pls help thannnnkkkss <33

D should be your answer :)

Answer:

52.9

??

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

thats it

Answer:

A = $45948

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the following data;

Principal = $8000

Interest rate = 6% = 6/100 = 0.06

Time = 30 years

To find the future value, we would use the compound interest formula;

[tex] A = P(1 + \frac{r}{100})^{t}[/tex]

Where;

A is the future value.

P is the principal or starting amount.

r is annual interest rate.

t is the number of years for the compound interest.

Substituting into the equation, we have;

[tex] A = 8000(1 + \frac{6}{100})^{30}[/tex]

[tex] A = 8000(1 + 0.06)^{30}[/tex]

[tex] A = 8000(1.06)^{30}[/tex]

[tex] A = 8000(5.7435)[/tex]

A = $45948

Answer: -5

Step-by-step explanation:

-8 + (15-3) / 4

-8 + 12 / 4

-8 + 3

-5

Answer:

1/14

Step-by-step explanation:

The sectors labeled are B, Y, G, C, P, F, O, V, M, A, D, E, H, and R.

Total number of sectors = 14.

When Victoria spins the spinner 18 times, and it stops at the letter B 10 times.

When Victoria spins the spinner  the theoretical probability that this time it will stop at the letter B = Favourable  outcomes ÷total number of outcomes.

Favourable outcomes =1 and Total number of outcomes = 14.

Hence Theoretical Probability = 1 over 14.

Answer:

that child is correct so give them brainylest.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

ask cymath it will help you with any mathmatical problem

Answer:

46

Step-by-step explanation:

6+4×10=6+40

6+40=46

Answer:

u mad bruv? xD  Xd DxD XDXDXDdd

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D, 225

Step-by-step explanation:

Because this equation already has a1, it's useless to test with that, so instead solve for a2.

You would have a2 - 5a1, which would get you a2 = 5(9) because we already know what a1 is, which is 9. a2 = 45

Now we have a2, which is 45, so now we solve for a3

We would have a3 = 5a2 = a3 = 5(45) which is 225 which is a3

Also thanks for the fat 18 points dude, you really put 36 points into this one big value hope this one helped you a lot

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

A. Distance(16)= 30

Answer:

y = 11 + 5

Step-by-step explanation:

So she is 5 years younger, which would mean that it would be y - 5, and using inverse operations, we get y = 11 + 5

hope this helps:/

Answer:

o

Step-by-step explanation:

-4h=32

h=32/-4

h=-8

Answer:

h=-8

Step-by-step explanation:

-4h=32

Isolate h by dividing -4 on both sides

h=32/-4

Simplify

h=-8

If this helps please mark as brainliest

Answer:

[tex]Width = 14feet[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]Area = 154[/tex]

[tex]Width = 11[/tex]

Required

The length

Area is calculated as:

[tex]Area = Length * Width[/tex]

Make Width, the subject

[tex]Width = \frac{Area}{Length}[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]Width = \frac{154}{11}[/tex]

[tex]Width = 14feet[/tex]

Answer:110 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Then the probability distribution is:

P(0) = 1/3

P(1) = 4/15

P(2) = 1/5

P(3)  = 2/15

P(4) = 1/15

The expected value for X is:

EV = 1.33...

Step-by-step explanation:

We have a total of 6 marbles in the jar.

The probability of getting a red marble in the first try  (X = 0) is equal to the quotient between the number of red marbles and the total number of marbles, this is:

P(0) = 2/6 = 1/3

The probability of drawing one green marble (X = 1)

is:

First, you draw a green marble with a probability of 4/6

Then you draw the red one, but now there are 5 marbles in the jar (2 red ones and 3 green ones), then the probability is 2/5

The joint probability is:

P(1) = (4/6)*(2/5) = (2/3)*(2/5) = 4/15

The probability of drawing two green marbles (X  = 2)

Again, first we draw a green marble with a probability of 4/6

Now we draw again a green marble, now there are 3 green marbles and 5 total marbles in the jar, so this time the probability is 3/5

Now we draw the red marble (there are 2 red marbles and 4 total marbles in the jar), with a probability of 2/4

The joint probability is:

P(2) = (4/6)*(3/5)*(2/4) = (2/6)*(3/5) = 1/5

The probability of drawing 3 green marbles (X = 3)

At this point you may already understand the pattern:

First, we draw a green marble with a probability 4/6

second, we draw a green marble with a probability 3/5

third, we draw a green marble with a probability 2/4

finally, we draw a red marble with a probability 2/3

The joint probability is:

P(3) = (4/6)*(3/5)*(2/4)*(2/3) = (2/6)*(3/5)*(2/3) = (1/5)*(2/3) = (2/15)

Finally, the probability of drawing four green marbles (X = 4) is given by:

First, we draw a green marble with a probability 4/6

second, we draw a green marble with a probability 3/5

third, we draw a green marble with a probability 2/4

fourth, we draw a green marble with a probability 1/3

Finally, we draw a red marble with a probability 2/2 = 1

The joint probability is:

P(4) = (4/6)*(3/5)*(2/4)*(1/3)*1 = (1/5)*(1/3) = 1/15

Then the probability distribution is:

P(0) = 1/3

P(1) = 4/15

P(2) = 1/5

P(3)  = 2/15

P(4) = 1/15

The expected value will be:

EV = 0*P(0) + 1*P(1) + 2*P(2) + 3*P(3) + 4*P(4)

EV = 1*(4/15) + 2*( 1/5) + 3*( 2/15) + 4*(1/15 ) = 1.33

So we can expect to draw 1.33 green marbles in this experiment.

Answer:

First answer: 5x+8x+9+3+4

Second answer: 13x+16

Answer:

1500g:250g

=

6:1

Hope I could help

Step-by-step explanation:

A 106 offered history to students

Answer:

(7,-19)

Step-by-step explanation:

(x,y) --> (x - 11, y - 9)

Substitute x=18 and y = -10 into the translation

(x,y) --> (18 - 11, -10 - 9)  

             (7,-19)

Answer:

The balloon is 1405.38 feet above the ground.

Step-by-step explanation:

tan 37 = opp/adj = x/1865

tan 37/1 = x/1865

1865 tan 37 = x

x=1405.378303...≈1405.38

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

take 18 degree as reference angle

using cos rule

cos 18=adjacent/hypotenuse

0.95=x/27

0.95*27=x

25.65=x

25.7=x

Answer:

[tex]40[/tex]

hope this helps you.

Can I have the brainliest please?

Answer:

I think is B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

thx for the points MWAH!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I think its 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-9 + 4i

Step-by-step explanation:

The additive inverse ("opposite") of a complex number a + bi  is  -a - bi.

Just use the opposites of  a  and  b.

Answer:

108 m^3

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a rectangular prism is the product of all its sides. 12 * 6 * 1.5 = 108