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THANK UUU

Answer:

y intercept = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x)=5•(1/6)^x

The y intercept is when x =0

Let x =0

f(0)=5•(1/6)^0      

= 5* 1     = 5

The y intercept is 5

If the question is

f(x)=5•(1/6)x

although I have never seen the question written this way

The y intercept is when x =0

Let x =0

f(0)=5•(1/6)0      

= 5* 0     = 0

The y intercept is 0

Answer:

B.    1

Step-by-step explanation:

The y-intercept occurs at x = 0

therefor the applicable function is

f(x) = -x + 1

at x=0

f(0) = -0 + 1

f(0) = 1

Answer:

She saved $46

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Price for 3 adults would be $144

2. Price for 4 children would be $104

3. Total price for individual tickets would be $248

4. She bought 1 of [Combo 1] and 1 of [Combo 2]

5. Therefore, she paid $202

6. She saved $46

Answer:

1/14

Step-by-step explanation:

The sectors labeled are B, Y, G, C, P, F, O, V, M, A, D, E, H, and R.

Total number of sectors = 14.

When Victoria spins the spinner 18 times, and it stops at the letter B 10 times.

When Victoria spins the spinner  the theoretical probability that this time it will stop at the letter B = Favourable  outcomes ÷total number of outcomes.

Favourable outcomes =1 and Total number of outcomes = 14.

Hence Theoretical Probability = 1 over 14.

Answer:

that child is correct so give them brainylest.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

52.9

??

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y = 11 + 5

Step-by-step explanation:

So she is 5 years younger, which would mean that it would be y - 5, and using inverse operations, we get y = 11 + 5

hope this helps:/

Answer:

The answer would be 7

Step-by-step explanation:

The equivalent value of the logarithmic equation is x = 7/3

The power to which a number must be increased in order to obtain another number is known as the logarithm. A power is the opposite of a logarithm. In other words, if we subtract an exponentiation from a number by taking its logarithm

The properties of Logarithm are :

log A + log B = log AB

log A − log B = log A/B

log Aⁿ = n log A

Given data ,

Let the logarithmic equation be represented as A

Now , the value of A is

A = log ( 14/3 ) + log ( 11/5 ) - log ( 22/5 )

On simplifying , we get

From the properties of logarithm , we get

log A + log B = log AB

log A − log B = log A/B

So , A = log (14/3) + log (11/5) - log (22/5) = log [(14/3) × (11/5) / (22/5)]

A = log [(14/3) × (11/5) × (5/22)]

A = log ( 14/3 /2 )

A = log ( 7/3 )

Hence , the logarithmic equation is solved

To learn more about logarithm click :

https://brainly.com/question/12049968

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Answer:

I think its 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1500g:250g

=

6:1

Hope I could help

Answer:

D, 225

Step-by-step explanation:

Because this equation already has a1, it's useless to test with that, so instead solve for a2.

You would have a2 - 5a1, which would get you a2 = 5(9) because we already know what a1 is, which is 9. a2 = 45

Now we have a2, which is 45, so now we solve for a3

We would have a3 = 5a2 = a3 = 5(45) which is 225 which is a3

Also thanks for the fat 18 points dude, you really put 36 points into this one big value hope this one helped you a lot

Answer:

-2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-2

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply −1-1 by 22.

−2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

4 - 2x - 8x > -6x - 16

4 - 10x > -6x - 16

4 - 4x > -16

-4x > -20

x < 5

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

take 18 degree as reference angle

using cos rule

cos 18=adjacent/hypotenuse

0.95=x/27

0.95*27=x

25.65=x

25.7=x

Answer:

o

Step-by-step explanation:

-4h=32

h=32/-4

h=-8

Answer:

h=-8

Step-by-step explanation:

-4h=32

Isolate h by dividing -4 on both sides

h=32/-4

Simplify

h=-8

If this helps please mark as brainliest

Answer:

I believe the answer is B) All real numbers

Answer:

Area = 17.5yd

Step-by-step explanation:

Area formula is Area = h * b/2

Area = 5 * 7/2

Area = 17.5

Answer:

is this area or volume? if it's Area 1/2 b*h

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  8)  a. chord

  9)  b. radius

Step-by-step explanation:

8) Of the items listed, only a chord and a diameter are segments. A diameter is a chord, so of the two appropriate choices, we prefer the more general answer "chord" .

__

9) Of the segments listed, only the radius has one end point at the center of the circle.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

V = 3.14 × r² × h

r= 20/2 =10 cm

h = 11 cm

V = 3.14 x10² x 11 = 3454 cm³

Answer:

thx for the points MWAH!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Then the probability distribution is:

P(0) = 1/3

P(1) = 4/15

P(2) = 1/5

P(3)  = 2/15

P(4) = 1/15

The expected value for X is:

EV = 1.33...

Step-by-step explanation:

We have a total of 6 marbles in the jar.

The probability of getting a red marble in the first try  (X = 0) is equal to the quotient between the number of red marbles and the total number of marbles, this is:

P(0) = 2/6 = 1/3

The probability of drawing one green marble (X = 1)

is:

First, you draw a green marble with a probability of 4/6

Then you draw the red one, but now there are 5 marbles in the jar (2 red ones and 3 green ones), then the probability is 2/5

The joint probability is:

P(1) = (4/6)*(2/5) = (2/3)*(2/5) = 4/15

The probability of drawing two green marbles (X  = 2)

Again, first we draw a green marble with a probability of 4/6

Now we draw again a green marble, now there are 3 green marbles and 5 total marbles in the jar, so this time the probability is 3/5

Now we draw the red marble (there are 2 red marbles and 4 total marbles in the jar), with a probability of 2/4

The joint probability is:

P(2) = (4/6)*(3/5)*(2/4) = (2/6)*(3/5) = 1/5

The probability of drawing 3 green marbles (X = 3)

At this point you may already understand the pattern:

First, we draw a green marble with a probability 4/6

second, we draw a green marble with a probability 3/5

third, we draw a green marble with a probability 2/4

finally, we draw a red marble with a probability 2/3

The joint probability is:

P(3) = (4/6)*(3/5)*(2/4)*(2/3) = (2/6)*(3/5)*(2/3) = (1/5)*(2/3) = (2/15)

Finally, the probability of drawing four green marbles (X = 4) is given by:

First, we draw a green marble with a probability 4/6

second, we draw a green marble with a probability 3/5

third, we draw a green marble with a probability 2/4

fourth, we draw a green marble with a probability 1/3

Finally, we draw a red marble with a probability 2/2 = 1

The joint probability is:

P(4) = (4/6)*(3/5)*(2/4)*(1/3)*1 = (1/5)*(1/3) = 1/15

Then the probability distribution is:

P(0) = 1/3

P(1) = 4/15

P(2) = 1/5

P(3)  = 2/15

P(4) = 1/15

The expected value will be:

EV = 0*P(0) + 1*P(1) + 2*P(2) + 3*P(3) + 4*P(4)

EV = 1*(4/15) + 2*( 1/5) + 3*( 2/15) + 4*(1/15 ) = 1.33

So we can expect to draw 1.33 green marbles in this experiment.

It should be A. The distance between Jupiter and Earth is Greater than the distance between Mercury and Earth.

Step-by-step explanation:

21.6%

mark as brainliest

Answer:

195

Step-by-step explanation:

65%=65÷100=0.65

0.65×300=195

Answer:

5k and -3k are like variables

constants 7 and -2 are like terms

5+2k+n is equivalent expression

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

46

Step-by-step explanation:

6+4×10=6+40

6+40=46

D should be your answer :)

Answer:

A = $45948

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the following data;

Principal = $8000

Interest rate = 6% = 6/100 = 0.06

Time = 30 years

To find the future value, we would use the compound interest formula;

[tex] A = P(1 + \frac{r}{100})^{t}[/tex]

Where;

A is the future value.

P is the principal or starting amount.

r is annual interest rate.

t is the number of years for the compound interest.

Substituting into the equation, we have;

[tex] A = 8000(1 + \frac{6}{100})^{30}[/tex]

[tex] A = 8000(1 + 0.06)^{30}[/tex]

[tex] A = 8000(1.06)^{30}[/tex]

[tex] A = 8000(5.7435)[/tex]

A = $45948

Answer:

I think is B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The balloon is 1405.38 feet above the ground.

Step-by-step explanation:

tan 37 = opp/adj = x/1865

tan 37/1 = x/1865

1865 tan 37 = x

x=1405.378303...≈1405.38