percent of sales method at the end of the current year, accounts receivable has a balance of $710,000; allowance for doubtful accounts has a credit balance of $6,500; and sales for the year total $3,200,000. bad debt expense is estimated at 1/4 of 1% of sales. determine the amount of the adjusting entry for uncollectible accounts.

Answers

Answer 1

The amount of adjusting entry for uncollectible accounts is $1500.

To determine the amount of the adjusting entry for uncollectible accounts using the percent of sales method, follow these steps:

1. Calculate the estimated bad debt expense based on the given percentage of sales.
2. Compare the estimated bad debt expense with the current credit balance of the allowance for doubtful accounts.
3. Determine the adjusting entry needed to match the allowance for doubtful accounts with the estimated bad debt expense.

Step 1: Calculate the estimated bad debt expense.
Bad debt expense = Sales * Bad debt percentage
Bad debt expense = $3,200,000 * (1/4 of 1%)
Bad debt expense = $3,200,000 * (0.25/100)
Bad debt expense = $8,000

Step 2: Compare the estimated bad debt expense with the current credit balance of the allowance for doubtful accounts.
Estimated bad debt expense = $8,000
Current credit balance in allowance for doubtful accounts = $6,500

Step 3: Determine the adjusting entry needed.
Adjusting entry = Estimated bad debt expense - Current credit balance
Adjusting entry = $8,000 - $6,500
Adjusting entry = $1,500
Therefore, the amount of the adjusting entry for uncollectible accounts is $1,500.

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Related Questions

a skateboard firm's fixed costs are $100 and the skateboards are sold for $80. the firm's variable costs are displayed in the table below: quantity of goods variable costs 16 30 17 70 18 135 19 215 20 335 what is the firm's producer surplus?

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If the skateboard firm has fixed costs amounting to $100, and the selling price of the skateboards is $80, then the firm's producer surplus is $1,305.

Producer surplus represents the difference between the price at which a product is sold and the variable costs incurred by the producer. To calculate the producer surplus, we need to determine the quantity at which the variable costs equal or exceed the selling price.

In the given table, we can observe that the selling price of the skateboards is $80. Looking at the variable costs, we find that when the quantity reaches 19 units, the variable costs equal $215, which is greater than the selling price. Therefore, the firm can produce and sell up to 19 skateboards.

To calculate the producer surplus, we subtract the variable costs corresponding to the quantity of 19 skateboards from the total revenue earned at that quantity.

The total revenue is calculated by multiplying the selling price ($80) by the quantity (19).

Total revenue = $80 × 19 = $1,520

Variable costs at quantity 19 = $215

Producer surplus = Total revenue - Variable costs at quantity 19

= $1,520 - $215

= $1,305

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what is the riskiest element of the project estimating and planning? cost control benchmarks estimating productivity schedule type choice none of the above

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The riskiest element of project estimating and planning is none of the above, as it varies depending on the specific project and its unique challenges.

However, some common factors that can increase risk include inaccurate cost estimating, unrealistic productivity benchmarks, poor schedule management, and insufficient consideration of the type of project and its requirements. It is important to carefully assess and mitigate these risks in order to increase the chances of project success.
The riskiest element of project estimating and planning is often the accuracy of estimating productivity. This is because productivity directly impacts cost control, schedule, and ultimately the project's success. Inaccurate productivity estimates can lead to missed deadlines, cost overruns, and poor performance against benchmarks.

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supply-side economics focuses on tax cuts to stimulate select one: a. government spending. b. aggregate demand by reducing saving. c. household consumption. d. aggregate supply by increasing productio

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Supply-side economics focuses on tax cuts to stimulate: d. aggregate supply by increasing production.

Supply-side economics focuses on tax cuts to stimulate aggregate supply by increasing production. The idea behind supply-side economics is that by lowering taxes on individuals and businesses, there will be more incentives for people to work, save, and invest, which in turn will lead to an increase in the quantity and quality of goods and services produced in the economy. This increase in production will lead to a rightward shift in the aggregate supply curve, which will increase output and lower prices. By contrast, demand-side economics focuses on stimulating aggregate demand through government spending or monetary policy to boost consumption and investment.

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eric is training for a biathlon, a winter racing sport that combines cross-country skiing and rifle shooting. consider the following scenario: because his ski training sessions are helping him quickly improve at skiing, eric plans to reduce the time he spends training at the shooting range by an hour, and increase the time he spends skiing by an hour. however, his training partner says that he should pause all shooting practice and spend the entire 15 hours this week in the pool. which basic principle of individual choice does eric's plan illustrate that his training partner's advice does not? many decisions are made on the margin. resources are scarce. people usually exploit opportunities to make themselves better off. all costs are opportunity costs.

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Eric's plan illustrates the basic principle of individual choice that many decisions are made on the margin. By reducing the time he spends training at the shooting range and increasing the time he spends skiing, he is making a decision based on the marginal benefits and costs of each activity.

On the other hand, his training partner's advice does not take into account the marginal benefits and costs of spending the entire 15 hours in the pool. This advice ignores the basic principle that resources are scarce and people usually exploit opportunities to make themselves better off.

Additionally, Eric's plan acknowledges that all costs are opportunity costs, as he is reallocating his time and resources to improve his skiing skills.

Eric's plan is to reduce his shooting practice by an hour and increase his skiing practice by an hour. This decision is made on the margin, meaning he is considering the additional benefits and costs of changing his training schedule slightly. His training partner's advice to completely stop shooting practice and spend all 15 hours in the pool does not consider the marginal benefits and costs of this change.

Therefore, the basic principle of individual choice that Eric's plan illustrates, but his training partner's advice does not, is "many decisions are made on the margin."

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Unity of command and the scalar principle are both closely related to the:
a. amount of work specialization in an organization.
b. degree of formalization.
c. chain of command.
d. amount of bureaucracy in the organization.
e. matrix structure.

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Unity of command and the scalar principle are both closely related to the chain of command which refers to the formal line of authority that flows through an organization, from the highest level to the lowest level.

Unity of command means that each employee should report to only one supervisor or manager, while the scalar principle states that there should be a clear and unbroken line of authority from the top to the bottom of the organization. Both of these principles help to ensure that there is clarity and consistency in decision-making and communication throughout the organization.

Unity of command states that each employee should report to only one manager, ensuring clear lines of authority. The scalar principle refers to a clear and unbroken chain of command that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest levels. Both concepts emphasize the importance of a well-defined hierarchy in an organization.

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Taggart transcontinental and phoenix-durango have entered into a stock swap merger agreement whereby taggart will pay a 30% premium over phoenix-durango's premerger price. if taggart's premerger price per share was $15 and phoenix-durango's was $30, then the exchange ratio that taggart will offer is closest to: 2.6:1 0.4:1 2.0:1 1.8:1

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The exchange ratio that Taggart will offer in the stock swap merger with Phoenix-Durango is closest to 2.6:1.

In the stock swap merger between Taggart Transcontinental and Phoenix-Durango, Taggart will pay a 30% premium over Phoenix-Durango's premerger price. To find the exchange ratio that Taggart will offer, follow these steps:
1. Determine Phoenix-Durango's premerger price per share, which is $30.
2. Calculate the 30% premium on Phoenix-Durango's premerger price: 30% x $30 = $9.
3. Add the premium to Phoenix-Durango's premerger price to get the merger price per share: $30 + $9 = $39.


4. Determine Taggart's premerger price per share, which is $15.
5. Divide the merger price of Phoenix-Durango by Taggart's premerger price: $39 / $15 = 2.6. The exchange ratio that taggart will offer is closest to 2.6:1.
This means that for every 2.6 shares of Taggart Transcontinental, one share of Phoenix-Durango will be exchanged.

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Price objections should always be taken at face value and salespeople should seriously think about discounting price. O True O False

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False. Price objections should not always be taken at face value, as they may be a tactic to negotiate a better deal.

Salespeople should explore the underlying reasons for the objection and try to offer value or alternatives instead of immediately resorting to discounting the price as the main solution.
Salespeople should first try to understand the customer's concerns and address them by emphasizing the value and benefits of the product or service. Discounting the price should be considered only after exhausting other options, as it can undermine the perceived value and impact the profitability of the sale.

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the trial balance a.shows the current date. b.lists only accounts that are used to prepare the balance sheet. c.shows only debit balances. d.shows only credit balances.

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The trial balance is a vital accounting tool that presents the balances of all accounts in the general ledger as of a specific date. It incorporates both balance sheet and income statement accounts, displaying both debit and credit balances for each account. So, all options are correct.

The trial balance primarily serves to show the balances of all accounts in the general ledger.

Specifically, it:

a. Shows the current date: The trial balance is prepared as of a specific date, usually at the end of an accounting period. It provides a snapshot of the financial information for that particular date.

b. List accounts used to prepare the balance sheet: The trial balance includes all accounts used in preparing the balance sheet, as well as those used in preparing the income statement. The balance sheet accounts include assets, liabilities, and equity accounts, while the income statement accounts include revenues and expenses.

c. Shows debit balances: The trial balance lists all accounts with their respective debit or credit balances. Accounts with debit balances typically include assets and expenses.

d. Shows credit balances: In addition to debit balances, the trial balance also displays accounts with credit balances. These usually consist of liabilities, equity, and revenue accounts.

In summary, the trial balance is a vital accounting tool that presents the balances of all accounts in the general ledger as of a specific date. It incorporates both balance sheet and income statement accounts, displaying both debit and credit balances for each account.

By providing an overview of the financial information, the trial balance aids in identifying any errors or discrepancies within the accounting records, facilitating the process of preparing accurate financial statements.

Therefore, all options are correct.

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the opportunity cost of a good is the same as its money price. relative price. price index. none of the above.

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None of the above. The opportunity cost of a good is the value of the next best alternative that must be given up in order to pursue the chosen option.

It is not necessarily the same as its money price or relative price, although these factors can certainly influence the opportunity cost.

The opportunity cost of a good is best described as "none of the above" among the given options. Opportunity cost refers to the value of the next best alternative that is forgone when making a decision. It's important to understand that opportunity cost is not necessarily the same as the money price or relative price of a good, as it takes into account the value of alternatives, not just the monetary aspect.

Therefore, None of the above. The opportunity cost of a good is the value of the next best alternative that must be given up in order to pursue the chosen option.

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the more prices a monopoly can set for the same product, choose one or more: a. the smaller the deadweight loss. b. the smaller the consumer surplus. c. the larger the total welfare. d. the higher the producer surplus.

Answers

When a monopoly can set more prices for the same product, the smaller the deadweight loss. The correct option is a. the smaller the deadweight loss.

This is because when a monopoly can set more prices for the same product (also known as price discrimination), it can charge different prices to different consumers based on their willingness to pay. This allows the monopoly to capture more of the consumer surplus, which reduces the deadweight loss that would occur if the monopoly charged a single price to all consumers.

The deadweight loss (option a) would depend on the elasticity of demand for the product, but in general, multiple prices could lead to a smaller deadweight loss than a single high price. The effect on total welfare (option c) would also depend on the elasticity of demand and the distribution of surplus between producers and consumers. However, it is likely that the total welfare would decrease as the monopolist gains more market power through price discrimination. The correct option is a. the smaller the deadweight loss.

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which of the following is most accurate regarding investment companies? a. funds that perform well during specified periods tend to repeat that performance over subsequent periods. b. funds run by a group of managers tend to outperform single manager funds. c. index funds are formed to mimic a specified index with managerial leeway (flexibility) in the asset allocation decision. d. open-end funds are capable of issuing shares and redeeming shares on a daily basis.

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The most accurate statement regarding investment companies among the open-end funds are capable of issuing shares and redeeming shares on a daily basis. The correct option is d.

Open-end funds, also known as mutual funds, allow investors to buy and sell shares at their net asset value (NAV) directly from the fund. The fund issues new shares when investors buy in and redeems shares when investors sell, making the number of outstanding shares flexible.

Option a is not always true, as past performance does not guarantee future results. Option b cannot be generalized, as the performance of a fund depends on various factors and not just the number of managers. Option c is partially correct; while index funds are designed to mimic a specified index, they do not typically have managerial leeway in asset allocation decisions, as the primary goal is to replicate the performance of the underlying index as closely as possible. The correct option is d. open-end funds are capable of issuing shares and redeeming shares on a daily basis.

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Only respond id you can answer both questions!!! Suppose a bottle of wine costs 20 euros in France and 25 dollars in the United States. If the nominal exchange rate is .80 euros per dollar, what is the real exchange rate? If we start with the same scenario as before: a bottle of wine costs 20 euros in France and 25 dollars in the United State, nominal exchange rate is.80 euros/dollar, but then the EU decides to increase the money supply, causing prices to increase and the price of a bottle of wine increases to 30 euros. What does the new nominal exchange rate have to be in order for purchasing power parity to hold?

Answers

The real exchange rate is 1 and the new nominal exchange rate must be 1.20 euros per dollar in order for purchasing power parity to hold.

To calculate the real exchange rate, we need to determine the price of the good (in this case, wine) in terms of the other currency.

Convert the price of wine in the United States to euros using the nominal exchange rate (0.80 euros/dollar).
25 dollars * 0.80 euros/dollar = 20 euros

Step 2: Find the real exchange rate by comparing the prices in both countries.
Real exchange rate = (Price of wine in France) / (Price of wine in the United States in euros)
Real exchange rate = 20 euros / 20 euros = 1

The real exchange rate is 1.

Now, let's find the new nominal exchange rate to maintain purchasing power parity when the price of wine in France increases to 30 euros.

Recall that the price of wine in the United States is still 25 dollars. To maintain purchasing power parity, the price of wine in both countries must be equal when converted to a common currency.

The new nominal exchange rate (let's call it 'x') that makes the prices equal.
30 euros = 25 dollars * x euros/dollar

Therefore,
x = 30 euros / 25 dollars
x = 1.20 euros/dollar

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Using your understanding of the Solow Model, explain therelationship between- human capital and GDP per capita- Capital per capita and GDP per capita

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The Solow Model is an economic framework used to explain how an economy can achieve long-term economic growth. According to this model, the two key factors that drive economic growth are physical capital (i.e., machinery, buildings, and infrastructure) and human capital (i.e., knowledge, skills, and education).

Human capital refers to the knowledge, skills, and education of the workforce in an economy. When a country invests in education and training programs, it can improve the quality of its labor force, which can lead to increased productivity and economic growth. As such, there is a strong positive relationship between human capital and GDP per capita. In other words, countries that invest in human capital tend to have higher GDP per capita than those that do not.

Capital per capita refers to the amount of physical capital available per person in an economy. When a country has more capital per capita, it can produce more goods and services, which can lead to higher productivity and economic growth. As such, there is also a strong positive relationship between capital per capita and GDP per capita. In other words, countries that invest in physical capital tend to have higher GDP per capita than those that do not.

Overall, the Solow Model suggests that a combination of human capital and physical capital is necessary for sustained economic growth. Countries that invest in both of these factors tend to have higher GDP per capita and a higher standard of living than those that do not.

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Answer:The relation between human capital and GDP is direct.

Explanation: The direct relation between them states that when the GDP risies the empitalployemnt also rises which human capital.

Cargowing and record C Comparing the Depreciation Methods Dexter Trustres purchased packaging equipment on January for $523,200. The coupment was expected to have a useful life of four years or 9,600 operating hours, and are value of $43,200. The equipment was used for 3,360 hours during Year 1, 2,016 hours in Year 2, 2.665 hours in Year, and 1.536 hours in Year 4. Required: 1. Determine the amount of depreciation expense for the four years ending December 31 by (a) the straight-line method (o) the units of activity method, and (c) the double-decinino-balance method. Also determine the total depreciation expense for the four years by each method. Round the answer for each year to the nearest whole dollar Double-Declining- Balance Method < Depreciation Expense Units-of-Activity Year Straight-Line Method Method Year 1 120,000 X Year 2 120,000 X Year 3 120,000 Year 4 120,000 X Total 480,000 480,000 x 2. What method yields the highest depreciation expense for Year 1? Double declining balance method 480,000 3. What method yields the most depreciation over the four year life of the equipment? All three depreciation methods Fecha Back Wort Om Wie

Answers

Depreciation expense for the four years ending December 31:

(a) Straight-line method:

Annual depreciation expense = (Cost - Salvage value) / Useful life in years

= ($523,200 - $43,200) / 4

= $120,000

Year 1: $120,000

Year 2: $120,000

Year 3: $120,000

Year 4: $120,000

Total: $480,000

(b) Units of activity method:

Depreciation rate per unit of activity = (Cost - Salvage value) / Total units of activity expected

= ($523,200 - $43,200) / 9,600

= $48 per hour

Year 1: $48 x 3,360 hours = $161,280

Year 2: $48 x 2,016 hours = $96,768

Year 3: $48 x 2,665 hours = $127,920

Year 4: $48 x 1,536 hours = $73,728

Total: $459,696

(c) Double-declining-balance method:

Depreciation rate = 2 / Useful life in years

= 2 / 4

= 50%

Year 1: ($523,200 x 50%) x (3,360 / 9,600) = $91,350

Year 2: ($523,200 - $91,350) x 50% x (2,016 / 9,600) = $68,512

Year 3: ($523,200 - $91,350 - $68,512) x 50% x (2,665 / 9,600) = $87,388

Year 4: ($523,200 - $91,350 - $68,512 - $87,388) x 50% x (1,536 / 9,600) = $44,266

Total: $291,516

The double-declining-balance method yields the highest depreciation expense for Year 1, with an expense of $91,350.

The double-declining-balance method also yields the most depreciation over the four-year life of the equipment, with a total depreciation expense of $291,516.

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The equity section of the Statement of Net Assets of a government-owned hospital may contain which of the following descriptions?
a.Fiduciary, Proprietary, and General.
b.Nonspendable, Committed, Restricted and Assigned.
c.Permanently Restricted, Temporarily Restricted, and Unrestricted.
d.Nett Investment in Capital Assets, Restricted, and Unrestricted Net Position

Answers

The correct option is d".

Nett Investment in Capital Assets, Restricted, and Unrestricted Net Position.

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the cost of the removal of an old building to make land suitable for its intended use is charged to:

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The cost of the removal of an old building to make land suitable for its intended use is typically charged to the land improvement account.

The cost of removing an old building is considered a cost of improving the land because it is necessary in order to prepare the land for its intended use. This cost would be capitalized as part of the land improvement cost, which is a long-term asset that represents the cost of making the land ready for its intended purpose. The land improvement cost is then depreciated over its useful life, which is typically between 5 and 20 years depending on the type of improvement.

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the gdp gap is: group of answer choices the product of the potential real gdp and the equilibrium level of real gdp. the distance between the current level of real gross domestic product and full employment real gdp. the difference between potential real gdp and the actual equilibrium level of real gdp. the difference between the present value of all of government's projected financial obligations and the present value of all projected future tax and other receipts. the difference between the actual output of an economy and its potential output.

Answers

The GDP gap is the difference between the actual output of an economy and its potential output.

It represents the distance between the current level of real gross domestic product and full employment real GDP. It is calculated as the difference between potential real GDP and the actual equilibrium level of real GDP.
The GDP gap is the difference between the actual output of an economy and its potential output, or in other words, the difference between potential real GDP and the actual equilibrium level of real GDP. This gap represents the distance between the current level of real gross domestic product and full employment real GDP.

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As a project manager impacting an organization, you want to break down barriers to help your team succeed. What would a project manager do to break down barriers?

Answers

To break down barriers and help the team succeed, a project manager should promote open communication and collaboration while providing necessary resources and support to overcome obstacles. They should lead by example, fostering a positive attitude and perseverance.

To break down barriers and help the team succeed, a project manager must actively address and resolve obstacles.

Firstly, they should encourage open and honest communication, creating a safe space for team members to voice their concerns and ideas. This fosters trust and collaboration.

Secondly, the project manager should identify and mitigate any cultural or interpersonal conflicts within the team, promoting inclusivity and understanding.

Thirdly, they should provide clarity on goals, expectations, and roles, ensuring everyone is aligned and working towards a common objective. Additionally, the project manager should actively remove any resource or logistical constraints that hinder progress.

Lastly, they should lead by example, demonstrating resilience, adaptability, and a solution-oriented mindset to inspire the team to overcome challenges.

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NetWare ____ server gives any authorized client anywhere on the Internet the ability to print and use storage services.

Answers

NetWare, a server operating system developed by Novell, provides various services to authorized clients, including the ability to print and use storage services from anywhere on the Internet.

NetWare uses a client-server architecture, which means that the server (NetWare) manages the resources, while the clients (users) request and utilize these resources.

The NetWare server allows authorized clients to access its resources by using a secure authentication process. Clients are required to enter their login credentials, and the server verifies their identity before granting access. Once authenticated, the client can take advantage of the server's resources, including printing and storage services.

Printing services provided by the NetWare server enable users to send documents for printing remotely. The server acts as a central hub for managing all print requests and ensures the document reaches the designated printer.

This makes it possible for users to print documents from anywhere on the Internet without the need for a direct connection to the printer.

Storage services offered by the NetWare server allow clients to store, retrieve, and manage files remotely. Users can save their data on the server and access it from any location with an internet connection. The server provides a secure environment for storing data and supports features such as file-sharing, version control, and data backup

In summary, the NetWare server gives any authorized client anywhere on the Internet the ability to print and use storage services. This is achieved through secure authentication, centralized management of print requests, and the provision of remote file storage and management features.

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using the regression output, identify the standard deviation of the residuals and explain what it means in the context of the problem.

Answers

To identify the standard deviation of the residuals from a regression output, you would typically look for the value labeled as "Residual Standard Error" or "Root Mean Square Error." This value represents the average amount that the actual data points deviate from the predicted values in the regression model. In other words, it measures the spread or variability of the residuals around the regression line.

The standard deviation of the residuals is important because it tells us how well the regression model fits the data. A smaller standard deviation indicates that the model is a better fit for the data, while a larger standard deviation suggests that there may be some unexplained variability or errors in the model. Additionally, the standard deviation of the residuals can be used to estimate the precision of the model's predictions, as it represents the typical amount of error that we can expect when using the model to make predictions for new data points.

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4. A process costing system is used by a company thata. produces heterogeneous products.b. produces items by special request of customers.c. produces homogeneous products.d. accumulates costs by job.

Answers

A process costing system is used by a company that c) produces homogeneous products.

This type of costing system is ideal for organizations that manufacture large volumes of identical items, such as chemicals, beverages, or food products. Unlike a job order costing system, which accumulates costs by job and is more suitable for companies producing heterogeneous products or items by special request of customers, a process costing system allocates production costs evenly across all units produced.

In a process costing system, costs are tracked through a series of connected processes or departments, and the average cost per unit is calculated by dividing the total costs incurred during a specific period by the number of units produced. This approach provides managers with valuable insights into the efficiency of each production process, allowing them to identify areas for improvement and make more informed decisions.

Overall, a process costing system is a crucial tool for companies producing homogeneous products, as it enables them to accurately determine production costs, maintain consistency in product quality, and streamline their operations. Hence, the correct answer is option c.

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In the short run, if a successful monopolistically competitive firm in the fashion industry has an average total cost curve that lies above the demand curve, then the firm is:
making positive economic profits.
breaking even.
making zero economic profits.
taking a loss.

Answers

In the short run, if a successful monopolistically competitive firm in the fashion industry has an average total cost curve that lies above the demand curve, then the firm is taking a loss. The correct answer in option D.

In a monopolistically competitive market, firms differentiate their products and have some degree of control over the price they charge. In the short run, the position of the average total cost (ATC) curve relative to the demand curve determines a firm's economic situation. If the ATC curve lies above the demand curve, it means the firm's average total cost per unit is greater than the price they can charge for their product. This leads to a situation where the firm is unable to cover its costs and thus takes a loss.

When a monopolistically competitive firm's average total cost curve is above the demand curve, it indicates that the firm is taking a loss in the short run. This is because the price they can charge for their product is lower than the cost of producing it.

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A user opens a help desk ticket to replace a laptop keyboard. the user reports that the cursor randomly moves when typing, causing them to make frequent typing corrections. the problem does not occur when the laptop is attached to a docking station and an external keyboard is used. you want to find a more affordable solution than replacing the keyboard. What actions best mitigates the problem?

Answers

One solution to mitigate the issue of the cursor randomly moving when typing on the laptop keyboard would be to use a docking station and an external keyboard. Since the problem does not occur when the laptop is attached to a docking station,

This would be an effective way to prevent the issue from happening. Additionally, using an external keyboard would provide a more comfortable and efficient typing experience for the user. This solution would also be more affordable than replacing the laptop keyboard, which could be a costly repair.

To best mitigate the problem of the cursor randomly moving while typing on the laptop keyboard, you can consider adjusting the touchpad sensitivity settings or temporarily disabling the touchpad when an external keyboard is not in use. This provides an affordable alternative to replacing the laptop keyboard, especially since the issue doesn't occur when using a docking station with an external keyboard.

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in an individualist culture, the extent of blank is the main indicator of how long an employee will remain in a job. multiple choice question. person-education fit person-job fit person-product person-compensation

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In an individualist culture, the main indicator of how long an employee will remain in a job is the extent of: person-job fit. The correct option is B.

This means that the individual's personal characteristics, skills, and values align with the requirements and expectations of the job they are performing. In an individualist culture, people prioritize their individual needs and desires over the needs of the group or organization.

Therefore, it is essential for employees to feel that they are in a job that is fulfilling and meaningful to them, and that they have the necessary skills and abilities to perform their tasks effectively. When an individual feels a strong sense of person-job fit, they are more likely to remain in that job for a longer period of time.

However, if there is a mismatch between the individual and the job, the employee is likely to leave the job sooner rather than later. It is important for employers to recognize the importance of person-job fit in individualist cultures and strive to create job roles that are suitable and meaningful for their employees.

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Complete question:

in an individualist culture, the extent of blank is the main indicator of how long an employee will remain in a job. multiple choice question.

a. person-education fit

b. person-job fit

c. person-product

d. person-compensation

Which of the following statements is the best description of the per capita generation of solid waste between 1960 and 2010?
ANSWER:
Between 1960 and 2010, per capita generation was relatively constant.
Between 1960 and 2010, per capita generation of solid waste increased steadily.
Between 1960 and 2000, per capita generation increased. After 2000, per capita generation declined.
Between 1960 and 1990, per capita generation increased at a steady rate. After 1990, per capita generation continued to increase, but at a slower rate.

Answers

Between 1960 and 2010, per capita generation of solid waste increased steadily. The best description of the per capita generation of solid waste between 1960 and 2010 is that it increased steadily.

The first option, stating that per capita generation was relatively constant, is incorrect, as data indicates that the amount of solid waste generated per person increased over this period.

The third option, stating that per capita generation declined after 2000, is also incorrect, as data shows that the per capita generation continued to increase after 2000.

The fourth option is partially correct in that per capita generation continued to increase after 1990, but it fails to acknowledge the steady rate of increase that occurred between 1960 and 1990.

Therefore, the second option is the best description, as it accurately describes the trend of per capita generation of solid waste over the entire period of 1960 to 2010.

It is important to note that this increase in per capita generation of solid waste has significant environmental and health implications, highlighting the need for effective waste management and reduction strategies.

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______ are independent, certified professionals who verify the firm's books of accounts to unearth financial irregularities and ensure good accounting practices.

Answers

Auditors are independent, certified professionals who verify the firm's books of accounts to unearth financial irregularities and ensure good accounting practices.

An auditor's main responsibility is to provide an objective and independent evaluation of the accuracy and completeness of a company's financial statements.

Auditors examine various financial records and documents to determine if they comply with generally accepted accounting principles. They then report their findings to management and stakeholders, providing explanations for any discrepancies found. In conclusion, auditors play a crucial role in ensuring that a company's financial statements are accurate, transparent, and in compliance with accounting standards.
Auditors are independent, certified professionals who verify a firm's books of accounts to identify financial irregularities and ensure good accounting practices. Their primary responsibility is to examine financial statements, assess the accuracy and completeness of the records, and provide an objective opinion on the financial health of the organization.
In summary, auditors play a crucial role in maintaining transparency and accountability within organizations by verifying their financial records and ensuring adherence to established accounting practices.

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what is the term for an agreement an employer makes to recognize union representation if enough employees sign to authorize it?

Answers

The term for an agreement an employer makes to recognize union representation if enough employees sign to authorize it is called a card check agreement.

This type of agreement allows for employees to sign authorization cards indicating their desire for union representation, and if a majority of employees sign these cards, the employer agrees to recognize the union as the representative of the workers. The card check process is often used as an alternative to traditional union organizing campaigns, as it can be a more efficient and less confrontational way for employees to gain union representation. However, card check agreements can be controversial, as some employers argue that they can be subject to coercion and intimidation from union organizers. Overall, the use of card check agreements is an important tool for employees seeking to form unions and gain better working conditions and wages.

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Which of the following statements regarding a valuation loss determined through the application of the lower-of-cost-or-net realizable value rule is true?
Select one:
a. A significant valuation loss considered unusual or infrequent would be reported either as cost of goods sold or as part of other expenses and losses
b. A valuation loss may not be recorded when cost exceeds net realizable value under certain cases such as when there is an effective government-controlled market.
c. On the balance sheet, the valuation loss is reflected either as a reduction to inventory directly or in a contra asset account.
d. A and C
e. B and C
f. A and B

Answers

When the cost of inventory exceeds its net realizable value, a valuation loss should be recorded in the financial statements. So, the correct answer is e. B and C.

However, under certain circumstances, such as when there is an effective government-controlled market, a valuation loss may not be recorded. On the balance sheet, the valuation loss is reflected either as a reduction to inventory directly or in a contra asset account. Therefore, option B and C are true statements.

Option A is incorrect because a significant valuation loss considered unusual or infrequent would be reported separately as part of the income statement, not as part of cost of goods sold or other expenses and losses. Option D and F are also incorrect because they include at least one false statement.

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On january 1, 2019, x-it company bought a new delivery truck for $30,000. x-it plans to use the truck for 4 years, during which it will be driven 50,000 miles. the truck will be worthless at the end of the 4 years. if the truck was driven 15,000 miles in 2019, depreciation expense for the year using units-of-production is:__________

Answers

Depreciation expense for the year using units-of-production is: $9000.

To calculate depreciation expense for the year using units-of-production, we need to first determine the total expected production of the truck over its useful life.

In this case, the truck is expected to be driven 50,000 miles over 4 years, which means the expected production per year is 12,500 miles (50,000 miles / 4 years).

Since the truck was driven 15,000 miles in 2019, we can calculate the percentage of the truck's expected total production that was used in that year as follows:

15,000 miles / 50,000 miles = 0.3 or 30%

Now we can use this percentage to calculate the depreciation expense for 2019 using units-of-production:

Depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) x Production used

Depreciation expense = ($30,000 - $0) x 0.3

Depreciation expense = $9,000
Therefore, the depreciation expense for the year using units-of-production is $9,000.

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how public policies in technology, human capital and physical capital can encourage long-run economic growth. provide examples of each of these public policies.

Answers

Public policies play a critical role in encouraging long-run economic growth in various sectors such as technology, human capital, and physical capital.

For instance, policies that provide tax incentives and grants to technology startups can promote innovation and create new job opportunities. Similarly, investing in education and training programs that develop human capital can lead to a skilled workforce and boost productivity.

Moreover, policies that promote infrastructure development such as highways, airports, and communication networks can improve physical capital and attract businesses to set up their operations. In summary, public policies that promote innovation, education, and infrastructure development can contribute to long-run economic growth.

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