Part A)

Since all of the resistors have equal resistance, hence for finding even only 1 branch It will be fine because current will be the same for all branches.

=> [tex]I = \frac{V}{R_{1} }[/tex]

=> [tex]I = \frac{30}{15}[/tex]

=> I = 2 A

Part B)

Equivalent resistance for parallel circuits is the sum of reciprocals of each resistor.

=> [tex]\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{R_{1}}+\frac{1}{R_{2}} +\frac{1}{R_{3}}[/tex]  

=> [tex]\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{15}+ \frac{1}{15}+\frac{1}{15}[/tex]

=> [tex]\frac{1}{R} = \frac{3}{15}[/tex]

=> R = 15/3

=> R = 5 ohms

Part C)

I = V/R

Where I is current, V is voltage and R is the equivalent resistance

=> I = 30/5

=> I = 6 A

Answer:

circular motion

Explanation:

hope this helps you :)

Answer:

Centripetal motion

Explanation:

As a motorcycle takes a sharp turn the type of motion that occurs is called centripetal motion

Answer:

hope its helpful to uh...

Answer: 390, right

explanation: The net force is just the sum of all of these forces acting on an object. ... This equation is the sum of n forces acting on an object. The magnitude of the net force acting on an object is equal to the mass of the object multiplied by the acceleration of the object, as shown in this formula.

the net force acting on the buggy is 390 and The net force is pointing to the is right

The following information should be considered:

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Answer:

43,919.66 Kilotones de Co2 en 2016.

Explicación:

Ecuador produce 43,919.66 Kilotones de Co2 en 2016. Las tierras húmedas son muy importantes para la biodiversidad porque proporcionan hábitat a millones de animales. Alrededor del 35 por ciento de todas las especies amenazadas y en peligro vive en estas tierras húmedas. Estas tierras húmedas son altamente productivas y tienen la capacidad de mejorar la calidad del agua, prevenir la degradación del suelo y proporcionar alimentos a los animales que viven en estas tierras húmedas.

Answer:

Zero

Explanation:

The magnetic field due to the first wire on the second wire with current i₁ in the first wire at a distance d from the second wire is B₁ = μ₀i₁/2πd.

The magnetic force due to this field on the second wire of length segment, L and current i₂ is F₁ = Bi₂L = (μ₀i₁/2πd)i₂L = μ₀i₁i₂L/2πd = F

The magnetic field due to the second wire on the first wire with current i₂ in the first wire at a distance d from the second wire is B₂ = μ₀i₂/2πd.

The magnetic force due to this field on the first wire of length segment, L and current i₁ is F₂ = Bi₁L = (μ₀i₂/2πd)i₁L = μ₀i₁i₂L/2πd = F

Since their magnetic fields are in opposite directions, according to the right hand rule, their forces would also be in opposite directions.

So F₁ = F and F₂ = -F

So their vector sum F₁ + F₂ = F +(-F) = F - F = 0

Answer:

Gravitational force can be seen as the pull that the earth has on an piece of matter. Everything on earth has a force acting on it which is gravity. It tries to pull two object closer to each other but never apart. The numerical value for gravitational force is 9.8 m/s^2 for free falling objects

Answer:

The overall charge on the wall is zero.

Explanation:

Because the atoms making the wall are neutral i.e. number of positive charges are equal to number of negative charges.

Answer:

the following image will make you understand

Explanation:

Answer:

The answer to this should be: 5.0 x 10⁸ Hz

Explanation:

The speed, s, of a wave, equals the product of its frequency, ν, times its wavelength, λ:

s = νλ.

As the question states, the speed of an electromagnetic wave is a constant, c, equal to 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s.

Substituting this constant in the equation for the speed of the wave, you get:

c =  νλ.

From that equation, you can solve for the frequency to show the inverse realation of frequency and wavelength:

ν =  c / λ

Now, you just have to substitute values and compute, leaving you with:

5.0 x 10⁸ Hz