Please help me with this question!

Answer:

B. 33

Step-by-step explanation:

45/30 = x/22

3/2 = x/22

2x = 3 * 22

x = 3 * 11

x = 33

Answer:

B. 33

Step-by-step explanation:

39 / 26 = 1.5

45 / 30 = 1.5

22 x 1.5 = 33

Answer:

SAS

Step-by-step explanation:

Please let me know if this doesn't help. I'm trying my best to relearn this so I can help you.

Answer:

d = 8.5

Step-by-step explanation:

The following data were obtained from the question:

Angle D = 100°

Opposite D = d

Opposite E = e = 6

Opposite F = f = 5

Thus, we can obtain the value of d by using the cosine rule as shown below:

d² = e² + f² – 2ef Cos D

d² = 6² + 5² – 2 × 6 × 5 × Cos 100°

d² = 36 + 25 – 60 × Cos 100°

d² = 61 – – 10.419

d² = 61 + 10.419

d² = 71.419

Take the square root of both side.

d = √71.419

d = 8.5

Therefore, the value of d is 8.5

Answer:

The equation is true

Step-by-step explanation:

The best way to check if this equate is true is to convert the pi in radians to degree and actually evaluate the trigonometric terms.

Mathematically we know that pi = 180 degrees

So pi/8 = 22.5

and pi/4 = 180/4 = 45

So let’s make our check.

Insert pi = 22.5 and pi = 45

So we have;

tan 22/5 = √(1-cos45)/(1+cos45)

Now let’s evaluate this using a calculator.

tan 22/5 = 0.414213562373

The term in the root; 0.171572875254

The square root of this number is 0.414213562373

This is exactly as what is obtained with the tan 22.5

So we conclude that what we have is true

Answer:

679=49

Step-by-step explanation:

3838 is the one for 928 cause 666

Answer:

The probability that a defective ball bearing was manufactured on a Friday is 0.375.

Step-by-step explanation:

The conditional probability of an events X given that another event A has already occurred is:

[tex]P(X|A)=\frac{P(A|X)P(X)}{P(A)}[/tex]

The information provided is as follows:

P (D|M) = 0.08

P (D|Tu) = 0.04

P (D|W) = 0.04

P (D|Th) = 0.04

P (D|F) = 0.12

It is provided that the Company manufactures an equal amount of ball bearings, 20% on each weekday, i.e.

P (M) = P (Tu) = P (W) = P (Th) = P (F) = 0.20

Compute the probability of manufacturing a defective ball bearing on any given day as follows:

[tex]P(D)=P(D|M)P(M)+P(D|Tu)P(Tu)+P(D|W)P(W)\\+P(D|Th)P(Th)+P(D|F)P(F)[/tex]

      [tex]=(0.08\times 0.20)+(0.04\times 0.20)+(0.04\times 0.20)+(0.04\times 0.20)+(0.12\times 0.20)\\\\=0.064[/tex]

Compute the probability that a defective ball bearing was manufactured on a Friday as follows:

[tex]P(F|D)=\frac{(D|F)P(F)}{P(D)}[/tex]

             [tex]=\frac{0.12\times 0.20}{0.064}\\\\=0.375[/tex]

Thus, the probability that a defective ball bearing was manufactured on a Friday is 0.375.

Answer:

The triangle has two sides that are equivalent and the angle where the two meet are also equivalent.

In other words, two sides and the angle between them are congruent.

Hope this helps, if it does please give me brainliest, it will help me a lot :)

Have a good day

Answer:

A on edge

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\frac{9}{4}/\frac{3}{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]-2\frac{1}{4}[/tex] is equilavalent to [tex]-\frac{9}{4\\}[/tex].

[tex]-\frac{2}{3}[/tex] can stay put.

The equation is division so neither answers #2 and #3 are the correct ones because when dividing fractions the second fraction has to be flipped in order to continue multiplying instead.

In addition, when two negatives are put together the answer must always be positive.  

Hence the answer is [tex]\frac{9}{4}/\frac{3}{2}[/tex].

Answer:

He spent $6 on each file

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello,

To solve this question, we need to bring out our variables from the equation.

He spent $40.80 for 3 files and 2 pencil cases

Let x represent the file

Let y represent the pencil case

But the file is $5.40 less than each pencil case

x = y - 5.40.....equation (i)

40.80 = 3x + 2y .......equation (ii)

Substitute equation (i) into equation (ii)

40.80 = 3(y - 5.40) + 2y

40.80 = 3y - 16.20 + 2y

Collect like terms

40.80 + 16.20 = 3y + 2y

57 = 5y

Solve for y

y = 57 / 5

y = 11.4

The pencil case costs $11.4 each.

Put y = 11.4 into equation (i)

x = 11.4 - 5.40

x = 6.0

The file costs $6 each

Answer:

Answer:

-25 and -23

Step-by-step explanation:

The arithmetic sequences are the same so we will have the same formula for each of them. The first term (a₁) is 3 and the common difference (d) is -2.

Explicit formula: aₙ = a₁ + (n - 1) * d

Our formula is aₙ = 3 + (n - 1) * (-2) = -2n + 5

a₁₅ = -2 * 15 + 5 = -25

a₁₄ = -2 * 14 + 5 = -23

Answer: -25 and -23

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 0.49 ± 0.0237

Step-by-step explanation: A interval of a 99% confidence interval for the population proportion can be found by:

[tex]p_{hat}[/tex] ± z.[tex]\sqrt{\frac{p_{hat}(1-p_{hat})}{n} }[/tex]

[tex]p_{hat}[/tex] is the proportion:

[tex]p_{hat}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1455}{2957}[/tex]

[tex]p_{hat}[/tex] = 0.49

For a 99% confidence interval, z = 2.576:

0.49 ± 2.576.[tex]\sqrt{\frac{0.49(1-0.49)}{2957} }[/tex]

0.49 ± 2.576.[tex]\sqrt{\frac{0.49*0.51}{2957} }[/tex]

0.49 ± 2.576.(0.0092)

0.49 ± 0.0237

For a 99% confidence interval, the proportion will be between 0.4663 and 0.5137 or 0.49 ± 0.0237

Answer:

y>9x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

y-9x+(9x)>6+(9x)

y>9x+6

Explanation:

The x intercepts here are -1, 2 and 3. This is where the graph crosses the x axis. We can determine these three values by solving f(x) = 0.

In other words, set (x-3)(x-2)(x+1) equal to zero and solve for x.

(x-3)(x-2)(x+1) = 0

x-3 = 0 or x-2 = 0 or x+1 = 0

x = 3 or x = 2 or x = -1

x = -1 or x = 2 or x = 3

When we expand out (x-3)(x-2)(x+1), there will only be one x^3 term and the coefficient for this term is positive 1. The positive leading coefficient indicates that the graph goes up forever as we move to the right. In other words, the graph grows forever after passing that dip between x = 2 and x = 3.

Another way you could phrase it is that "as x goes to infinity, y also goes to infinity". An informal way is to say "the graph rises to the right" to describe the end behavior.

Answer:

The correct option is;

b) Vertically stretches by a factor 2 then flip over horizontal axis

Step-by-step explanation:

In the function y = -2×cos(x - pi), given that the maximum value of the cosine function is 1 and that the value of the cosine function ranges from +1 to -1, we have that a factor larger than 1, multiplying a cosine function vertically stretches the function and a negative factor flips the function over the horizontal axis by transforming the y-coordinate value from y to -y

Therefore, the factor of -2, vertically stretches the the function by a factor of 2 then flip over horizontal axis.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

-2x + 3 = -x + 6

-x + 3 = 6

-x = 3

x = -3

y = 3 + 6

y = 9

(-3, 9)

Answer:

r = 1.59inch

the radius of the cylinder is

1.59inch

Step by step Explanation

lateral surface of a cylinder can be calculated using the below formula

Surface Area= 2 πr h

We were given area as 400inch^2 and height as 40inch then substitute we have

400 = 2 ×π × r ×40

400= 2×22/7×40

Then do the calculation, where, π

=22/7

400 = r × 251.2

Make r subject of formula we have

r = 400 / 251.2

r = 1.59inch

Therefore, the radius of the cylinder is

1.59inch

CHECK THE ATTACHMENT FOR THE FIGURE

Answer:

y-x

Step-by-step explanation:

I assumed you meant that you wanted me to rewrite the expression without the absolute value signs. Since the absolute value of a number will be the same whichever way you place the numbers, you can rewrite |x-y| as y-x, as x is less than y.

Answer:

28.142m

Step-by-step explanation:

area of rectangle=width x lenght

so; (rotating the formula with what is given)

area of rectangle/width=lenght

197/7=lenght

28.142m =lenght

Answer:

Length is 18 m and width is 11 m

Step-by-step explanation:

So based on the information given length is seven cm more than your width, and since we don’t know the values of these, we can plot this information into a formula that looks like this: (x+7)(x)=198, which is basically how you take the area of the plot of land.

If you multiply your values, you will get a quadratic equation that looks like this x²+7x-198. If you follow the quadratic formula to solve this equation, the positive result you will get for x is 11, this is your width. And since length exceeds by 7, you just add 7 to 11 to find the length, which ends up being 18.

to verify, you can simply multiply these two values

Step-by-step explanation:

Shape A is flipped horizontally onto the x-axis

The new shape is mirroring Shape A

Answer:

4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Use sin64=x/5 and simplify to

5sin64 and plug it into a calculator to get 4.49 which is 4.5

Answer:

[tex]P(Red\ or\ Blue) = \frac{11}{16}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]Red = 9[/tex]

[tex]Blue = 2[/tex]

[tex]Yellow = 5[/tex]

Required

Probability of Red or Blue

First, it should be noted that the event described in the question are mutually exclusive or disjoint events;

Meaning that the probability of one have no effect the other;

Having said that; the Probability of Red ot Blue is as follows

[tex]P(Red\ or\ Blue) = P(Red) + P(Blue)[/tex]

Calculating [tex]P(Blue)[/tex]

[tex]P(Blue) = Number\ of\ blue\ crayon / total\ crayon[/tex]

[tex]P(Blue) = \frac{2}{9+ 2 + 5}[/tex]

[tex]P(Blue) = \frac{2}{16}[/tex]

Calculating [tex]P(Red)[/tex]

[tex]P(Red) = Number\ of\ red\ crayon / total\ crayon[/tex]

[tex]P(Red) = \frac{9}{9+ 2 + 5}[/tex]

[tex]P(Red) = \frac{9}{16}[/tex]

Substitute these values in the formula given above

[tex]P(Red\ or\ Blue) = P(Red) + P(Blue)[/tex]

[tex]P(Red\ or\ Blue) = \frac{9}{16} + \frac{2}{16}[/tex]

Take LCM

[tex]P(Red\ or\ Blue) = \frac{9 + 2}{16}[/tex]

[tex]P(Red\ or\ Blue) = \frac{11}{16}[/tex]

Hence, the probability of a red or blue crayon is

[tex]P(Red\ or\ Blue) = \frac{11}{16}[/tex]

Answer:

A, B, C

Step-by-step explanation:

x is in the intersection of sets B and C, in set B, in set C, in the union of sets B and C, in the union of sets A and C

Answer: A, B, C

Answer:

[tex]\huge\boxed{x\in\bigg(A\cup C\bigg)}[/tex]

[tex]\huge\boxed{x\in\bigg(B\cup C\bigg)}\\\\\boxed{x\in\bigg(B\cap C\bigg)}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Look at the picture

Answer:

a) 60,000 cubic cm

b)600,000 cubic mm

c)60 L

Step-by-step explanation

To find the volume, you would have to multiply the height length and width.

50*40*30 and that equals to 60,000 cm. 10 mm=1cm.

So 60,000*10=b, b=600,000,  1,000 cm=1 L

60,000/1,000=L, L=60

Hope this helps. If it does, please rate 5 stars!

Answer:

work is shown and pictured

Answer:

case 1

3x-7y=9

-4x+5y=1

using a graph tool

the solution is the point (-4,-3)------------------> one solution

case 2

y=6x-2

y=6x-4

two parallel lines

the system has no solution---------------> zero solution

case 3

-5x+y=10

-25x+5y=50

is the same line----------------> infinite solutions

Answer: x = -12

Step-by-step explanation:

-1/2x=6

Divide by -1/2

x = -12

Hope it helps <3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: The expected loss is 50 cents, we know that it is more likely to lose than win. It is therefore difficult to get-50, so the overall difference between the two possibilities is 2, 50/200=1/4, and the probability to win is 1/4, and the probability to lose is 3/4. Since (1/4)*3=3/4, the number of black balls is 3 times the number of white balls, so k=15.

Step-by-step explanation:

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To find Angle A we use cosine

cos ∅ = adjacent / hypotenuse

From the question

The adjacent is 17

The hypotenuse is 38

So we have

cos A = 17/38

A = cos-¹ 17/38

A = 63.4

To find Angle C we use sine

sin ∅ = opposite / hypotenuse

From the question

The opposite is 17

The hypotenuse is 38

So we have

sin C = 17/38

C = sin-¹ 17/38

C = 26.57

Hope this helps you

Answer:

(identity has been verified)

Step-by-step explanation:

Verify the following identity:

(sec(A) + tan(A)) (1 - sin(A)) = cos(A)

Write secant as 1/cosine and tangent as sine/cosine:

(1 - sin(A)) (1/cos(A) + sin(A)/cos(A)) = ^?cos(A)

Put 1/cos(A) + sin(A)/cos(A) over the common denominator cos(A): 1/cos(A) + sin(A)/cos(A) = (sin(A) + 1)/cos(A):

(sin(A) + 1)/cos(A) (1 - sin(A)) = ^?cos(A)

Multiply both sides by cos(A):

(1 - sin(A)) (sin(A) + 1) = ^?cos(A)^2

(1 - sin(A)) (sin(A) + 1) = 1 - sin(A)^2:

1 - sin(A)^2 = ^?cos(A)^2

cos(A)^2 = 1 - sin(A)^2:

1 - sin(A)^2 = ^?1 - sin(A)^2

The left hand side and right hand side are identical:

Answer: (identity has been verified)

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Let's do this step by step.

Prove that sec A ( 1 - sin A) ( sec A + tan A) = 1

Solving L.H.S

sec A ( 1 - sin A) ( sec A + tan A)

[tex]= \frac{1}{cos A} ( 1 - sin A ) ( \frac{1}{cos A} + \frac{sin A }{cos A})[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{(1 - sin A)}{cos A} ( \frac{1 + sin A }{cos A })[/tex][tex]= \frac{( 1 - sin A)( 1 + sin A)}{cos A X cos A}[/tex]

We know that [tex]( a - b) ( a + b) = a^2 - b^2[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{( 1^2 - sin^2 A)}{cos^2 A}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{( 1 - sin^2 A)}{cos^2 A}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{cos^2 A}{cos^2 A}[/tex]                         [tex]| cos^2 A + sin^2 A = 1 | cos^2 A = 1 - sin^2 A |[/tex][tex]1 - sin^2 A = cos^2 A[/tex]

[tex]= 1[/tex]

[tex]= R . H. S[/tex]

Thus, L.H.S = R.H.S

Hence proved.

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Hope this helped you.

Could you maybe give brainliest..?

❀*May*❀