PLEASE ANSWER!!! Brainliest to whoever answers at first!Order the following expressions by their values from least to greatest.

Answer:

5/8

Step-by-step explanation:

Add the two fractions

3/8 + 1/4

Get a common denominator

3/8 + 1/4 *2/2

3/8 + 2/8

5/8

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When graphing a system of equations, the solution is the point where the two lines meet. We see that they intersect at (-2,4).

Therefore, the solution to the system of equations is (-2,4).

Have a wonderful day! :D

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

edge 2020 Dec 9

Answer:

(a) The experiment defined here is a random variable that includes the selecting of 3 people from the set of voter registration and driving records.

(b) The simple events in sample space, S = (M, M, M), (M, F, M), (M, M, F), (F, M, M), (F, M, F), (F, F, M), (M, F, F), and (F, F, F).

(c) If each person is just as likely to be a man as a woman, then the probability for each of the simple event can be assigned as [tex]0.5 \times 0.5 \times 0.5 = 0.125[/tex].

(d) The probability that only one of the three is a man is 0.375.

(e) The probability that all three are women is 0.125.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that three people are randomly selected from voter registration and driving records to report for jury duty. The gender of each person is noted by the county clerk.

(a) The experiment defined here is a random variable that includes the selecting of 3 people from the set of voter registration and driving records.

(b) As we know that the gender of each person is noted by the county clerk, which means one is male and another female.

So, the simple events in sample space, S = (M, M, M), (M, F, M), (M, M, F), (F, M, M), (F, M, F), (F, F, M), (M, F, F), and (F, F, F).

Here, M is denoted for male and F for female.

(c) If each person is just as likely to be a man as a woman, then the probability for each of the simple event can be assigned as [tex]0.5 \times 0.5 \times 0.5 = 0.125[/tex].

Because there is 50-50 chance of selecting males or females.

(d) The probability that only one of the three is a man is given by;

The total cases in the sample space = 8

Number of cases of only one man out of three = 3

So, the required probability =  [tex]\frac{3}{8}[/tex] = 0.375.

(e) The probability that all three are women is given by;

The total cases in the sample space = 8

Number of cases of all three are women = 1

So, the required probability =  [tex]\frac{1}{8}[/tex] = 0.125.

Answer:

$856

Step-by-step explanation:

Find 7% of $800 and then add it to $800

Answer:

bajskalakbskajalabsnsja

https://youtu.be/ipEbWgC-6nA

Answer:

XD,XE,XF

Step-by-step explanation:

XA,XB,XC,XD,XE,XF

IT IS BECAUSE OF THE ALPHABETICAL ORDER AFTER X

Answer:

6/9 and 10/15

Step-by-step explanation:

they're both 2/3

Answer:

Point D

Step-by-step explanation:

CD and MD share a common point, so it is the intersection

D

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-Chetan K

Answer:

64

Step-by-step explanation:

The Ratio of Blue to White drops is 2:8

16*4=64,... 16:64 Have a nice day!

Answer:

d. 31% of the variance in characters per word is accounted for by words per sentence.

Step-by-step explanation:

The coefficient of determination is the statistical measurement that determines the impact in difference of one variable which is explained by the difference in another variable. It is denoted by [tex]R^{2}[/tex] or R-squared. It helps in predicting the outcome of the event.

Answer:

10(4f+3)

Step-by-step explanation:

boo

Answer:

∠ A ≈ 79.0°

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the Cosine rule to find the angle

cosA = [tex]\frac{b^2+c^2-a^2}{2bc}[/tex]

        = [tex]\frac{15^2+29^2-30^2}{2(15)(29)}[/tex]

        = [tex]\frac{225+841-900}{870}[/tex]

        = [tex]\frac{166}{870}[/tex] , then

A = [tex]cos^{-1}[/tex] ([tex]\frac{166}{870}[/tex] ) ≈ 79.0° ( to the nearest tenth )

Answer:

18 outfits

Step-by-step explanation:

To determine the number of outfits available

3 shirts * 3 pairs of pants * 2 pairs of shoes

3*3*2

18

We usually write explicit functions as one variable in terms of another variable. A simple example of an explicit function is a linear function, such as y = 4x - 7. This function is written as the dependent variable y in terms of the independent variable x.

Hey there! I'm happy to help!

Lines that are parallel have the same slopes because they are increasing or decreasing at the same rate and therefore will never bump into each other.

We see that y=2 has a slope of 0 because there is no x that we can see in the equation. This is just a flat line.

If the line we are looking for is flat; it stays at the same y-value the entire time. We see that  the y-value for this line of ours is -6. Therefore, the answer is C. y=-6.

I hope that this helps! Have a wonderful day!

Answer:

Lines that are parallel have the same slopes because they are increasing or decreasing at the same rate and therefore will never bump into each other.

We see that y=2 has a slope of 0 because there is no x that we can see in the equation. This is just a flat line.

If the line we are looking for is flat; it stays at the same y-value the entire time. We see that  the y-value for this line of ours is -6. Therefore, the answer is C. y=-6.

Step-by-step explanation:

; ) BELIEVE IN YOURSELF!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Answer:

Undefined

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope formula = [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{y_{2}-y_{1}}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{4-(-6)}{4-4}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{10}{0}[/tex]

A number can not have a denominator of 0, therefore making the slope undefined.

Answer:

Undefined.

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the slope formula: [tex]\frac{y_1-y_2}{x_1-x_2}[/tex]

[tex]m=\frac{-6-4}{4-4}=\frac{-10}{0}=[/tex] Undefined

Answer:

The mean, variance, and standard deviation of the binomial distribution are 10, 8, and 2.83 respectively.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to find the mean, variance, and standard deviation of the binomial distribution with the given values of n and p, i.e; n = 50 p = 0.2.

Let X = binomial random variable

So, X ~ Binom(n = 50, p = 0.2)

Now, the mean of the binomial distribution is given by;

         Mean of X, E(X) = n [tex]\times[/tex] p

                                    = 50 [tex]\times[/tex] 0.2 = 10

Now, the variance of the binomial distribution is given by;

        Variance of X, V(X) = n [tex]\times[/tex] p [tex]\times[/tex] (1 - p)

                                         = 50 [tex]\times[/tex] 0.2 [tex]\times[/tex] (1 - 0.2)

                                         = 10 [tex]\times[/tex] 0.8 = 8

Also, the standard deviation of the binomial distribution is given by;

        Standard deviation of X, S.D.(X) = [tex]\sqrt{\text{n} \times \text{p} \times (1 - \text{p})}[/tex]

                                                              = [tex]\sqrt{\text{50} \times \text{0.2} \times (1 - \text{0.2})}[/tex]

                                                              = [tex]\sqrt{8}[/tex] = 2.83

Answer:

48.50 dollars.

Step-by-step explanation:

The collector has a total of 224 coins but 74 of them are 25 cents coins. So, in order to find the number of 20-cent coins we're going to subtract the number of 25-cent coins from the total.

Number of 20-cent coins = 224 - 74 = 150.

Thus, the collector has 150 20-cent coins and 74 25-cent coins for a total of 224 coins.

Now, to know the total value of the collection we need to multiply the value of the coins by the number of coins there are of this value (we are going to do it with the 20-cent and the 25-cent coins) and then sum up our results.

Total value = 74(25) + 150 (20) = 1850 + 3000 = 4850 cents.

So the total value is 4850 cents, we know that each dollar has 100 cents so, to express this number in dollars we are going to divide it by 100 and thus we have that the total value of the collection is 48.50 dollars.

Answer:

surface area of a prism is

48 km^2

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

First we need to find the slope

m = ( y2-y1)/ ( x2-x1)

   = (60-64)/( 10-0)

   = -6/10

   = -2/5

The y intercept is (0,64)

The slope intercept form of the equation is

y = mx+b  where m is the slope and b is the y intercept

y = -2/5 x + 64  where y is in the thousands of feet

m = -2/5 * 1000 = -400 ft / minute

The height decreases since the sign is negative

The height decreases 400 ft per minute

The y intercept is (0,64)

64 is in the thousands of ft

64*1000 = 64,000 ft

When it starts, it is at 64,000 ft

The descent starts at a cruising altitude of 64,000 ft

Answer:

bgd=cgd+cgb

agf=cgd

50=cgd

cgd=50

bgd=90

so cgd=50

bgc=40

bgd=90

Answer:

C  90-degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Using alternate interior angles, you can say m<CGD = 50 degrees.

From here, using the fact that line BE is a bisector of line CF, we know that the sum of degrees of the line BE would be 180 degrees.

So we can say m<EGD + m<CGD + m<BGC = 180.  Plug in our known values.

90 + 50 + m<BGC = 180

m<BGC = 40

And we can see that m<BGD = m<BGC + m<CGD

Thus, m<BGD = 40 + 50 = 90.

So the m<BGD = 90 degrees.

Cheers.

Answer:

A. 30+20+10=50+10=60

Step-by-step explanation:

The commutative property is the property of which you can rearrange the numbers around but the answer stays the same. From the original equation, you moved 20 and 10 around and added 30+20=50 then, you add 10 plus that 50 since you haven't done anything to the 10 yet. So, 50+10=60.

Hope this helped! Please rate 5 stars and give Brainliest!

Answer:

  your answer is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

For the purpose here, we'll call the missing point on the arc through Z point X.

Essentially, you want to make ΔXYZ ≅ ΔLMN by SSS. The construction so far ensures LM ≅ MN ≅ XY ≅ YZ. By copying the length LN to XZ, you ensure the congruence of the remaining sides of the triangles.

Then ∠XYZ ≅ ∠LMN because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent.

In short, XZ needs to be the same distance as LN.

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the y value is the same, we only need to find the distance between the x points

1-0 = 1

The distance between the point is 1

Answer : 1 unit.

Explanation: Since ( 0,0 ) is at 0 on the x axis, ( 1,0 ) is one unit to the right of 0, 1.

Answer:

3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

find a common number that 18 and 24 are both divisible by. I chose 6. So when i divide 6 by 18, I got 3. Which I put on my numerator, when I divided 24 by 6 I got 4 which I put on my denominator. My end result was 3/4

Answer:

3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

18/24

=2*9=18

=2*12=24

=9/12

=3/4

Answer:

False

True

True

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle 1 cannot be equal to angle 4. Even by just viewing one can see that they can't be equal.

Angle 1 and 2 when combined give a 90 degree angle going from a to c.

Angle 3 and 4 form a 180 degree angle.

HOPE THIS HELPED

Answer:

After solving the power:

[tex]\bold{2(cos60^\circ+isin60^\circ)}[/tex]

Rectangular form:

[tex]\bold{1+i\sqrt3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the complex number:

[tex]2(cos20^\circ+isin20^\circ)^3[/tex]

To find:

The indicated power by using De Moivre's theorem.

The complex number in rectangular form.

Rectangular form of a complex number is given as [tex]a+ib[/tex] where a and b are real numbers.

Solution:

First of all, let us have a look at the De Moivre's theorem:

[tex](cos\theta+isin\theta )^n=cos(n\theta)+isin(n\theta )[/tex]

First of all, let us solve:

[tex](cos20^\circ+isin20^\circ)^3[/tex]

Let us apply the De Moivre's Theorem:

Here, n = 3

[tex](cos20^\circ+isin20^\circ)^3 = cos(3 \times 20)^\circ+isin(3 \times 20)^\circ\\\Rightarrow cos60^\circ+isin60^\circ[/tex]

Now, the given complex number becomes:

[tex]2(cos60^\circ+isin60^\circ)[/tex]

Let us put the values of [tex]cos60^\circ = \frac{1}{2}[/tex] and [tex]sin60^\circ = \frac{\sqrt3}{2}[/tex]

[tex]2(\dfrac{1}{2}+i\dfrac{\sqrt3}2)\\\Rightarrow (2 \times \dfrac{1}{2}+i\dfrac{\sqrt3}2\times 2)\\\Rightarrow \bold{1 +i\sqrt3 }[/tex]

So, the rectangular form of the given complex number is:

[tex]\bold{1+i\sqrt3}[/tex]

Answer:

The total   profit is [tex]p = 17x + 2124[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The profit made on each mp3 is  k  =  $35

    The profit made on each mp3 is  y =  $18

     The total amount sold is   n  =  118

 Now given that the amount of mp3 sold is x then the amount of  DVD sold is mathematically evaluated as

                      [tex]n - x[/tex]

Now the profit made on the x number of mp3 sold is  

                      [tex]x * 35 = 3x[/tex]

And the the profit made from the n-x number of  DVD  sold is  18 (n-x ) =  18 - 18x

 So the total profit made last week from the sales of both mp3 and DVD  is  

                   [tex]p = 35x + 18n - 18x[/tex]

                    [tex]p = 17x + 18(118)[/tex]

                    [tex]p = 17x + 2124[/tex]